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  • Is a call to the following method considered late binding?

    - by AspOnMyNet
    1) Assume: • B1 defines methods virtualM() and nonvirtualM(), where former method is virtual while the latter is non-virtual • B2 derives from B1 • B2 overrides virtualM() • B2 is defined inside assembly A • Application app doesn’t have a reference to assembly A In the following code application app dynamically loads an assembly A, creates an instance of a type B2 and calls methods virtualM() and nonvirtualM(): Assembly a=Assembly.Load(“A”); Type t= a.GetType(“B2”); B1 a = ( B1 ) Activator.CreateInstance ( “t” ); a.virtualM(); a.nonvirtualM(); a) Is call to a.virtualM() considered early binding or late binding? b) I assume a call to a.nonvirtualM() is resolved during compilation time? 2) Does the term late binding refer only to looking up the target method at run time or does it also refer to creating an instance of given type at runtime? thanx EDIT: 1) A a=new A(); a.M(); As far as I know, it is not known at compile time where on the heap (thus at which memory address ) will instance a be created during runtime. Now, with early binding the function calls are replaced with memory addresses during compilation process. But how can compiler replace function call with memory address, if it doesn’t know where on the heap will object a be created during runtime ( here I’m assuming the address of method a.M will also be at same memory location as a )? 2) The method slot is determined at compile time I assume that by method slot you’re referring to the entry point in V-table?

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  • Can Content script set value of a text box within HTML frame? using Google Chrome extensions..

    - by devdreamers
    Hi all, I was working on a very simple extension, where on clicking extension icon, a webpage is opened in a new tab, the webpage has HTML frames, within which lies a textbox. I want to set a value for the same. The webpage which opens has: <HTML> <FRAMESET rows="15%, *" border="0"> <FRAME src="./files/abc.htm" id="abc_frame" name="abc_frame" onload="abcLoad()" scrolling="NO"> </FRAMESET> </HTML> and abc.htm has: <div align="center" valign="bottom" style="font-size: 1em;"> <form onSubmit="javascript:navigate(this);return false;"> <label for="loc">Loc</label>: <input type="text" size="50" id="loc" value="http://google.com"/> <input name="go" type="submit" value="Go" id="loc_go" onclick='navigate(this); return false;'/> </form> </div> how can I replace current textbox value with, say http://yahoo.com ? I guess, Content Script in Chrome extensions is required, but not sure, how/what should be it's code/content. Please guide/help. Thanks a lot. Appreciate it.

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  • How to redirect a URL with GET variables in routes.rb without Rails stripping out the variable first?

    - by Michael Hopkins
    I am building a website in Rails to replace an existing website. In routes.rb I am trying to redirect some of the old URLs to their new equivalents (some of the URL slugs are changing so a dynamic solution is not possible.) My routes.rb looks like this: match "/index.php?page=contact-us" => redirect("/contact-us") match "/index.php?page=about-us" => redirect("/about-us") match "/index.php?page=committees" => redirect("/teams") When I visit /index.php?page=contact-us I am not redirected to /contact-us. I have determined this is because Rails is removing the get variables and only trying to match /index.php. For example, If I pass /index.php?page=contact-us into the below routes I will be redirected to /foobar: match "/index.php?page=contact-us" => redirect("/contact-us") match "/index.php?page=about-us" => redirect("/about-us") match "/index.php?page=committees" => redirect("/teams") match "/index.php" => redirect("/foobar") How can I keep the GET variables in the string and redirect the old URLs the way I'd like? Does Rails have an intended mechanism for this?

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  • Is there a supplementary guide/answer key for ruby koans?

    - by corroded
    I have recently tried sharpening my rails skills with this tool: http://github.com/edgecase/ruby_koans but I am having trouble passing some tests. Also I am not sure if I'm doing some things correctly since the objective is just to pass the test, there are a lot of ways in passing it and I may be doing something that isn't up to standards. Is there a way to confirm if I'm doing things right? a specific example: in about_nil, def test_nil_is_an_object assert_equal __, nil.is_a?(Object), "Unlike NULL in other languages" end so is it telling me to check if that second clause is equal to an object(so i can say nil is an object) or just put assert_equal true, nil.is_a?(Object) because the statement is true? and the next test: def test_you_dont_get_null_pointer_errors_when_calling_methods_on_nil # What happens when you call a method that doesn't exist. The # following begin/rescue/end code block captures the exception and # make some assertions about it. begin nil.some_method_nil_doesnt_know_about rescue Exception => ex # What exception has been caught? assert_equal __, ex.class # What message was attached to the exception? # (HINT: replace __ with part of the error message.) assert_match(/__/, ex.message) end end Im guessing I should put a "No method error" string in the assert_match, but what about the assert_equal?

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  • How use unobtrusive validation without a model

    - by Ross Cyrus
    i have simple a form wich made by htmlHelper(mvc3) then inside of it i have 2 input field 1:type=text 2:type=submit to submit the form. there is no model behind.so i need to perfom a clientside validation on the textfield before submit it to the server.but i dont know how. i tried this puting manualy the 'data-* artibute , but does not work : @using( Html.BeginForm()) { <label for="UserName" >User Name</label> <div class="editor-field"> <input type="text" data-val="true" data-val-requierd="You must provide an user Name" id="userName" name="userName" placeholder="Enter Your User Name" /> </div> <input type="submit" value="Recover" /> } the "jquery.validate.min.js" and jquery.validate.unobtrusive.min.js and jquery.validate.min.js and jquery.validate.unobtrusive.min.js are loaded to the page. It doesnt let me to answer my self ,so i put it here : I solve it my self,just made an other view wich has its own model and Required on its propertyis and then just copy the renderd html to my own,and i got this and works : <input data-val="true" data-val-required="You must provide an user Name" id="UserName" name="UserName" type="text" value="" placeholder="Enter your User Name"/> <span class="field-validation-valid" data-valmsg-for="UserName" data-valmsg-replace="true"></span> And there is no type="Required".any way thank you guys.

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  • asp.net mvc ajax helper/post additional data w/o jquery.

    - by Jopache
    I would like to use the ajax helper to create ajax requests that send additional, dynamic data with the post (for example, get the last element with class = blogCommentDateTime and send the value of that last one to the controller which will return only blog comments after it). I have successfully done so with the help of jQuery Form plugin like so: $(document).ready(function () { $("#addCommentForm").submit(function () { var lastCommentDate = $(".CommentDateHidden:last").val(); var lastCommentData = { lastCommentDateTicks: lastCommentDate }; var formSubmitParams = { data: lastCommentData, success: AddCommentResponseHandler } $("#addCommentForm").ajaxSubmit(formSubmitParams); return false; }); This form was created with html.beginform() method. I am wondering if there is an easy way to do this using the ajax.beginform() helper? When I try to use the same code but replace html.beginform() with ajax.beginform(), when i try to submit the form, I am issuing 2 posts (which is understandable, one being taken care of by the helper, the other one by me with the JS above. I can't create 2 requests, so this option is out) I tried getting rid of the return false and changing ajaxSubmit() to ajaxForm() so that it would only "prepare" the form, and this leads in only one post, but it does not include the extra parameter that I defined, so this is worthless as well. I then tried keeping the ajaxForm() but calling that whenever the submit button on the form gets clicked rather than when the form gets submitted (I guess this is almost the same thing) and that results in 2 posts also. The biggest reason I am asking this question is that I have run in to some issues with the javascript above and using mvc validation provided by the mvc framework (which i will set up another question for) and would like to know this so I can dive further in to my validation issue.

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  • Boost binding a function taking a reference

    - by Jamie Cook
    Hi all, I am having problems compiling the following snippet int temp; vector<int> origins; vector<string> originTokens = OTUtils::tokenize(buffer, ","); // buffer is a char[] array // original loop BOOST_FOREACH(string s, originTokens) { from_string(temp, s); origins.push_back(temp); } // I'd like to use this to replace the above loop std::transform(originTokens.begin(), originTokens.end(), origins.begin(), boost::bind<int>(&FromString<int>, boost::ref(temp), _1)); where the function in question is // the third parameter should be one of std::hex, std::dec or std::oct template <class T> bool FromString(T& t, const std::string& s, std::ios_base& (*f)(std::ios_base&) = std::dec) { std::istringstream iss(s); return !(iss >> f >> t).fail(); } the error I get is 1>Compiling with Intel(R) C++ 11.0.074 [IA-32]... (Intel C++ Environment) 1>C:\projects\svn\bdk\Source\deps\boost_1_42_0\boost/bind/bind.hpp(303): internal error: assertion failed: copy_default_arg_expr: rout NULL, no error (shared/edgcpfe/il.c, line 13919) 1> 1> return unwrapper<F>::unwrap(f, 0)(a[base_type::a1_], a[base_type::a2_]); 1> ^ 1> 1>icl: error #10298: problem during post processing of parallel object compilation Google is being unusually unhelpful so I hope that some one here can provide some insights.

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  • Wrapper Classes for Backward compatibility in Java

    - by Casebash
    There is an interesting article here on maintaing backwards compatibility for Java. In the wrapper class section, I can't actually understand what the wrapper class accomplishes. In the following code from MyApp, WrapNewClass.checkAvailable() could be replaced by Class.forName("NewClass"). static { try { WrapNewClass.checkAvailable(); mNewClassAvailable = true; } catch (Throwable ex) { mNewClassAvailable = false; } } Consider when NewClass is unavailable. In the code where we use the wrapper (see below), all we have done is replace a class that doesn't exist, with one that exists, but which can't be compiled as it uses a class that doesn't exist. public void diddle() { if (mNewClassAvailable) { WrapNewClass.setGlobalDiv(4); WrapNewClass wnc = new WrapNewClass(40); System.out.println("newer API is available - " + wnc.doStuff(10)); }else { System.out.println("newer API not available"); } } Can anyone explain why this makes a difference? I assume it has something to do with how Java compiles code - which I don't know much about.

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  • Silverlight Socket Constantly Returns With Empty Buffer

    - by Benny
    I am using Silverlight to interact with a proxy application that I have developed but, without the proxy sending a message to the Silverlight application, it executes the receive completed handler with an empty buffer ('\0's). Is there something I'm doing wrong? It is causing a major memory leak. this._rawBuffer = new Byte[this.BUFFER_SIZE]; SocketAsyncEventArgs receiveArgs = new SocketAsyncEventArgs(); receiveArgs.SetBuffer(_rawBuffer, 0, _rawBuffer.Length); receiveArgs.Completed += new EventHandler<SocketAsyncEventArgs>(ReceiveComplete); this._client.ReceiveAsync(receiveArgs); if (args.SocketError == SocketError.Success && args.LastOperation == SocketAsyncOperation.Receive) { // Read the current bytes from the stream buffer int bytesRecieved = this._client.ReceiveBufferSize; // If there are bytes to process else the connection is lost if (bytesRecieved > 0) { try { //Find out what we just received string messagePart = UTF8Encoding.UTF8.GetString(_rawBuffer, 0, _rawBuffer.GetLength(0)); //Take out any trailing empty characters from the message messagePart = messagePart.Replace('\0'.ToString(), ""); //Concatenate our current message with any leftovers from previous receipts string fullMessage = _theRest + messagePart; int seperator; //While the index of the seperator (LINE_END defined & initiated as private member) while ((seperator = fullMessage.IndexOf((char)Messages.MessageSeperator.Terminator)) > 0) { //Pull out the first message available (up to the seperator index string message = fullMessage.Substring(0, seperator); //Queue up our new message _messageQueue.Enqueue(message); //Take out our line end character fullMessage = fullMessage.Remove(0, seperator + 1); } //Save whatever was NOT a full message to the private variable used to store the rest _theRest = fullMessage; //Empty the queue of messages if there are any while (this._messageQueue.Count > 0) { ... } } catch (Exception e) { throw e; } // Wait for a new message if (this._isClosing != true) Receive(); } } Thanks in advance.

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  • R: manipulating data.frames containing strings and booleans.

    - by Mike Dewar
    Hello. I have a data.frame in R; it's called p. Each element in the data.frame is either True or False. My variable p has, say, m rows and n columns. For every row there is strictly only one TRUE element. It also has column names, which are strings. What I would like to do is the following: For every row in p I see a TRUE I would like to replace with the name of the corresponding column I would then like to collapse the data.frame, which now contains FALSEs and column names, to a single vector, which will have m elements. I would like to do this in an R-thonic manner, so as to continue my enlightenment in R and contribute to a world without for-loops. I can do step 1 using the following for loop: for (i in seq(length(colnames(p)))) { p[p[,i]==TRUE,i]=colnames(p)[i] } but theres's no beauty here and I have totally subscribed to this for-loops-in-R-are-probably-wrong mentality. Maybe wrong is too strong but they're certainly not great. I don't really know how to do step 2. I kind of hoped that the sum of a string and FALSE would return the string but it doesn't. I kind of hoped I could use an OR operator of some kind but can't quite figure that out (Python responds to False or 'bob' with 'bob'). Hence, yet again, I appeal to you beautiful Rstats people for help!

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  • Alternative to using c:out to prevent XSS

    - by lynxforest
    I'm working on preventing cross site scripting (XSS) in a Java, Spring based, Web application. I have already implemented a servlet filter similar to this example http://greatwebguy.com/programming/java/simple-cross-site-scripting-xss-servlet-filter/ which sanitizes all the input into the application. As an extra security measure I would like to also sanitize all output of the application in all JSPs. I have done some research to see how this could be done and found two complementary options. One of them is the use of Spring's defaultHtmlEscape attribute. This was very easy to implement (a few lines in web.xml), and it works great when your output is going through one of spring's tags (ie: message, or form tags). The other option I have found is to not directly use EL expressions such as ${...} and instead use <c:out value="${...}" /> That second approach works perfectly, however due to the size of the application I am working on (200+ JSP files). It is a very cumbersome task to have to replace all inappropriate uses of EL expressions with the c:out tag. Also it would become a cumbersome task in the future to make sure all developers stick to this convention of using the c:out tag (not to mention, how much more unreadable the code would be). Is there alternative way to escape the output of EL expressions that would require fewer code modifications? Thank you in advance.

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  • What VC++ compiler/linker does when building a C++ project with Managed Extension

    - by ???
    The initial problem is that I tried to rebuild a C++ project with debug symbols and copied it to test machine, The output of the project is external COM server(.exe file). When calling the COM interface function, there's a RPC call failre: COMException(0x800706BE): The remote procedure call failed. According to the COM HRESULT design, if the FACILITY code is 7, it's actually a WIN32 error, and the win32 error code is 0x6BE, which is the above mentioned "remote procedure call failed". All I do is replace the COM server .exe file, the origin file works well. When I checked into the project, I found it's a C++ project with Managed Extension. When I checking the DLL with reflector, it shows there's 2 additional .NET assembly reference. Then I checked the project setting and found nothing about the extra 2 assembly reference. I turned on the show includes option of compiler and verbose library of linker, and try to analyze whether the assembly is indirectly referenced via .h file. I've collect all the .h file and grep all the files with '#using' '#import' and the assembly file itself. There really is a '#using ' in one of the .h file but not-relevant to the referenced assembly. And about the linked .lib library files, only one of the .lib file is a side-product of another managed-extension-enabled C++ project, all others are produced by a pure, traditional C++ project. For the managed-extension-enabled C++ project, I checked the output DLL assembly, it did NOT reference to the 2 assembly. I even try to capture the access of the additional assembly file via sysinternal's filemon and procmon, but the rebuild process does NOT access these file. I'm very confused about the compile and linking process model of a VC++/CLI project, where the additional assembly reference slipped into the final assembly? Thanks in advance for any of your help.

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  • Error logging in C#

    - by rschuler
    I am making my switch from coding in C++ to C#. I need to replace my C++ error logging/reporting macro system with something similar in C#. In my C++ source I can write LOGERR("Some error"); or LOGERR("Error with inputs %s and %d", stringvar, intvar); The macro & supporting library code then passes the (possibly varargs) formatted message into a database along with the source file, source line, user name, and time. The same data is also stuffed into a data structure for later reporting to the user. Does anybody have C# code snippets or pointers to examples that do this basic error reporting/logging? Edit: At the time I asked this question I was really new to .NET and was unaware of System.Diagnostics.Trace. System.Diagnostics.Trace was what I needed at that time. Since then I have used log4net on projects where the logging requirements were larger and more complex. Just edit that 500 line XML configuration file and log4net will do everything you will ever need :)

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  • Writing csv file in asp.net

    - by Keith
    Hello, I'm trying to export data to a csv file, as there are chinese characters in the data i had to use unicode.. but after adding the preamble for unicode, the commas are not recognized as delimiters and all data are now written to the first column. I'm not sure what is wrong. Below is my code which i wrote in a .ashx file. DataView priceQuery = (DataView)context.Session["priceQuery"]; String fundName = priceQuery.Table.Rows[0][0].ToString().Trim().Replace(' ', '_'); context.Response.Clear(); context.Response.ClearContent(); context.Response.ClearHeaders(); context.Response.ContentType = "text/csv"; context.Response.ContentEncoding = System.Text.Encoding.Unicode; context.Response.AddHeader("Content-Disposition", "attachment; filename=" + fundName + ".csv"); context.Response.BinaryWrite(System.Text.Encoding.Unicode.GetPreamble()); String output = fundName + "\n"; output += "Price, Date" + "\n"; foreach (DataRow row in priceQuery.Table.Rows) { string price = row[2].ToString(); string date = ((DateTime)row[1]).ToString("dd-MMM-yy"); output += price + "," + date + "\n"; } context.Response.Write(output);

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  • Trigger ad-hoc activity within a workflow

    - by Chris Taylor
    I am looking to use WF 4 to replace an existing workflow solution we have. One feature that is currently used in the existing workflow engine is the ability to cancel a current activity and loopback to a FlowSwitch type activity. So given the following crude workflow where we start at 'O' and base in the input data the workflow follows the path to 'A2' which is currently blocking on s bookmark waiting for input. ---------A1--\ | \ /\ \ O------- ---->--(A2)-------| ^ \/ / | | | / | | ---------A3--/ | | | |----------------------| However in the meantime some out of band data comes in that means we should cancel 'A2' and return to the FlowSwitch to re-evaluate based on the new data. The question is what is the best way to handle the out of band data that arrived? My initial guess is to have a Parallel activity with one branch waiting for out of band data and the other branch containing the workflow sequence described above. If data came in on the brach waiting for the out of band data, how would I cancel the current activity in the workflow and force it to return to the FlowSwitch. Or of course is there a better way to handle this. I have not actually done any work with the WF4 stuff for WF3 for that matter so I might be missing something obvious here.

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  • Unit Testing a rails 2.3.5 plugin

    - by brad
    I'm writing a new plugin for a rails 2.3.5 app. I've included an app directory (which makes it an engine) so i can easily load some extra routes. Not sure if that affects anything. Anyway, in the test directory i have two files: test_helper.rb and my_plugin_test.rb These files were generated automatically using script/generate plugin my_plugin When I go to vendor/plugins/my_plugin directory and run rake test they don't seem to run. I get the following console output: (in /Users/me/Repos/my_app/source/trunk/vendor/plugins/my_plugin) /Users/me/.rvm/rubies/jruby-1.4.0/bin/jruby -I"lib:lib:test" "/Users/me/.rvm/gems/jruby-1.4.0/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake/rake_test_loader.rb" "test/my_plugin_test.rb" So it obviously sees my test file, but none of the tests inside get run, I just get back to my console prompt. What am I missing here? I figured the generated code would work out of the box Here are the two files test_helper.rb require 'rubygems' require 'active_support' require 'active_support/test_case' my_plugin_test.rb require 'test_helper' class MyPluginTest < ActiveSupport::TestCase # Replace this with your real tests. test "the truth" do assert true end test "Factories are supported" do assert_not_nil Factory end end File structure vendor - plugins - my_plugin - app - config - routes.rb - generators - my_plugin - some generator files.rb - lib - my_plugin.rb - my_plugin - my_plugin_lib_file.rb - rails - init.rb - Rakefile - tasks - my_plugin_tasks.rake - test - test_helper.rb - my_plugin_test.rb

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  • Silverlight performance with many loaded controls

    - by gius
    I have a SL application with many DataGrids (from Silverlight Toolkit), each on its own view. If several DataGrids are opened, changing between views (TabItems, for example) takes a long time (few seconds) and it freezes the whole application (UI thread). The more DataGrids are loaded, the longer the change takes. These DataGrids that slow the UI chanage might be on other places in the app and not even visible at that moment. But once they are opened (and loaded with data), they slow showing other DataGrids. Note that DataGrids are NOT disposed and then recreated again, they still remain in memory, only their parent control is being hidden and visible again. I have profiled the application. It shows that agcore.dll's SetValue function is the bottleneck. Unfortunately, debug symbols are not available for this Silverlight native library responsible for drawing. The problem is not in the DataGrid control - I tried to replace it with XCeed's grid and the performance when changing views is even worse. Do you have any idea how to solve this problem? Why more opened controls slow down other controls? I have created a sample that shows this issue: http://cenud.cz/PerfTest.zip UPDATE: Using VS11 profiler on the sample provided suggests that the problem could be in MeasureOverride being called many times (for each DataGridCell, I guess). But still, why is it slower as more controls are loaded elsewhere? Is there a way to improve the performance?

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  • Set .aspx page title to that of an Eval

    - by user1860529
    I am trying to use an <%# Eval("name") %> to be the title of my page. I can't seem to figure out any solutions online. I have tried the other StackOverflow question but that did now work either. The page is a bio.aspx and on the site it is displayed as bio.aspx?id=123 so the page title needs to vary depending on the ID. I figured I could just use the Eval("name") but no luck yet. I currently am using JavaScript: window.onload = function() { document.title = '<%# Eval("name") %> | Title Line'; } This works, but it still leaves the title tags empty, and it's kind of spammy. Here is the codebehind: using System; using System.Data; using System.Configuration; using System.Collections; using System.Web; using System.Web.Security; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using System.Web.UI.WebControls.WebParts; using System.Web.UI.HtmlControls; public partial class DoctorBio : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Page.Title = "Your Page Title"; HtmlMeta metaDescription = new HtmlMeta(); metaDescription.Name = "description"; metaDescription.Content = "brief description"; Page.Header.Controls.Add(metaDescription); HtmlMeta metaKeywords = new HtmlMeta(); metaKeywords.Name = "keywords"; metaKeywords.Content = "keywords, keywords"; Page.Header.Controls.Add(metaKeywords); } protected void SetPageTitle(object title) { this.Title = title.ToString(); } protected string ReplaceLineBreaks(object text) { string newText = text as string; if (newText == null) { return string.Empty; } return newText.Replace("\r\n", "<br />"); } }

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  • How to get the most out of a 3 month intern?

    - by firoso
    We've got a software engineering intern coming in who's fairly competent and shows promise. There's one catch: we have him for 3 months full time and can't count on anything past that. He still has a year of school left, which is why we can't say for sure that we have him past 3 months. We have a specific project we're putting him on. How can we maximize his productivity while still giving him a positive learning experience? He wants to learn about development cycles and real-world software engineering. Anything that you think would be critical that you wish you had learned earlier? Nearly six months later: He's preformed admirably and even I have learned a lot from him. Thank you all for the input. Now I want to provide feedback to YOU! He has benefited most from sitting down and writing code. However, he has had a nasty history of bad software engineering practices which I'm trying to replace with good habits (properly finishing a method before moving on, not hacking code together, proper error channeling, etc). He has also really gained a lot by feeling involved in design decisions, even if most of the time they're related to my own design plans.

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  • How to bind to another event after ajax call in jquery

    - by robert
    Hi, I'm creating a graph using flot javascript library. I have enabled clickable event and the div is binded to plotclick event. So, when a datapoint is clicked, an ajax call is made and the result is used to replace the current div. After this i need to bind the div to a new event. I tried to call bind, but it is still bound to old callback. When i call unbind and bind, the new callback is not called. var handleTeacherClick = function( event, pos, item ) { if( typeof item != "undefined" && item ) { var user_id = jQuery( 'input[name="id' + item.datapoint[0] + '"]' ).val(); jQuery.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: BASEPATH + 'index.php/ajax/home/latest', data: { "user_id": user_id }, dataType: 'json', success: function ( result ) { jQuery.plot(jQuery('#stats_prog'), result.progress_data, result.progress_options); jQuery.plot(jQuery('#stats_perf'), result.performance_data, result.performance_options); jQuery('.stats_title'). html('<span class="stats_title">'+ ' >> Chapter '+Math.ceil(item.datapoint[0])+'</span>'); jQuery('#stats_prog')./*unbind("plotclick").*/ bind('plotclick', statClickHandler ); jQuery('#stats_perf')./*unbind("plotclick"). */ bind( 'plotclick', statClickHandler ); }, }); } }

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  • Are function-local typedefs visible inside C++0x lambdas?

    - by GMan - Save the Unicorns
    I've run into a strange problem. The following simplified code reproduces the problem in MSVC 2010 Beta 2: template <typename T> struct dummy { static T foo(void) { return T(); } }; int main(void) { typedef dummy<bool> dummy_type; auto x = [](void){ bool b = dummy_type::foo(); }; // auto x = [](void){ bool b = dummy<bool>::foo(); }; // works } The typedef I created locally in the function doesn't seem to be visible in the lambda. If I replace the typedef with the actual type, it works as expected. Here are some other test cases: // crashes the compiler, credit to Tarydon int main(void) { struct dummy {}; auto x = [](void){ dummy d; }; } // works as expected int main(void) { typedef int integer; auto x = [](void){ integer i = 0; }; } I don't have g++ 4.5 available to test it, right now. Is this some strange rule in C++0x, or just a bug in the compiler? From the results above, I'm leaning towards bug. Though the crash is definitely a bug. For now, I have filed two bug reports. All code snippets above should compile. The error has to do with using the scope resolution on locally defined scopes. (Spotted by dvide.) And the crash bug has to do with... who knows. :) Update According to the bug reports, they have both been fixed for the next release of Visual Studio 2010.

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  • Problem with UPDATE statement in stored-procedure in Oracle Database

    - by MKP
    Hello, I have stored-procedure in Oracle database like this: create or replace PROCEDURE EDYTUJ_PRACOWNIKA (PR_IMIE IN VARCHAR2, PR_NAZWISKO IN VARCHAR2, PR_PENSJA IN FLOAT, PR_PRZELOZONY IN NUMBER, PR_ODDZIAL IN NUMBER, PRAC_ID IN NUMBER) AS tmpPensja FLOAT := 0; tmpPrzel NUMBER := 0; BEGIN select przelozony into tmpPrzel from pracownik where id = PRAC_ID; IF(tmpPrzel IS NOT NULL) THEN select pensja into tmpPensja from pracownik where id = tmpPrzel; IF(tmpPensja < 1150) THEN UPDATE PRACOWNIK SET pensja = 1000 WHERE id = tmpPrzel; ELSE UPDATE PRACOWNIK SET pensja = pensja - 150 WHERE id = tmpPrzel; (4) END IF; END IF; IF(PR_PRZELOZONY > 0) THEN UPDATE PRACOWNIK SET imie = PR_IMIE, nazwisko = PR_NAZWISKO, pensja = PR_PENSJA, przelozony = PR_PRZELOZONY, oddzial = PR_ODDZIAL WHERE id = PRAC_ID; (2) select pensja into tmpPensja from pracownik where id = PR_PRZELOZONY; IF(tmpPensja > 4850) THEN UPDATE PRACOWNIK SET pensja = 5000 WHERE id = PR_PRZELOZONY; ELSE UPDATE PRACOWNIK SET pensja = pensja + 150 WHERE id = PR_PRZELOZONY; (1) END IF; ELSE UPDATE PRACOWNIK SET imie = PR_IMIE, nazwisko = PR_NAZWISKO, pensja = PR_PENSJA, przelozony = NULL, oddzial = PR_ODDZIAL WHERE ID = PRAC_ID; (3) END IF; END; where przelozony and pensja are columns in pracownik table. And I have problem that when running procedure with parameters that provide that line marked with "(1)" (there is the same problem with line marked with "(4)") should be executed that update statement don't have any effect. What's more statements in lines marked with "(2)" and "(3)" works fine. I have no ideas how to fix it. Thank you in advance for your help.

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  • Assign Multiple Custom User Roles to a Custom Post Type

    - by OUHSD Webmaster
    Okay here's the situation.... I'm working on a my business website. There will be a work/portfolio area. "Work" is a custom post type. "Designer" is a custom user role. "Client" is a custom user role. In creating a new "Work" post I would like to be able to select both a "designer" and "Client" to assign to the piece of work, as I would assign an author to a regular ol' post. I tried the method from this answer but it did not work for me. ) I placed it in my functions.php file. ` add_filter('wp_dropdown_users', 'test'); function test($output) { global $post; //Doing it only for the custom post type if($post->post_type == 'work') { $users = get_users(array('role'=>'designer')); //We're forming a new select with our values, you can add an option //with value 1, and text as 'admin' if you want the admin to be listed as well, //optionally you can use a simple string replace trick to insert your options, //if you don't want to override the defaults $output .= "<select id='post_author_override' name='post_author_override' class=''>"; foreach($users as $user) { $output .= "<option value='".$user->id."'>".$user->user_login."</option>"; } $output .= "</select>"; } return $output; } ` Any help would be extremely appreciated!

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  • Free solution for automatic updates with .NET/C#?

    - by a2h
    Yes, from searching I can see this has been asked time and time again. Here's a backstory. I'm an individual hobbyist developer with zero budget. A program I've been developing has been in need of constant bugfixes, and me and users are getting tired of having to manually update. Me, because my current solution of Manually FTP to my website Update a file "newest.txt" with the newest version Update index.html with a link to the newest version Hope for people to see the "there's an update" message Have them manually download the update sucks, and whenever I screw up an update, I get pitchforks. Users, because, well, "Are you ever going to implement auto-update?" "Will there ever be an auto-update feature?" Over the past few hours I have looked into: http://windowsclient.net/articles/appupdater.aspx - I can't comprehend the documentation http://www.codeproject.com/KB/vb/Auto_Update_Revisited.aspx - Doesn't appear to support anything other than working with files that aren't in use http://wyday.com/wyupdate/ - wyBuild isn't free, and the file specification is simply too complex. Maybe if I was under a company paying me I could spend the time, but then I may as well pay for wyBuild. http://www.kineticjump.com/update/default.aspx - Ditto. ClickOnce - Workarounds for implementing launching on startup are massive, horrendous and not worth it for such a simple feature. Publishing is a pain; manual FTP and replace of all files is required for servers without FrontPage Extensions. I'm pretty much ready to throw in the towel right now and strangle myself. And then I think about Sparkle...

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  • Showing latex commands in text string using mathjax

    - by robezy
    I have a text string, for ex. 'A vehicle travels from A to B, distance {$d} km at constant speed. While returning back to A on same path it {$variation} its speed by {$v} km/hr. The total time of journey is {$t} hours. Find the original speed of vehicle.' The variables in the curly brackets are to be replaced by appropriate latex equation. I'm using php's preg_replace to replace the variables with latex commands. Unfortunately, my latex commands are coming as it is. It is not processed by mathjax. For ex, above text becomes A vehicle travels from A to B, distance 1 km at constant speed. While returning back to A on same path it increased its speed by (\frac{3}{2}) km/hr. The total time of journey is 1 hours. Find the original speed of vehicle. The frac is show as it is. What is wrong here? Please ask me if you need any more info. Thanks

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