Search Results

Search found 120608 results on 4825 pages for 'code access security'.

Page 322/4825 | < Previous Page | 318 319 320 321 322 323 324 325 326 327 328 329  | Next Page >

• @Secured not working

  - by user3640507

  I am new to spring and trying to implement Role based authorization with the help of @Secured annotation. I have a method which is specifically for ADMIN and I have written @Secured ("ROLE_ADMIN") to secure it. @Secured ("ROLE_ADMIN") public void HelloUser(String name) { System.out.println("Hello ADMIN"); } Now when I call this method by creating a class object it gets called eventhough user dont have ADMIN authority But when I dont create an object and use @autowired annotation instead then it works i.e User is not allowed to access this method. In my security.xml as well as servlet.xml I have added <global-method-security secured-annotations="enabled" /> Can some one please tell me where I am going wrong or is this the natural behaviour in spring ?

  Read the article

• Leaving SQL Management open on the internet

  - by Tim Fraud

  I am a developer, but every so often need access to our production database -- yeah, poor practice, but anyway... My boss doesn't want me directly on the box using RDP, and so we decided to just permit MS SQL Management Console access so that I can do my tasks. So right now we have the SQL box somewhat accessible on the internet (on port 1433 if I am not mistaken), which opens a security hole. But I am wondering, how much of an uncommon practice is this, and what defaults should I be concerned about? We use MSSQL2008 and I created an account that has Read-Only access, because my production tasks only need that. I didn't see any unusual default accounts with default passwords on the system, so I would be interested to hear your take. (And of-course, is there a better way?)

  Read the article

• Securely using exec with PHP to run ffmpeg

  - by Venkat D.

  I would like to run ffmpeg from PHP for video encoding purposes. I was thinking of using the exec or passthru commands. However, I have been warned that enabling these functions is a security risk. In the words of my support staff: The directive 'disable_functions' is used to disable any functions that allow the execution of system commands. This is for more security of the server. These PHP functions can be used to crack the server if not used properly. I'm guessing that if exec is enabled, then someone could (possibly) execute an arbitrary unix command. Does anyone know of a secure way to run ffmpeg from PHP? By the way, I'm on a dedicated server. Thanks ahead of time!

  Read the article

• Tag <code>: how to "correct" publish it ?

  - by stighy

  Hi, i'm not sure to explain what i'm looking for. What's the name of the "source code parser" for publish code, in HTML ? For example, when i write some source code here in stack overflow, system auto-detect the sintax and write "correct" source code in html. I've noticed that exists the HTML <"code" tag, but it simply write source code in "courier" font. So i'm asking you if exists some "external" component that, given a text, parse it out correctly in a HTML page. Thank you!

  Read the article

• All PHP files getting hacked

  - by nsearle

  Hey All, Like always, just want to say thank you for all of the help and input in advance. I have a particular site that I am the web developer for and am running into a unique problem. It seems that somehow something is getting into every single PHP file on my site and adding some malware code. I have deleted the code from every page multiple times and changed FTP and DB passwords, but to no avail. The code that is added looks like this - eval(base64_decode(string)) - which the string is 3024 characters. Not sure if anyone else has ran into this problem or if any one has ideas on how I can secure my php code up. Thanks again.

  Read the article

• Visual Studio swapping code between projects?!?!?!?!??!

  - by Tom

  Are there any known issues with visual studio and code being swapped between projects? I had a project running in VS2008 and when i went back to it, the code from another project had been swapped in the Program.cs class. I havent made any mistakes, im not talking about some code- i mean the whole project had been swapped out. Its as if the .proj files or .soln files had been swapped from their project folders??? EDIT Ive restarted laptop, opened the code again and its still showing the wrong code BUT when i execute it, its the right code?!?!?!

  Read the article

• How to stop registration attempts on Asterisk

  - by Travesty3

  The main question: My Asterisk logs are littered with messages like these: [2012-05-29 15:53:49] NOTICE[5578] chan_sip.c: Registration from '<sip:[email protected]>' failed for '37.75.210.177' - No matching peer found [2012-05-29 15:53:50] NOTICE[5578] chan_sip.c: Registration from '<sip:[email protected]>' failed for '37.75.210.177' - No matching peer found [2012-05-29 15:53:55] NOTICE[5578] chan_sip.c: Registration from '<sip:[email protected]>' failed for '37.75.210.177' - No matching peer found [2012-05-29 15:53:55] NOTICE[5578] chan_sip.c: Registration from '<sip:[email protected]>' failed for '37.75.210.177' - No matching peer found [2012-05-29 15:53:57] NOTICE[5578] chan_sip.c: Sending fake auth rejection for device <sip:[email protected]>;tag=cb23fe53 [2012-05-29 15:53:57] NOTICE[5578] chan_sip.c: Sending fake auth rejection for device <sip:[email protected]>;tag=cb23fe53 [2012-05-29 15:54:02] NOTICE[5578] chan_sip.c: Registration from '<sip:[email protected]>' failed for '37.75.210.177' - No matching peer found [2012-05-29 15:54:03] NOTICE[5578] chan_sip.c: Registration from '<sip:[email protected]>' failed for '37.75.210.177' - No matching peer found [2012-05-29 21:20:36] NOTICE[5578] chan_sip.c: Registration from '"55435217"<sip:[email protected]>' failed for '65.218.221.180' - No matching peer found [2012-05-29 21:20:36] NOTICE[5578] chan_sip.c: Registration from '"1731687005"<sip:[email protected]>' failed for '65.218.221.180' - No matching peer found [2012-05-30 01:18:58] NOTICE[5578] chan_sip.c: Sending fake auth rejection for device "unknown" <sip:[email protected]>;tag=dEBcOzUysX [2012-05-30 01:18:58] NOTICE[5578] chan_sip.c: Sending fake auth rejection for device "unknown" <sip:[email protected]>;tag=9zUari4Mve [2012-05-30 01:19:00] NOTICE[5578] chan_sip.c: Sending fake auth rejection for device "unknown" <sip:[email protected]>;tag=sOYgI1ItQn [2012-05-30 01:19:02] NOTICE[5578] chan_sip.c: Sending fake auth rejection for device "unknown" <sip:[email protected]>;tag=2EGLTzZSEi [2012-05-30 01:19:04] NOTICE[5578] chan_sip.c: Sending fake auth rejection for device "unknown" <sip:[email protected]>;tag=j0JfZoPcur [2012-05-30 01:19:06] NOTICE[5578] chan_sip.c: Sending fake auth rejection for device "unknown" <sip:[email protected]>;tag=Ra0DFDKggt [2012-05-30 01:19:08] NOTICE[5578] chan_sip.c: Sending fake auth rejection for device "unknown" <sip:[email protected]>;tag=rR7q7aTHEz [2012-05-30 01:19:10] NOTICE[5578] chan_sip.c: Sending fake auth rejection for device "unknown" <sip:[email protected]>;tag=VHUMtOpIvU [2012-05-30 01:19:12] NOTICE[5578] chan_sip.c: Sending fake auth rejection for device "unknown" <sip:[email protected]>;tag=JxZUzBnPMW I use Asterisk for an automated phone system. The only thing it does is receives incoming calls and executes a Perl script. No outgoing calls, no incoming calls to an actual phone, no phones registered with Asterisk. It seems like there should be an easy way to block all unauthorized registration attempts, but I have struggled with this for a long time. It seems like there should be a more effective way to prevent these attempts from even getting far enough to reach my Asterisk logs. Some setting I could turn on/off that doesn't allow registration attempts at all or something. Is there any way to do this? Also, am I correct in assuming that the "Registration from ..." messages are likely people attempting to get access to my Asterisk server (probably to make calls on my account)? And what's the difference between those messages and the "Sending fake auth rejection ..." messages? Further detail: I know that the "Registration from ..." lines are intruders attempting to get access to my Asterisk server. With Fail2Ban set up, these IPs are banned after 5 attempts (for some reason, one got 6 attempts, but w/e). But I have no idea what the "Sending fake auth rejection ..." messages mean or how to stop these potential intrusion attempts. As far as I can tell, they have never been successful (haven't seen any weird charges on my bills or anything). Here's what I have done: Set up hardware firewall rules as shown below. Here, xx.xx.xx.xx is the IP address of the server, yy.yy.yy.yy is the IP address of our facility, and aa.aa.aa.aa, bb.bb.bb.bb, and cc.cc.cc.cc are the IP addresses that our VoIP provider uses. Theoretically, ports 10000-20000 should only be accessible by those three IPs.+-------+-----------------------------+----------+-----------+--------+-----------------------------+------------------+ | Order | Source Ip | Protocol | Direction | Action | Destination Ip | Destination Port | +-------+-----------------------------+----------+-----------+--------+-----------------------------+------------------+ | 1 | cc.cc.cc.cc/255.255.255.255 | udp | inbound | permit | xx.xx.xx.xx/255.255.255.255 | 10000-20000 | | 2 | any | tcp | inbound | permit | xx.xx.xx.xx/255.255.255.255 | 80 | | 3 | any | tcp | inbound | permit | xx.xx.xx.xx/255.255.255.255 | 2749 | | 4 | any | tcp | inbound | permit | xx.xx.xx.xx/255.255.255.255 | 443 | | 5 | any | tcp | inbound | permit | xx.xx.xx.xx/255.255.255.255 | 53 | | 6 | any | tcp | inbound | permit | xx.xx.xx.xx/255.255.255.255 | 1981 | | 7 | any | tcp | inbound | permit | xx.xx.xx.xx/255.255.255.255 | 1991 | | 8 | any | tcp | inbound | permit | xx.xx.xx.xx/255.255.255.255 | 2001 | | 9 | yy.yy.yy.yy/255.255.255.255 | udp | inbound | permit | xx.xx.xx.xx/255.255.255.255 | 137-138 | | 10 | yy.yy.yy.yy/255.255.255.255 | tcp | inbound | permit | xx.xx.xx.xx/255.255.255.255 | 139 | | 11 | yy.yy.yy.yy/255.255.255.255 | tcp | inbound | permit | xx.xx.xx.xx/255.255.255.255 | 445 | | 14 | aa.aa.aa.aa/255.255.255.255 | udp | inbound | permit | xx.xx.xx.xx/255.255.255.255 | 10000-20000 | | 17 | bb.bb.bb.bb/255.255.255.255 | udp | inbound | permit | xx.xx.xx.xx/255.255.255.255 | 10000-20000 | | 18 | any | tcp | inbound | permit | xx.xx.xx.xx/255.255.255.255 | 1971 | | 19 | any | tcp | inbound | permit | xx.xx.xx.xx/255.255.255.255 | 2739 | | 20 | any | tcp | inbound | permit | xx.xx.xx.xx/255.255.255.255 | 1023-1050 | | 21 | any | all | inbound | deny | any on server | 1-65535 | +-------+-----------------------------+----------+-----------+--------+-----------------------------+------------------+ Set up Fail2Ban. This is sort of working, but it's reactive instead of proactive, and doesn't seem to be blocking everything (like the "Sending fake auth rejection ..." messages). Set up rules in sip.conf to deny all except for my VoIP provider. Here is my sip.conf with almost all commented lines removed (to save space). Notice at the bottom is my attempt to deny all except for my VoIP provider:[general] context=default allowguest=no allowoverlap=no bindport=5060 bindaddr=0.0.0.0 srvlookup=yes disallow=all allow=g726 allow=ulaw allow=alaw allow=g726aal2 allow=adpcm allow=slin allow=lpc10 allow=speex allow=g726 insecure=invite alwaysauthreject=yes ;registertimeout=20 registerattempts=0 register = user:pass:[email protected]:5060/700 [mysipprovider] type=peer username=user fromuser=user secret=pass host=sip.mysipprovider.com fromdomain=sip.mysipprovider.com nat=no ;canreinvite=yes qualify=yes context=inbound-mysipprovider disallow=all allow=ulaw allow=alaw allow=gsm insecure=port,invite deny=0.0.0.0/0.0.0.0 permit=aa.aa.aa.aa/255.255.255.255 permit=bb.bb.bb.bb/255.255.255.255 permit=cc.cc.cc.cc/255.255.255.255

  Read the article

• error: unexplained error (code 130) at rsync.c(541) [sender=3.0.7]

  - by brazorf

  This error: unexplained error (code 130) at rsync.c(541) [sender=3.0.7] error is happening after i changed router. Actually, i found out that this error just happens on a ctrl+c signal, so it could be not representative about the error itself. The command i run is very basic: rsync -avz --delete /local/path/ username@host:/path/to/remote/directory Basically, the rsync just stuck there and nothing's happening, until i ctrl+c. After interrupting the process i got the error in subject. I past the whole thing here: rsync -avvvvz --delete /source/path/ username@host:/path/to/direectory cmd=<NULL> machine=HOSTNAME user=username path=/path/to/direectory cmd[0]=ssh cmd[1]=-l cmd[2]=username cmd[3]=HOSTNAME cmd[4]=rsync cmd[5]=--server cmd[6]=-vvvvlogDtprze.iLsf cmd[7]=--delete cmd[8]=. cmd[9]=/path/to/direectory opening connection using: ssh -l username HOSTNAME rsync --server -vvvvlogDtprze.iLsf --delete . /path/to/direectory note: iconv_open("UTF-8", "UTF-8") succeeded. ^C[sender] _exit_cleanup(code=20, file=rsync.c, line=541): entered rsync error: unexplained error (code 130) at rsync.c(541) [sender=3.0.7] [sender] _exit_cleanup(code=20, file=rsync.c, line=541): about to call exit(130) The authentication runs on ssh via rsa key. I tried basic troubleshoot such as: ping the remote host ssh -l username remote.host check software firewall logs i asked the remote host sysadmin to check for logs, and when i run that command a ssh connection is actually being established and i can state there is no comunication/authentication/name resolution issue here. Rolling back to old router make this work again. Both client and server are running ubuntu 10.04. Try to take a look at my router configuration, where i'm no experienced at all, but i didnt see any "suspect" (what i was looking for is firewall blocking something) setting. The router itself is DLINK DVA-G3670B. Any suggestion? Thank You F.

  Read the article

• Uploading to another domain gives HTTP code 405

  - by dragon112

  I'm trying to upload a file (which can be quite large) from the website of one server to the backend of another server using plupload. Lets say: domain 1 = http://www.websitedomain.com/uploadform domain 2 = http://www.backenddomain.com/uploadhandler Trying to upload i send the following: OPTIONS /main/uploadnetwork.php HTTP/1.1 Host: backenddomain.com Connection: keep-alive Access-Control-Request-Method: POST Origin: http://www.websitedomain.com User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows NT 6.1; WOW64) AppleWebKit/537.4 (KHTML, like Gecko) Chrome/22.0.1229.79 Safari/537.4 Access-Control-Request-Headers: origin, content-type Accept: */* Referer: http://www.websitedomain.com/uploadform Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate,sdch Accept-Language: nl-NL,nl;q=0.8,en-US;q=0.6,en;q=0.4 Accept-Charset: ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.3 DNT: 1 But when I try to start the upload the server returns the following: HTTP/1.1 405 Method Not Allowed Allow: GET, HEAD, OPTIONS, TRACE Content-Type: text/html Server: Microsoft-IIS/7.5 X-Powered-By: ASP.NET X-Powered-By-Plesk: PleskWin Date: Mon, 01 Oct 2012 12:41:57 GMT Content-Length: 999 After doing some research I found out that a browser does this to check if the server will accept the intended message. It looks like my server doesn't feel like accepting a simple POST call even tho i use post all the time. The Google Chrome console gives the following error: XMLHttpRequest cannot load http://www.backenddomain.com/uploadhandler. Origin http://www.websitedomain.com is not allowed by Access-Control-Allow-Origin. Does anyone know how to stop the browser from checking or how i can tell my server to just accept the POST?

  Read the article

• Windows 7 computer apparently connected to working wireless network but can't access router page or internet

  - by Hemmer

  I can consistently connect successfully to both the router and the internet using both my phone and two different computers which strongly suggests that the issue is at the desktop end. Only my Windows 7 desktop machine has stopped getting internet connectivity. It manages to connect to the router's network using the Windows 7 wireless dialog, but can't access either the router configuration page (192.168.1.1) or the internet in general once connected. The strange thing is the wireless network icon in the notification bar shows a full strength signal, sometimes with the yellow warning triangle. The output of ipconfig /all is: Wireless LAN adapter Wireless Network Connection: Connection-specific DNS Suffix . : Description . . . . . . . . . . . : Broadcom 802.11g Network Adapter Physical Address. . . . . . . . . : 00-12-17-94-98-90 DHCP Enabled. . . . . . . . . . . : Yes Autoconfiguration Enabled . . . . : Yes IPv4 Address. . . . . . . . . . . : 192.168.1.102(Preferred) Subnet Mask . . . . . . . . . . . : 255.255.255.0 Lease Obtained. . . . . . . . . . : 08 June 2011 10:32:16 Lease Expires . . . . . . . . . . : 08 June 2011 12:32:16 Default Gateway . . . . . . . . . : 192.168.1.1 DHCP Server . . . . . . . . . . . : 192.168.1.1 DNS Servers . . . . . . . . . . . : 194.168.4.100 194.168.8.100 NetBIOS over Tcpip. . . . . . . . : Enabled I've tried renewing DCHP settings disabling IPv6 resetting TCP stack uninstalling and reinstalling WLAN card drivers I've not installed anything new or made any changes to my knowledge, this just happened out of the blue. The only possible change is my friend connected his macbook to the network, but that has gone now and shouldn't have any lasting effects? TCP/IPv4 is set to automatically find an IP address. Antivirus is MSE (up to date) and doesn't detect anything unusual. Any ideas where to go next? Any help is greatly appreciated. For reference, the results of ipconfig /all on one of the working computers is: Ethernet adapter Wireless Network Connection: Connection-specific DNS Suffix . : Description . . . . . . . . . . . : Broadcom 802.11g Network Adapter Physical Address. . . . . . . . . : 00-16-CF-67-E5-97 Dhcp Enabled. . . . . . . . . . . : Yes Autoconfiguration Enabled . . . . : Yes IP Address. . . . . . . . . . . . : 192.168.1.100 Subnet Mask . . . . . . . . . . . : 255.255.255.0 Default Gateway . . . . . . . . . : 192.168.1.1 DHCP Server . . . . . . . . . . . : 192.168.1.1 DNS Servers . . . . . . . . . . . : 194.168.4.100 194.168.8.100 Lease Obtained. . . . . . . . . . : 08 June 2011 10:26:38 Lease Expires . . . . . . . . . . : 08 June 2011 12:26:38 UPDATE: Still not working, but I've managed to find a temporary workaround by tethering my Android phone, effectively becoming a new wifi adapter. Will be moving to a new flat so will test if it is a network specific thing - maybe the card has got damaged somehow? Also will see if the card is working with Linux soon.

  Read the article

• Windows 7 - Enable Network DTC Access

  - by Russ Clark

  I have a Visual Studio 2010 Windows Forms application in which I start a transaction using the TransactionScope class. I then Receive a message from a Sql Server Broker Services message queue, which works fine. I next try to call a stored procedure from the same database with a call to my data access layer which is a Visual Studio dataset (xsd file). When I make this second call to the database I get the following error message: The MSDTC transaction manager was unable to pull the transaction from the source transaction manager due to communication problems. Possible causes are: a firewall is present and it doesn't have an exception for the MSDTC process, the two machines cannot find each other by their NetBIOS names, or the support for network transactions is not enabled for one of the two transaction managers. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x8004D02B). I've seen several posts on the web that talk about Enabling DTC access through dcomcnfg.exe, and allowing DTC to communicate through Windows Firewall. I've done those things, and am still having this problem. I know our remote database server is setup to Enable DTC access, because we are using similar transactions in other projects built with Visual Studio 2008 on Windows XP and Vista. I think there is something specific about Windows 7 and Visual Studio 2010 causing this problem, but haven't been able to find out what it is. Can anyone help with this problem?

  Read the article

• Links on SharePoint 2010 Master Page not changed based on Alternate Access Mappings

  - by victor_c

  We are creating a custom branded Master Page in SharePoint 2010. To make the page similar to a legacy page we have implemented an html based custom dropdown navigation menu we had in place directly on the Master Page (consisted of basic HTML elements ULs and LIs with A tags styled with a CSS class). I assumed the links from the basic HTML on the page would be subject to Alternate Access Mappings currently in place, but it seems to not be the case. On a test page opened in 3 different URLs (http://sharepoint2010, http://sharepoint2010.mydomain.com, https://sharepoint2010.mydomain.com) the links from a WIKI page are modified as I expected, but the links from the Custom Navigation Menu (plain HTML on the Master Page) are not modified. I can see where that would be useful... But is there a way that I can add links on the MasterPage in a way that SharePoint parses them first, making them subject to Alternate Access Mapping translation? I tried placing a link inside a SPLinkButton control, but it didn't achieve the desired behavior. e.g. <ul id="navmenu"> <li><SharePoint:SPLinkButton runat="server" NavigateUrl="http://sharepoint2010">sharepoint link</SharePoint:SPLinkButton></li> <li><a href="http://sharepoint2010">sharepoint2010</a></li> <li>test</li> </ul> When I access the page via https://sharepoint2010.mydomain.com the links above are still http://sharepoint2010 rather than https://sharepoint2010.mydomain.com Any thoughts? Thanks, Victor

  Read the article

• Access denied when trying to read information about SharePoint groups

  - by strongopinions

  I am trying to get the membership of a group in WSS 3.0. I am doing this in an elevated permissions block. Here is the code: SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges(delegate() { using (SPSite site = new SPSite(SPContext.Current.Site.ID)) { using (SPWeb rootWeb = site.RootWeb) { SPGroup gAdmins = rootWeb.SiteGroups["Admins"]; } } }); I get taken to the "access denied" SharePoint screen when I run this code. The group exists. The identity of the application pool for the web application is in the dbo role in the content database. The code works on my development server, but not on another server, which leads me to believe there is something wrong with the permissions or configuration on this server, maybe something in dcomcnfg? Here are some lines from the SharePoint log that seem to be related: PermissionMask check failed. asking for 0x08000000, have 0x00000000 Unknown SPRequest error occurred. More information: 0x80070005 Access Denied for /Pages/UserAdmin.aspx. StackTrace: Microsoft.SharePoint.Utilities.SPUtility:Void HandleAccessDenied(System.Exception), Microsoft.SharePoint.SPGlobal:Void HandleUnauthorizedAccessException(System.UnauthorizedAccessException), .... [UserAdmin.aspx hosts my custom web part containing the code]

  Read the article

• ClickOnce Deployment Error - Access to the Path is Denied

  - by michael.lukatchik

  I have a WPF app that I'm deploying to a network path using ClickOnce deployment. After the app is deployed to a network location, I use the ClickOnce html page to launch the installation process. I am successfully able to download and install the app. However, my users are not able to download and install the app. When a user navigates to the ClickOnce html page and clicks to begin the installation process, the following error message is received: ERROR SUMMARY Below is a summary of the errors, details of these errors are listed later in the log. * Activation of http://software.mycompany.com/myapp/myapp.application resulted in exception. Following failure messages were detected: + Downloading file://dev/webs/software/myapp/myapp.application did not succeed. * [4/5/2010 1:56:59 PM] System.Deployment.Application.DeploymentDownloadException (Unknown subtype) - Downloading file://dev/Webs/software/myapp/myapp.application did not succeed. All signs point to this being a security issue. So, I've done the following: Ensured that "Everyone" had read access to the files that were being deployed as part of my project Ensured that "Everyone" had read access to the network location where the app was deployed (//dev/webs/software/myapp) Ensured that "Everyone" had read access to the IIS path where the ClickOnce html page is located In each of these cases, I've made no progress in getting the app to successfully deploy via ClickOnce. Again, the odd thing is that I am able to successfully walk through the process of downloading and installing the app. It's my users, though, that need the ability to download and install the app. I've looked extensively on the web for answers, but there hasn't been much. I'd like to resolve the issue without "re-installing" or "rigging" anything. I need a solid answer. Thank you all for your input!! Mike

  Read the article

• Remote DLL Registration without access to HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT

  - by mohlsen

  We have a legacy VB6 application that updates itself on startup by pulling down the latest files and registering the COM components. This works for both local (regsvr32) ActiveX COM Components and remote (clireg32) ActiveX COM components registered in COM+ on another machine. New requirements are preventing us from writing to HKEY_LOACL_MACHINE (HKLM) for security reasons, which is what obviously happens by default when calling regsvr32 and clireg32. We have come up with an way to register the local COM componet under HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Classes (HKCU) using the RegOverridePredefKey Windows API method. This works by redirecting the inserts into the registry to the HKCU location. Then when the COM components are instantiated, windows first looks to HKCU before looking for component information in HKLM. This replaces what regsvr32 is doing. The problem we are experiencing at this time is when we attempt to register VBR / TLB using clireg32, this registration process also adds registration keys to HKEY_LOACL_MACHINE. Is there a way to redirect clireg32.exe to register component is HKEY_CURRENT_USER? Are there any other methods that would allow us to register these COM+ components on clients machine with limited security access? Our only solution at this time would be to manually write the registration information to the registry, but that is not ideal and would be a maint issue.

  Read the article

• Setting Access-Control-Allow-Origin in Dreamhost possible?

  - by Kaushik Gopal

  Just wanted a confirmation for this: Firefox currently doesn't play well for picking custom fonts through a sub-domain via the font-face tag. Other browsers do this without any problems. A little research showed up saying that i am required to set the Access-Control-Allow-Origin as is shown in the link here: http://pastie.org/653265 Essentially i have my blog at kaushikgopal.com/blog and i was trying to access fonts that within this blog that are available at font.kaushikgopal.com. I tried changing the same in my .htaccess file but couldn't resolve the issue.(I placed a .htaccess file within the font sub-domain folder and directly pasted code from the above pastie link). I submitted a ticket to dreamhost asking for assistance and they were helpful in clearly stating "We do not support Access-Control-Allow-Origin on shared hosting servers". So i didn't go the sub-domain route for fonts. But i'm a little curious, has anyone tried this (with a dreamhost hosting account would be helpful)? Just want to confirm what the tech-support guy suggested is accurate and there's no other way. Thanks. Another nice link clearly stating the problem : http://www.stevesouders.com/tests/font-face/xdomain.php

  Read the article

• Restrict access to connection pool in Weblogic?

  - by Andrew White

  In short, how can I restrict access to connection pool X based on application name or JAR name? A simple use case might help... A business web-app (call it WEB_APP_A) uses pool Y to do basic look-up SQL. Some users of this web-app have access to also update some sensitive data in the database. This code is provided by a JAR file (call it HR_JAR) that can be dropped in where needed. This JAR uses pool X for all of it's connections. We don't want developers of WEB_APP_A using pool X. We only want HR_JAR using pool X. This is to keep devs of WEB_APP_A from accidentally or intentionally abusing the access pool X provides. Some considerations: This is legacy code so HR_JAR is here to stay We are running on Weblogic 9.2 We can not keep passwords in any from in the source code We have researched weblogic user level authn/authz for JDBC resources but then this begs the question; how do we secure the user creds we use to become a user per app/jar? Ideas? Thoughts? I can elaborate more on what I have tried, but I wanted fresh ideas.

  Read the article

• PHP/Java Bridge - Access Java objects in PHP

  - by Omer Hassan

  I have a Red5 application which defines some public Java methods. When I start the server, an object of the application class gets created. I am trying to call the public methods of the application class from PHP using the existing instance of the Java application class. So here's my Java application: public class App extends org.red5.server.adapter.ApplicationAdapter { public boolean appStart(IScope app) { // This method gets called when the application starts // and an object of this App class is created. return true; } // This is the method I would like to call from PHP. public void f() { } } From PHP, I would like to get access to the App object that is created and call the method f() on it. I have tried playing around with this thing called "context". So in the Java method App.appStart(), I did this: // Save a reference to this App object to be retrieved later in PHP. new PhpScriptContextFactory().getContext().put("x", this); And in PHP, I tried to access the saved object like this: require_once("http://localhost:5080/JavaBridge/java/Java.inc"); var_dump(java_is_null(java_context()->get("x"))); Unfortunately, the java_is_null() function in PHP returns true. I also tried saving the App object in a static variable of App class but when I access that variable in PHP, its value is null.

  Read the article

• How to create Dictionary object in AppDelegate to access objectkey in another ViewController

  - by TechFusion

  Hello, I have created Window Based application and tab bar controller as root controller. My objective is to store Text Field data values in one tab bar VC and will be accessible and editable by other VC and also retrievable when application start. I am looking to use NSDictionary class in AppDelegate so that I can access stroed Data Values with keys. //TestAppDelegate.h @interface { ..... .... NSDictionary *Data; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSDictionary *Data; //TestAppDelegate.m #import "TestAppDelegate.h" NSString *kNamekey =@"Namekey"; NSString *kUserIDkey =@"UserIDkey"; NSString *kPasswordkey =@"Passwordkey"; @implemetation TestAppDelegate @synthesize Data; -(void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication)application { NSString *NameDefault; NSString *UserIDdefault; NSString *Passworddefault; NSString *testvalue = [[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] stringForKey: kNamekey]; if(testvalue == nil) { NSDictionary *appDefaults = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: NameDefault, kNamekey, UserIdefault kUserIDkey, Passwordefault kPasswordkey, nil]; self.Data = appDefaults; [[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] registerDefaults:appDefaults]; [[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] synchronize]; } else { } } Here ViewController is ViewController of Navigation Controller which is attached with one tab bar.. I have attached xib file with ViewController //ViewController.h @interface IBOutlet UITextField *Name; IBOutlet UITextField *UserId; IBOutlet UITextField *Password; } @property(retain,nonatomic) IBOutlet UITextField *Name @property(retain,nonatomic) IBOutlet UITextField *UserId; @property(retain,nonatomic) IBOutlet UITextField *Password; -(IBAction)Save:(id)sender; @end Here in ViewController.m I want to store Text Field input data with key which are defined in AppDelegate. I have linked Save Barbutton with action. Here I am not getting how to access NSDictionary class with object and keys in ViewController. //ViewController.m -(IBAction)Save:(id)sender{ TestAppDelegate *appDelegate = (TestAppDelegate*)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; //Here how to access knamekey here to set object(Name.test) value with key } Please guide me about this. Thanks,

  Read the article

• GoDaddy Subdomain Hosting Issue/Question with Disk Access (C#/ASP.NET 3.5)

  - by Vogel

  This isn't a very complicated scenario really, but as I start to type out the problem I'm realizing how convoluted it can become textually. Let me try and be very clear: First, the set up... I have a C#/ASP.NET web application that is publicly facing on my main domain (www), let's call it www.mysite.com. Nothing fancy, just a front-end that connects to SQL to display records. Then, I have a second C#/ASP.NET web application that is secured using forms authentication running on a subdomain, let's call it admin.mysite.com. This is a very light-weight CMS system to administer the public site. Now, the problem... Both of these sites run fine for basic tasks, however, my problem arises when I try to gain access to the file system for uploading. GoDaddy requires subdomains to run as a virtual directories under the main application in IIS (so the subdomains actually resolve/re-direct to www.mysite.com/admin when you type in admin.mysite.com), but because of this I am unable to write to my website root from the subfolder. Let me explain a little more... The CMS system (running as a virtual directory) gives the admin the ability to upload photos for display on the main site, the target folder of which is www.mysite.com/images - when attempting disk access from the root app, I am able to write to the virtual directory, but cannot do the opposite -- that is, write to the root from the virtual directory, getting security violations. If I can only upload to the /admin/ virtual directory, the entire point is moot because it's a secured folder that the public can't see! The only solution I can think of is to upload the files to the /admin/ virtual directory, then call a URL in the root that moves files from /admin/ back to the root, but that is entirely ghetto. I hope this post makes sense. Anyone else experience anything like this? The bottom line is that it seems virtual directories ONLY have access to themselves, and not their parent directories, no matter what credentials are used. Thanks!

  Read the article

• Unable to access Java-created file -- sometimes

  - by BlairHippo

  In Java, I'm working with code running under WinXP that creates a file like this: public synchronized void store(Properties props, byte[] data) { try { File file = filenameBasedOnProperties(props); if ( file.exists() ) { return; } File temp = File.createTempFile("tempfile", null); FileOutputStream out = new FileOutputStream(temp); out.write(data); out.flush(); out.close(); file.getParentFile().mkdirs(); temp.renameTo(file); } catch (IOException ex) { // Complain and whine and stuff } } Sometimes, when a file is created this way, it's just about totally inaccessible from outside the code (though the code responsible for opening and reading the file has no problem), even when the application isn't running. When accessed via Windows Explorer, I can't move, rename, delete, or even open the file. Under Cygwin, I get the following when I ls -l the directory: ls: cannot access [big-honkin-filename] total 0 ?????????? ? ? ? ? ? [big-honkin-filename] As implied, the filenames are big, but under the 260-character max for XP (though they are slightly over 200 characters). To further add to the sense the my computer just wants me to feel stupid, sometimes the files created by this code are perfectly normal. The only pattern I've spotted is that once one file in the directory "locks", the rest are screwed. Anybody ever run into something like this before, or have any insights into what's going on here?

  Read the article

• XMLHttpRequest open() returning access denied

  - by rjovic

  Hi! I have problem with xhr open() method. My code follows : var xmlhttp=false; if(!xmlhttp) try { xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } catch(e) { xmlhttp=false; } function returnPage(url) { if(!xmlhttp) return alert("Your browser doesn't seem to support XMLHttpRequests."); xmlhttp.open("GET",url,true); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if(xmlhttp.readyState!=4) return; if(!xmlhttp.status||xmlhttp.status==200) alert(xmlhttp.responseText); else alert("Request failed!"); }; //onreadystatechange xmlhttp.send(null); } Call : <a href='#' onclick="returnPage('http://www.something.com'); return false;">Link 1</a></p> I'm using IE8 (because I'm building web slice) and I received error "Access denied". I found on the Internet that problem is that XHR isn't working across different domains, but I used code from Firefox Add-on which is working OK. And that add-on and "my" code (which are the same) are calling the same page. How that add-on have access and my code not?

  Read the article

• Synchronizing Access to a member of the ASP.NET session

  - by Sam

  I'm building a Javascript application and eash user has an individual UserSession. The application makes a bunch of Ajax calls. Each Ajax call needs access to a single UserSession object for the user. Each Ajax call needs a UserSession object. Data in the UserSession object is unique to each user. Originally, during each Ajax call I would create a new UserSession object and it's data members were stored in the ASP.NET Session. However, I found that the UserSession object was being instantiated a lot. To minimize the construction of the UserSession object, I wrapped it in a Singleton pattern and sychronized access to it. I believe that the synchronization is happening application wide, however I only need it to happen per user. I saw a post here that says the ASP.NET cache is synchronized, however the time between creating the object and inserting it into the cache another Thread could start construction it's another object and insert it into the cache. Here is the way I'm currently synchronizing access to the object. Is there a better way than using "lock"... should be be locking on the HttpContext.Session object? private static object SessionLock = new object(); public static WebSession GetSession { get { lock (SessionLock) { try { var context = HttpContext.Current; WebSession result = null; if (context.Session["MySession"] == null) { result = new WebSession(context); context.Session["MySession"] = result; } else { result = (WebSession)context.Session["MySession"]; } return result; } catch (Exception ex) { ex.Handle(); return null; } } } }

  Read the article

• How to Access value of dynamically created control?

  - by sharad

  i have asp.net web application in which i need to create form dynamically depend upon table which user selected.however,i created form dynamically with it's control like text box,drop downlist etc. but not able to access those controls at particular button click event. My form scenario is like this: i have dropdownlist in which i display list of tables,button control say display( on click event which i redirect page with some addition in querystring so that at page init it dynamically genrate controls) and another button control which used to access this controls value say Submit and store in database. This is my code: At Display button Click event: Response.Redirect("dynamic_main.aspx?mode=edit&tablename=" + CMBTableList.SelectedItem.ToString()); This is code For page.Init level if (Request.QueryString["mode"] != null) { if (Request.QueryString["mode"].ToString() == "edit") { Session["tablename"] = Request.QueryString["tablename"].ToString(); // if (Session["tablename"].ToString() == CMBTableList.SelectedItem.ToString()) //{ createcontrol(Session["tablename"].ToString()); // } } } i have used createcontrol() which genrate controls Code For Submit Button: string[] contid=controlid.Value.Split(','); MasterPage ctl00 = FindControl("ctl00") as MasterPage; ContentPlaceHolder cplacehld = ctl00.FindControl("ContentPlaceHolder2") as ContentPlaceHolder; Panel panel1 = cplacehld.FindControl("plnall") as Panel; Table tabl1 = panel1.FindControl("id1") as Table; foreach (string sin in contid) { string splitcvalu = sin.Split('_')[0].ToString(); ControlsAccess contaccess = new ControlsAccess(); if (splitcvalu.ToString() == "txt") { TextBox txt = (TextBox)tabl1.FindControl(sin.ToString()); //TextBox txt = cplacehld.FindControl(sin.ToString()) as TextBox; val = txt.ID; } else { DropDownList DDL = cplacehld.FindControl(sin.ToString()) as DropDownList; } } Here i am no able to access this textbox or drop downlist.i am getting id of particular control from hidden field controlid in which i have stored it during genrating controls. i have used findcontrol() it works in case of finding masterpage,contentplaceholder,table etc. but in case of textbox or other control it doesnt work it shows it returns null. Anyone can help me. Thanks

  Read the article

• Driver denied access to PCI card

  - by Corin

  We wrote a Windows device driver to access our custom PCI card. The driver uses CreateFile to get a handle to the card. We recently had trouble at one installation were the card appeared to stop working. We tried replacing the card (the replacement appeared not work either). The computer vendor replaced the motherboard and both cards still failed to work. We put the cards in a different computer and both worked fine. We now have the computer at our office for examination. The Windows Device Manager lists our card in Other Devices as usual and says it's working fine. However, our driver initialization fails when it attempts to connect to the card. We created a test version of our driver with some extra debugging and determined that CreateFile is failing. It returns INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE as it is supposed to on failure. GetLastError indicates the error is Access is Denied. Since we're logged into the system as a local administrator, what can deny access to the device?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 318 319 320 321 322 323 324 325 326 327 328 329  | Next Page >