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  • Configure X connections over TCP without using an X connection

    - by Darren Cook
    I want to run a GUI application on a remote machine I only have ssh access to. I don't need to, or want to, see the GUI window. (I know I could use something like ssh -C -X remote_server if I wanted the GUI to be on my client.) I know X is running on the remote machine, as ps shows this: root ... /usr/bin/Xorg :0 -br -audit 0 -auth /var/gdm/:0.Xauth -nolisten tcp vt7 I set DISPLAY=:0.0 but I then get "Xlib: connection to ":0.0" refused by server" when I try to use it. At Get remote x display working in linux without ssh tunneling and Xserver doesn't work unless DISPLAY=0.0 I see the advice to use gdmsetup to allow X to listen on TCP. But, gdmsetup is a GUI application! And trying to run it over ssh -X did not work ("X11 connection rejected because of wrong authentication"). So, is there a text file I can edit to remove -nolisten? And, after editing it, how do I safely restart X, remotely? (There is other stuff running on this machine, so requesting a reboot is possible, but undesirable.) If not, should gdmsetup be able to run over ssh and I should persevere in that direction? UPDATE: I had to do the ssh -X session as root (ssh as a normal user, then sudo or su, does not work.) So, I did the edit with gdmsetup. I then restarted X with gdm-restart. I've also done xhost + from that ssh -X session. The ps line no longer shows the -nolisten tcp part. But still no luck connecting to it, with either DISPLAY=:0 or DISPLAY=localhost:0

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  • Outbound ports to allow through firewall - core requirements

    - by dunxd
    This question was asked before, but in a rather general way. I'm asking more specifically based on my current requirements. We have a number of remote offices made up of a bunch of PCs and an ASA 5505 which is used as firewall and VPN termination point. In the offices we share the internet connection with one or more other organisations over whom we have very little control, asides from the config on the ASAs. For a bunch of reasons I'd like to lock down these ASA 5505s to only allow outbound traffic to ports used by applications we know we need. I'm putting a standard config to roll out to all the ASAs, and if we need to open up ports for the other orgs we can do it on request. But I want to leave open the most commonly required ports so we can get up and running without waiting on other folks technical staff to get back. I plan to allow the following TCP ports to support email and web access, which I know everyone will need: POP3 (110 and 995) HTTP (80 and 443) IMAP4 (143 and 993) SMTP (25 and and 465) The question really is, what other ports do I need to leave open to allow for "normal" working? I've seen UDP port 53 for DNS as one. Are there any others that would be worth opening up? Just to note - I'll also be setting up monitoring systems to keep an eye on the ports we do allow. Any of the above could be misused of course. We'll also back all this up with signed agreements. But I'm aiming for a technical solutions where I don't have to start out with the full requirements of everyone we share connections with. See also: outbound ports that are always open

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  • Domain provider for all Country Code TLDs?

    - by 8k_of_power
    I find it very disturbing to buy some domains from one domain provider than when I have to buy a Country Code TLD that is not supported, I have to buy from another domain provider, and thus ending up having multiple domain providers for all my domains. I have looked at Gandi and GoDaddy. They both lack some Country Code TLDs the other one has. Is there domain providers that has all (or almost all) Country Code TLDs? If not, how do you guys do to get all (or almost all) domains under in one place? Also, it would be good if someone could suggest some of the big players of domain providing besides Gandi and GoDaddy, cause I'm new to the international domain market (have only used a couple in Sweden).

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  • How to automatically copy a file uploaded by a user by FTP in Linux (CentOS)?

    - by Buttle Butkus
    Outside contractor says they need read/write/execute permissions on part of the filesystem so they can run a script. I'm ok with that, but I want to know what they're running, in case it turns out there is some nefarious code. I assume they are going to upload the file, run it, and then delete it to prevent me from finding out what they've done. How can I find out exactly what they've done? My question specifically asks for a way of automatically copying the file, which would be one way. But if you have another solution, that's fine. For example, if the file could be automatically copied to /home/root/uploaded_files/ that would be awesome.

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  • File Acces\Rename Issue

    - by Moon .
    Guys, i am having serious problem with media files (only video files). When i try to rename or delete a Files or the Folders that contained media files, i get an error. "Access Denied .... Some other program might be using this file..... bla bla bla" Previously for this knida problem i had a freeware "Unlocker" that used to work. What "Unlocker" used to do was simply kill the process that is using the file. But in my case, now that is, the process using the files is "Explorer.exe" W.T.F... A strange behavior, when i copy paste the same file. The copied file, I can rename it, i can delete it, i can shit on it if i want to.... but what is wrong with the original file. Check the following list. It will give you a better idea of my situation. I am using Win XP SP 2 I have got Div Player installed (latest) The media files are from both, my hard drive, created by many of my previous window installations. And new downloaded files. So Files ownership or Privacy is not an issue. I may not be able to rename\delete those files one moment, the next moment, in the next try, i might succeed. The problem is a major F. i can't figure it out. Please F1! its getting on my nerves.

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  • SQL UPDATE based on condition

    - by LtDan
    We need to update a table with the users id (NBK). The table with NBK also has the user status (0 - 1) and only one user will have 1 at a time. The challenage is to #1 capture the active user #2 update the other table with the user NBK. I hope the code below just has a simple syntex error that I cannot find? Dim nb As String Dim NBK As String nb = [Employees]![NBK] & "' WHERE " nb = nb & " " & [Employees]![Status] = '1' NBK = " Update tbl_DateTracking SET NBK = " NBK = NBK & "'" & nb & "' WHERE " NBK = NBK & "CaseId = '" & CaseId & "' AND OCC_Scenario = '" & OCC_Scenario & "' ;" DoCmd.RunSQL nb DoCmd.RunSQL NBK

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  • compromised site

    - by pinniger
    So, I have a web site that has been compromised twice in two weeks. every index.php and .js file gets a script injecting into the source code of the file. The problem is that I have no idea how they're doing it. I've seen this done via sql injection before, but I don't know how they are actually writing to the file. I've dug through the Apache logs but didn't find anything interesting. The site is built using the cakephp framework on a godaddy shared server. Anybody know what secturity settings or log files to check to see how they are doing this?

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  • How to specify Multiple Secure Webpages with .htaccess RewriteCond

    - by Patrick Ndille
    I have 3 pages that I want to make secure on my website using .htaccess -login.php -checkout.php -account.php I know how to make just one work page at a time using .htaccess RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTPS} off RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} /login.php RewriteRule (.*) https://%{HTTP_HOST}%{REQUEST_URI} [L] I and trying to figure out how to include the other 2 specific pages to make them also secure and used the expression below but it didn't work RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTPS} off RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} /login.php RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} /checkout.php RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} /account.php RewriteRule (.*) https://%{HTTP_HOST}%{REQUEST_URI} [L] Can someone help me the right expression that will work with multiple pages? The second part of the code is that, if https is already on and a user move to a page that Is not any of the pages i specified about, I want that it should get back to http. how should I write the statement for it to redirect back to http if its not any of the pages above? I have my statement like this but its not working RewriteCond %{HTTPS} on RewriteRule !(checkout|login|account|payment)\.php http://%{HTTP_HOST}%{REQUEST_URI} [L,R] Any thoughts?

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  • Gmail 3-legged OAuth access -- Zend_Mail_Protocol_Exception

    - by tchaymore
    I'm trying to access Gmail by using three-legged Oauth PHP code provided by Google ('google-mail-xoauth-tools') here: http://code.google.com/apis/gmail/oauth/code.html. I have my domain registered and everything seems to go fine with OAuth, but after I authorize access I get this error: Fatal error: Uncaught exception 'Zend_Mail_Protocol_Exception' with message 'cannot connect to host; error = Connection refused (errno = 111 )' in /home/tchaymor/public_html/gmail/Zend/Mail/Protocol/Imap.php:100 Stack trace: #0 /home/tchaymor/public_html/gmail/Zend/Mail/Protocol/Imap.php(61): Zend_Mail_Protocol_Imap->connect('imap.gmail.com', '993', true) #1 /home/tchaymor/public_html/gmail/three-legged.php(170): Zend_Mail_Protocol_Imap->__construct('imap.gmail.com', '993', true) #2 {main} thrown in /home/tchaymor/public_html/gmail/Zend/Mail/Protocol/Imap.php on line 100 This is my first time using OAuth with any Google products, so it could be something totally brainless I'm missing. Any suggestions would be most welcome (as suggestions for easier alternatives). I'm more on the designer rather than coder end, so the simpler the better.

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  • Exceptions and Access Violations in Paint events in Windows

    - by Patrick
    After executing some new code, my C++ application started to behave strange (incorrect or incomplete screen updates, sometimes no screen updates at all). After a while we found out that the new code is causing an Access Violation. Strange enough, the application simply keeps on running (but with the incorrect screen updates). At first we thought the problem was caused by a "try-catch(...)" construction (put there by an overactive ex-colleague), but several hours later (carefully inspecting the call stacks, adding many breakpoints, ...) we found out that if there's an Access Violation in a paint event, Windows catches it, and simply continues running the application. Is this normal behavior? Is it normal that Windows catches exceptions/errors during a paint event? Is there a way to disable this? (if not, it would mean that we have to always run in the debugger with all exceptions enabled while testing our code). Patrick

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  • Why have minimal user/handwritten code and do everything in XAML?

    - by Mrk Mnl
    I feel the MVVM community has become overzealous like the OO programmers in the 90's - it is a misnomer MVVM is synonymous with no code. From my closed StackOverflow question: Many times I come across posts here about someone trying to do the equivalent in XAML instead of code behind. Their only reason being they want to keep their code behind 'clean'. Correct me if I am wrong, but is not the case that: XAML is compiled too - into BAML - then at runtime has to be parsed into code anyway. XAML can potentially have more runtime bugs as they will not be picked up by the compiler at compile time - from incorrect spellings - these bugs are also harder to debug. There already is code behind - like it or not InitializeComponent(); has to be run and the .g.i.cs file it is in contains a bunch of code though it may be hidden. Is it purely psychological? I suspect it is developers who come from a web background and like markup as opposed to code. EDIT: I don't propose code behind instead of XAML - use both - I prefer to do my binding in XAML too - I am just against making every effort to avoid writing code behind esp in a WPF app - it should be a fusion of both to get the most out of it. UPDATE: Its not even Microsoft's idea, every example on MSDN shows how you can do it in both.

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  • Can too much abstraction be bad?

    - by m3th0dman
    As programmers I feel that our goal is to provide good abstractions on the given domain model and business logic. But where should this abstraction stop? How to make the trade-off between abstraction and all it's benefits (flexibility, ease of changing etc.) and ease of understanding the code and all it's benefits. I believe I tend to write code overly abstracted and I don't know how good is it; I often tend to write it like it is some kind of a micro-framework, which consists of two parts: Micro-Modules which are hooked up in the micro-framework: these modules are easy to be understood, developed and maintained as single units. This code basically represents the code that actually does the functional stuff, described in requirements. Connecting code; now here I believe stands the problem. This code tends to be complicated because it is sometimes very abstracted and is hard to be understood at the beginning; this arises due to the fact that it is only pure abstraction, the base in reality and business logic being performed in the code presented 1; from this reason this code is not expected to be changed once tested. Is this a good approach at programming? That it, having changing code very fragmented in many modules and very easy to be understood and non-changing code very complex from the abstraction POV? Should all the code be uniformly complex (that is code 1 more complex and interlinked and code 2 more simple) so that anybody looking through it can understand it in a reasonable amount of time but change is expensive or the solution presented above is good, where "changing code" is very easy to be understood, debugged, changed and "linking code" is kind of difficult. Note: this is not about code readability! Both code at 1 and 2 is readable, but code at 2 comes with more complex abstractions while code 1 comes with simple abstractions.

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  • JQuery cookie access has stopped working for GAE app

    - by Greg
    I have a google app engine app that has been running for some time, and some javascript code that checks for a login cookie has suddenly stopped working. As far as I can tell, NO code has changed. The relevant code uses the jquery cookies plugin (jquery.cookies.2.2.0.min.js)... // control the default screen depending // if someone is logged in if( $.cookies.get('dev_appserver_login') != null || $.cookies.get('ACSID') != null ) { alert("valid cookie!") $("#inventory-container").show(); } else { alert("INvalid cookie!") $("#welcome-container").show(); } The reason for the two checks is that in the GAE SDK, the cookies are named differently. The production system uses 'ACSID'. This if statement works in the SDK and now fails 100% of the time in production. I have verified that the cookie is, in fact, present when I inspect the page. Thoughts?

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  • Access &lt;body element from content page via a nested master page

    - by danwellman
    All I want to do is access the <body element from the code-behind of a content page and add a class name to it. I have a top-level master page with the <body element in it. Then I have a nested master page which is the master page for the content page. From the code behind of the content page I want to add a class name to the body element. That's all. I have this in the top-level master: <body id="bodyNode" runat="server"> I added this to the code-behind for the content page: Master.bodyNode.Attributes.add("class", "home-page"); And I get a message that: System.Web.UI.MasterPage' does not contain a definition for 'bodyNode If I add this to the aspx content page: <% @ MasterType VirtualPath="~/MasterPage.master"%> The message then changes to: bodyNode is inaccessible due to its protection level Please advise, I've wasted like 2 hours on what feels like something that should be really simple to do :(

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  • JQuery overlay - issues with opening twitter "Allow Access" box

    - by Gublooo
    Hey guys I'm using Jquery flowplayer tools overlay to open external links. External links are working fine with this piece of code shown in the link: http://www.demiseonline.com/misc/Iframeoverlay.html Now using this overlay - I wanted to open the twitter dialog which asks users to Allow access to their account. So in the code below, I replaced http://www.google.com with https://twitter.com/oauth/authenticate?oauth_token=VPVRIsnRz9IX4CAab7brert3jHiEs <div class="apple_overlay black" id="Overlay1" <iframe src ="http://www.google.com" width="100%" height="595px" frameborder="0" </iframe </div When I replace the code, as soon as I load the page, even before I click on the link to open the overlay - the page gets redirected to the twitter URL. Any idea why that happens for this URL. Thanks

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  • How to access Dispatcher in Silverlight tests?

    - by bluebit
    I am using the SL unit test framework for tests (http://code.msdn.microsoft.com/silverlightut). My code is heavily client-server communications dependant, and I access the GUI dispatcher in several places to make sure important data is only accessed on a single thread (ie. the GUI thread). This dispatcher seems unavailable in the unit tests - I have tried using Deployment.Current.Dispatcher and even created an instance of a blank control to try use its own dispatcher, but both don't work. The code inside of Dispatcher.BeginInvoke() just never executes, even if I include a Thread.Sleep afterwards.

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  • c++ protected pointer member to the same class and access privileges

    - by aajmakin
    Hi, Example code is included at the bottom of the message. I'm puzzled about the protected access specifier in a class. I have define a class node which has a protected string member name string name; and a vector of node pointers vector args; Before I thought that a member function of node could not do args[0]-name but a program that does just this does compile and run. However, now I would like to inherit this class and access the name field in one of the args array pointers from this derived class args[0]-name but this does not compile. When I compile the example code below with the commented sections uncommented, the compiler reports: Compiler output: g++ test.cc -o test test.cc: In member function 'void foo::newnode::print_args2()': test.cc:22: error: 'std::string foo::node::name' is protected test.cc:61: error: within this context Compilation exited abnormally with code 1 at Thu Jun 17 12:40:12 Questions: Why can I access the name field of the node pointers in args in class node, because this is what I would excpect from a similarly defined private field in Java. How can I access those fields from the derived class. Example code: #include <iostream> #include <vector> using namespace std; namespace foo { class node; typedef std::vector<node*> nodes; class node { public: node (string _name); void print_args (); void add_node (node* a); protected: nodes args; string name; }; } foo::node::node (string _name) : args(0) { name = _name; } void foo::node::add_node (node* a) { args.push_back(a); } void foo::node::print_args () { for (int i = 0; i < args.size(); i++) { cout << "node " << i << ": " << args[i]->name << endl; } } // namespace foo // { // class newnode : public node // { // public: // newnode (string _name) : node(_name) {} // void print_args2 (); // protected: // }; // } // void foo::newnode::print_args2 () // { // for (int i = 0; i < args.size(); i++) // { // cout << "node " << i << ": " << args[i]->name << endl; // } // } int main (int argc, char** argv) { foo::node a ("a"); foo::node b ("b"); foo::node c ("c"); a.add_node (&b); a.add_node (&c); a.print_args (); // foo::newnode newa ("newa"); // foo::newnode newb ("newb"); // foo::newnode newc ("newc"); // newa.add_node (&newb); // newa.add_node (&newc); // newa.print_args2 (); return 0; }

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  • "Access violation reading location" troubles retrieveing buffer from directx

    - by numerical25
    Below is my code... ID3D10Texture2D *pBackBuffer; hr = mpSwapChain->GetBuffer(0, __uuidof(ID3D10Texture2D), (LPVOID*) &pBackBuffer); and I get the following error chp1.exe': Unloaded 'C:\Windows\SysWOW64\oleaut32.dll' First-chance exception at 0x757ce124 in chp1.exe: Microsoft C++ exception: _com_error at memory location 0x0018eeb0.. First-chance exception at 0x757ce124 in chp1.exe: Microsoft C++ exception: _com_error at memory location 0x0018edd0.. First-chance exception at 0x757ce124 in chp1.exe: Microsoft C++ exception: _com_error at memory location 0x0018ef1c.. The thread 'Win32 Thread' (0xfc4) has exited with code 0 (0x0). 'chp1.exe': Unloaded 'C:\Windows\SysWOW64\D3D10Ref.DLL' First-chance exception at 0x00b71894 in chp1.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0x00000000. Unhandled ex ception at 0x00b71894 in chp1.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0x00000000. It appears that the error occurs in the last parameter. &pBackBuffer. I added this single line of code and the error occurs.

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  • Do I need to syncronize thread access to an int

    - by Martin Harris
    I've just written a method that is called by multiple threads simultaneously and I need to keep track of when all the threads have completed, the code uses this pattern: private void RunReport() { _reportsRunning++; try { //code to run the report } finally { _reportsRunning--; } } This is the only place within the code that _reportsRunning's value is changed, and the method takes about a second to run. Occasionally when I have more than six or so threads running reports together the final result for _reportsRunning can get down to -1, if I wrap the calls to _runningReports++ and _runningReports-- in a lock then the behaviour appears to be correct and consistant. So, to the question: When I was learning multithreading in C++ I was taught that you didn't need to synchronize calls to increment and decrement operations because they were always one assembly instruction and therefore it was impossible for the thread to be switched out mid-call. Was I taught correctly, and if so how come that doesn't hold true for C#?

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  • How to access function inside PHP OOP

    - by Industrial
    Hi everyone, What do I need to do to call $this-two() from inside my function innerOne? Is that possible with PHP OOP? Here's the error I am recieving: Fatal error: Using $this when not in object context Here's how my code looks: class myClass { function one(){ function innerOne() { // Some code $this->two($var1, $var2); } // Some code innerOne(); } function two($var1, $var2) { // Does magic with passed variables return $var1 . $var2; } } Thanks a lot!

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  • memory access violation error - 0xC0000005

    - by nobody
    I got memory access violation error sometimes.... but I don't know where the error comes from... So I reviewed the code and I found some strange code... delete m_p1; A *a = new A(); a->b = *c; m_p1 = a; --> strange code. I think it's a little strange line.... can i use the m_p1 after delete the m_p1? It can make some memory access error??

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  • How to embed multiple jQuery line of code in custom HtmlHelpers ASP.NET MVC

    - by embarus
    I 've tried to create my own HTML Helper which work fine for my need but I can't embed many lines of jQuery code in my extension HtmlHelpers class. I've tried @ literal for jQuery code I doesn't work or I need to escape every line of code that I thing I not good for multiple line of code. I don't know if there is another way to achieve this problem like << Therefore, I need to include jQuery plugin file and put implement script after HTML tag. I find it would be convenience if I could put every in HTML helper and put a single line of code in aspx page for example <%= Html.ParentChildSelectList(string parentName, string childName, IEnumerable parentViewData, IEnumerable childViewData, int parentSize, in childSize) % The following code is the way that I used now. the .aspx page Category model.CategoryID)% , new { size = 10 })% model.SubcategoryID,"subcategory") % model.SubcategoryID)% , new { size = 10 })% <script type="text/javascript"> jQuery.sarapadchang.parentChildSelectList( { parentId : "CategoryID" , childId : "SubcategoryID", actionName : "GetSubcategoryList", controllerName : "Json" } ); </script> I put in head tag to include ParentChildSelectList.js the following code for ParentChildSelectList.js (function($) { $.sarapadchang = { parentChildSelectList: function(options) { // $("#CategoryID option").click(function() $("#" + options.parentId).find("option").click(function() { $("#" + options.childId).empty(); //clear data $("#" + options.childId).append('<option>loading...</option>'); $.post("/" + options.controllerName + "/" + options.actionName + "/" + $(this).attr('value'), "", function(data) { var html = ""; $.each(data, function(index, entry) { html += '<option value="' + entry['Value'] + '">' + entry['Text'] + '</option>'; } ); $("#" + options.childId).empty() $("#" + options.childId).append(html); }, "json"); //end getJson }); })(jQuery); To illustrate you, I've attached simple solution, please follow this link. http://www.thaileaguefc.net/ParentChildSelectList.rar Please accept my apologies if my English is difficult to understand. I am looking forward to hearing from you. Your faithfully, Theeranit

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  • Ruby: what is the pitfall in this simple code excerpt that tests variable existence

    - by zipizap
    I'm starting with Ruby, and while making some test samples, I've stumbled against an error in the code that I don't understand why it happens. The code pretends to tests if a variable finn is defined?() and if it is defined, then it increments it. If it isn't defined, then it will define it with value 0 (zero). As the code threw an error, I started to decompose it in small pieces and run it, to better trace where the error was comming from. The code was run in IRB irb 0.9.5(05/04/13), using ruby 1.9.1p378 First I certify that the variable finn is not yet defined, and all is ok: ?> finn NameError: undefined local variable or method `finn' for main:Object from (irb):134 from /home/paulo/.rvm/rubies/ruby-1.9.1-p378/bin/irb:15:in `<main>' >> Then I certify that the following inline-condition executes as expected, and all is ok: ?> ((defined?(finn)) ? (finn+1):(0)) => 0 And now comes the code that throws the error: ?> finn=((defined?(finn)) ? (finn+1):(0)) NoMethodError: undefined method `+' for nil:NilClass from (irb):143 from /home/paulo/.rvm/rubies/ruby-1.9.1-p378/bin/irb:15:in `<main>' I was expecting that the code would not throw any error, and that after executing the variable finn would be defined with a first value of 0 (zero). But instead, the code thows the error, and finn get defined but with a value of nil. >> finn => nil Where might the error come from?!? Why does the inline-condition work alone, but not when used for the finn assignment? Any help apreciated :)

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  • searching for a programming platform with hot code swap

    - by Andreas
    I'm currently brainstorming over the idea how to upgrade a program while it is running. (Not while debugging, a "production" system.) But one thing that is required for it, is to actually submit the changed source code or compiled byte code into the running process. Pseudo Code var method = typeof(MyClass).GetMethod("Method1"); var content = //get it from a database (bytecode or source code) SELECT content FROM methods WHERE id=? AND version=? method.SetContent(content); At first, I want to achieve the system to work without the complexity of object-orientation. That leads to the following requirements: change source code or byte code of function drop functions add new functions change the signature of a function With .NET (and others) I could inject a class via an IoC and could thus change the source code. But the loading would be cumbersome, because everything has to be in an Assembly or created via Emit. Maybe with Java this would be easier? The whole ClassLoader is replacable, I think. With JavaScript I could achieve many of the goals. Simply eval a new function (MyMethod_V25) and assign it to MyClass.prototype.MyMethod. I think one can also drop functions somehow with "del" Which general-purpose platform can handle such things?

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  • (x86) Assembler Optimization

    - by Pindatjuh
    I'm building a compiler/assembler/linker in Java for the x86-32 (IA32) processor targeting Windows. High-level concepts of a "language" (in essential a Java API for creating executables) are translated into opcodes, which then are wrapped and outputted to a file. The translation process has several phases, one is the translation between languages: the highest-level code is translated into the medium-level code which is then translated into the lowest-level code (probably more than 3 levels). My problem is the following; if I have higher-level code (X and Y) translated to lower-level code (x, y, U and V), then an example of such a translation is, in pseudo-code: x + U(f) // generated by X + V(f) + y // generated by Y (An easy example) where V is the opposite of U (compare with a stack push as U and a pop as V). This needs to be 'optimized' into: x + y (essentially removing the "useless" code) My idea was to use regular expressions. For the above case, it'll be a regular expression looking like this: x:(U(x)+V(x)):null, meaning for all x find U(x) followed by V(x) and replace by null. Imagine more complex regular expressions, for more complex optimizations. This should work on all levels. What do you suggest? What would be a good approach to optimize in these situations?

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