Search Results

Search found 44734 results on 1790 pages for 'model based design'.

Page 322/1790 | < Previous Page | 318 319 320 321 322 323 324 325 326 327 328 329  | Next Page >

  • Rails: id field is nil when calling Model.new

    - by Joe Cannatti
    I am a little confused about the auto-increment id field in rails. I have a rails project with a simple schema. When i check the development.sqlite3 I can see that all of my tables have an id field with auto increment. CREATE TABLE "messages" ("id" INTEGER PRIMARY KEY AUTOINCREMENT NOT NULL, "text" text, "created_at" datetime, "updated_at" datetime); but when i call Message.new on the console, the resulting object has an id of nil >> a = Message.new => #<Message id: nil, text: nil, created_at: nil, updated_at: nil> shouldn't the id come back populated?

    Read the article

  • NSPredicate 'OR' filtering based on an NSArray of keys

    - by So Over It
    Consider the following NSArray: NSArray *dataSet = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects: [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys:@"abc", @"key1", @"def", @"key2", @"hij", @"key3", nil], [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys:@"klm", @"key1", @"nop", @"key2", nil], [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys:@"qrs", @"key2", @"tuv", @"key3", nil], [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys:@"wxy", @"key3", nil], nil]; I am able to filter this array to find dictionary objects that contain the key key1 // Filter our dataSet to only contain dictionary objects with a key of 'key1' NSString *key = @"key1"; NSPredicate *key1Predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"%@ IN self.@allKeys", key]; NSArray *filteretSet1 = [dataSet filteredArrayUsingPredicate:key1Predicate]; NSLog(@"filteretSet1: %@",filteretSet1); Which appropriately returns: filteretSet1: ( { key1 = abc; key2 = def; key3 = hij; }, { key1 = klm; key2 = nop; } ) Now, I am wanting to filter the dataSet for dictionary objects containing ANY of the keys in an NSArray. For example, using the array: NSArray *keySet = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"key1", @"key3", nil]; I want to create a predicate that returns and array of any dictionary objects that contain either 'key1' or 'key3' (ie. in this example all dictionary objects would be returned except for the third object - as it does not contain either 'key1' or 'key3'). Any ideas on how I would achieve this? Would I have to use a compound predicate?

    Read the article

  • java template design

    - by Sean Nguyen
    Hi, I have this class: public class Converter { private Logger logger = Logger.getLogger(Converter.class); public String convert(String s){ if (s == null) throw new IllegalArgumentException("input can't be null"); logger.debug("Input = " + s); String r = s + "abc"; logger.debug("Output = " + s); return r; } public Integer convert(Integer s){ if (s == null) throw new IllegalArgumentException("input can't be null"); logger.debug("Input = " + s); Integer r = s + 10; logger.debug("Output = " + s); return r; } } The above 2 methods are very similar so I want to create a template to do the similar things and delegate the actual work to the approriate class. But I also want to easily extends this frame work without changing the template. So for example: public class ConverterTemplate { private Logger logger = Logger.getLogger(Converter.class); public Object convert(Object s){ if (s == null) throw new IllegalArgumentException("input can't be null"); logger.debug("Input = " + s); Object r = doConverter(); logger.debug("Output = " + s); return r; } protected abstract Object doConverter(Object arg); } public class MyConverter extends ConverterTemplate { protected String doConverter(String str) { String r = str + "abc"; return r; } protected Integer doConverter(Integer arg) { Integer r = arg + 10; return r; } } But that doesn't work. Can anybody suggest me a better way to do that? I want to achieve 2 goals: 1. A template that is extensible and does all the similar work for me. 2. I ant to minimize the number of extended class. Thanks,

    Read the article

  • htaccess querystring based urls

    - by praveenmon
    hi guys, Suppose my website is www.example.com Earlier the urls of my website was like this www.example.com/php/bookdetails.php?bid=33 Last week i changed the urls of my site to this www.example.com/bookdetails/33 and wrote an htacces like this RewriteRule ^bookdetails/(.*)$ php/bookSearchResult.php?bid=$1 The problem is that there are some external site using my earlier URL structure (www.example.com/php/bookdetails.php?bid=33) and what i want is to redirect it to my new URL structure (www.example.com/bookdetails/33). I know it can be possible in htaccess, but i have no idea how to do it

    Read the article

  • Adding a ID to a <li> based on part of an <a> tag

    - by mmsa
    I have the following code: <li class="zoneName"><a href="/Default.aspx?PageID=4869007">CYKF</a></li> <li class="zoneName"><a href="/Default.aspx?PageID=4868459">YKA</a></li> I need to add and ID to each of the < li tags in this list. I need that ID to be the number at the end of the href string. Below is what I'd like it to be <li class="zoneName" id="4869007"><a href="/Default.aspx?PageID=4869007">CYKF</a></li> <li class="zoneName" id="4868459"><a href="/Default.aspx?PageID=4868459">YKA</a></li> Any help is appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Reduce the number of additional Queries to 0 by overriding functions in the base model

    - by user334017
    my basic database setup is: User:... Info: relations: User: { foreignType:one } When displaying information on the user it takes: 1 query to find info on the user, and 1 query to find additional info I want to reduce this to one query that finds both, I assume I need to override a function from BaseUser.class.php, or something along those lines but I'm not really sure what to do. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Hide div based on url

    - by Ghetto Styles
    Sorry if this is another repost. I have been attempting to find a solution but nothing works that I have tried. I am using a blog which I have full html control over. I can usually find my way around basic html but when it comes to Java or CSS I am a complete newb. Sorry, I know absolutely nothing. Now that that is out of the way. I have two sidebar div's that I am trying to hide on one specific url to utilize more space for a content iframe. This is one of the coded I have tried to use which doesn't seem to work or I am missing something. <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <script language="text/javascript" <?php &#36;(function(){ if (window.location.search === "mywebsite/Videos.html") { &#36;('#navleft').hide(); } else { &#36;('#navleft').show(); } }); ?> </script> Please remember I do not know anything when it comes to php or java. I want to do this for both #navright and #navleft. Also this is in the CSS section. Thanks for any help!! #navright{ width: 200px; } #navleft{ width: 200px; } #content{ margin:0px; }

    Read the article

  • Rails object based permission/authorization engine?

    - by Vlad
    Hi I want to add "Sharing documents" feature to my app, like in google documents service. As i see: User can: can list/view/create/edit/delete own documents share own document to everyone - its a public document share own document to another user with read-only access share own document to another user with read-write access view list of own documents and users to whom he gave permission to read and write view list of foreign documents view/edit foreign document with read/write permissions Please tell me, which permission/authorization solution is preffered for my task?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC loading of CSS based off of controller

    - by Scott
    Within my site I have controller specific CSS files in addition to my master css file. For example CSS/ Prodcuts/ product.css ... Blog/ blog.css ... masterStyle.css Where masterStyle.css is the master css file. What I want to do is when the user hits http://www.example.com/Products/ only mySite.css and all css files under Products get included. What is the best way to go about doing this?

    Read the article

  • When designing an event, is it a good idea to prevent listeners from being added twice?

    - by Matt
    I am creating an event-based API where a user can subscribe to an event by adding listener objects (as is common in Java or C#). When the event is raised, all subscribed listeners are invoked with the event information. I initially decided to prevent adding an event listener more than once. If a listener is added that already exists in the listener collection, it is not added again. However, after thinking about it some more, it doesn't seem that most event-based structures actually prevent this. Was my initial instinct wrong? I'm not sure which way to go here. I guess I thought that preventing addition of an existing listener would help to avoid a common programming error. Then again, it could also hide a bug that would lead to code being run multiple times when it shouldn't.

    Read the article

  • Setting location based on previous parameter of $routeChangeError with AngularJS

    - by Moo
    I'm listening on events of the type $routeChangeError in a run block of my application. $rootScope.$on("$routeChangeError", function (event, current, previous, rejection) { if (!!previous) { console.log(previous); $location.path(previous.$$route.originalPath); } }); With the help of the previous parameter I would like to set the location to the previous page. This works as long as the "originalPath" of "previous.$$route" does not contain any parameters. If it contains parameters the "originalPath" is not transformed. Logging the previous objects returns the following output: $$route: Object ... originalPath: "/users/:id" regexp: /^\/users\/(?:([^\/]+)?)$/ ... params: Object id: "3" How can I set the location to the previous path including the parameters?

    Read the article

  • Using Session Vars in a MVC Domain Model library

    - by 104286623826380127552
    Hello to all. I have a IQueryable function. In that function, I need to store and retrieve data to Session; can you guys point me in the right direction. I've looked at the HttpSessionStatBase where the session is usually taken from HttpContext.Current but this doesnt seem possible to do in the library. Am I missing something? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Windows batch/script code to conditionally process based on date value in text file

    - by CarolinaJay65
    I am using Windows XP. The code can be used in a batch file or vbs script. I intend to use Windows scheduler to run the program. I need code to read a date from a text file (could be the only line in the text file or the date could be included in the filename, I control the process that generates the file) The code would then need to evaluate the text file date against the current date to confirm that the text file date is from the prior month. I'm starting to build a process to be able to run 1st-of-the-month jobs once the monthly data has been refreshed. I'm new to building this kind of process using batch/script files. Thanks for your time

    Read the article

  • How to save to two tables using one SQLAlchemy model

    - by Oatman
    I have an SQLAlchemy ORM class, linked to MySQL, which works great at saving the data I need down to the underlying table. However, I would like to also save the identical data to a second archive table. Here's some psudocode to try and explain what I mean my_data = Data() #An ORM Class my_data.name = "foo" #This saves just to the 'data' table session.add(my_data) #This will save it to the identical 'backup_data' table my_data_archive = my_data my_data_archive.__tablename__ = 'backup_data' session.add(my_data_archive) #And commits them both session.commit() Just a heads up, I am not interested in mapping a class to a JOIN, as in: http://www.sqlalchemy.org/docs/05/mappers.html#mapping-a-class-against-multiple-tables

    Read the article

  • Why can I derived from a templated/generic class based on that type in C# / C++

    - by stusmith
    Title probably doesn't make a lot of sense, so I'll start with some code: class Foo : public std::vector<Foo> { }; ... Foo f; f.push_back( Foo() ); Why is this allowed by the compiler? My brain is melting at this stage, so can anyone explain whether there are any reasons you would want to do this? Unfortunately I've just seen a similar pattern in some production C# code and wondered why anyone would use this pattern.

    Read the article

  • how auto submit a session based form?

    - by hd
    i have a form and want to submit it with a script. i'm going to use curl function in php to do it. but the form is not submit directly. it have 3 steps and at the end of each step it store entered value in session variables and at the final steps it insert record to database with the values are read from sessions. it is possible to do auto submit this form using curl or not? what is the best solution for it??

    Read the article

  • Place text based divs in relative locations within a circle

    - by NickG
    Direct question - How would I place certain objects or small text within a certain area. For example, how would I replace the following image with html/javascript. --- I don't have enough reps to post an image :/ but try this URL - http://i.imgur.com/a3eWL.jpg Big picture - I am trying to create a kml file for Google Earth that when the point is clicked, the balloon description window pops up and I can display my html formatted diagram showing where the satellites are at that instant. Google Earth and KML docs allow for pretty much any html formatting within it, so currently looking for a good way to do this. Disclaimer: It has been a few years since i have done any html or javascript editing, so general examples and insight is greatful. Thanks

    Read the article

  • choose javascript variable based on element id from jquery

    - by phoffer
    I feel like this is a simple question, but I am still relatively new to javascript and jquery. I am developing a site for a touch interface that uses unordered lists and jquery .click functions to take input data. I have a section to input a m:ss time, with 3 divs, each containing a list of digits for time. I need to get the input for each column and set it as a variable. I originally designed the inputs to change form inputs, because I didn't understand javascript very much. It was easy to change the 3 hidden inputs by using div id's, but I can't figure out how to do it now with javascript variables. Here is my original jquery code... $("div#time>div>ul>li").click(function() { var id = $(this).parents(".time").attr("name"); var number = $(this).html(); $("input#"+id).val(number); }); The last line sets one of 3 hidden inputs equal to whatever was clicked. I need to make it so separate variables take the inputs, then I can manipulate those variables however I want. Here's a short snippet of the html, to have an idea of how jquery grabs it. <div id="time"> <h1>Time</h1> <div name="minute" class="time" id="t_minute"> M : <ul> The full time html is here: link text Thanks everyone! I've been using SO to answer many questions I've had, but I couldn't find something for this, so I figured I would join, since I'm sure I will have more questions along the way.

    Read the article

  • Turn based synchronization between threads

    - by Amarus
    I'm trying to find a way to synchronize multiple threads having the following conditions: * There are two types of threads: 1. A single "cyclic" thread executing an infinite loop to do cyclic calculations 2. Multiple short-lived threads not started by the main thread * The cyclic thread has a sleep duration between each cycle/loop iteration * The other threads are allowed execute during the inter-cycle sleep of the cyclic thread: - Any other thread that attempts to execute during an active cycle should be blocked - The cyclic thread will wait until all other threads that are already executing to be finished Here's a basic example of what I was thinking of doing: // Somewhere in the code: ManualResetEvent manualResetEvent = new ManualResetEvent(true); // Allow Externally call CountdownEvent countdownEvent = new CountdownEvent(1); // Can't AddCount a CountdownEvent with CurrentCount = 0 void ExternallyCalled() { manualResetEvent.WaitOne(); // Wait until CyclicCalculations is having its beauty sleep countdownEvent.AddCount(); // Notify CyclicCalculations that it should wait for this method call to finish before starting the next cycle Thread.Sleep(1000); // TODO: Replace with actual method logic countdownEvent.Signal(); // Notify CyclicCalculations that this call is finished } void CyclicCalculations() { while (!stopCyclicCalculations) { manualResetEvent.Reset(); // Block all incoming calls to ExternallyCalled from this point forward countdownEvent.Signal(); // Dirty workaround for the issue with AddCount and CurrentCount = 0 countdownEvent.Wait(); // Wait until all of the already executing calls to ExternallyCalled are finished countdownEvent.Reset(); // Reset the CountdownEvent for next cycle. Thread.Sleep(2000); // TODO: Replace with actual method logic manualResetEvent.Set(); // Unblock all threads executing ExternallyCalled Thread.Sleep(1000); // Inter-cycles delay } } Obviously, this doesn't work. There's no guarantee that there won't be any threads executing ExternallyCalled that are in between manualResetEvent.WaitOne(); and countdownEvent.AddCount(); at the time the main thread gets released by the CountdownEvent. I can't figure out a simple way of doing what I'm after, and almost everything that I've found after a lengthy search is related to producer/consumer synchronization which I can't apply here.

    Read the article

  • Loop through Array with conditional output based on key/value pair

    - by Daniel C
    I have an array with the following columns: Task Status I would like to print out a table that shows a list of the Tasks, but not the Status column. Instead, for Tasks where the Status = 0, I want to add a tag <del> to make the completed task be crossed out. Here's my current code: foreach ($row as $key => $val){ if ($key != 'Status') print "<td>$val</td>"; else if ($val == '0') print "<td><del>$val</del></td>"; } This seems to be correct, but when I print it out, it prints all the tasks with the <del> tag. So basically the "else" clause is being run every time. Here is the var_dump($row): array 'Task' => string 'Task A' (length=6) 'Status' => string '3' (length=1) array 'Task' => string 'Task B' (length=6) 'Status' => string '0' (length=1)

    Read the article

  • jQuery model-view-controller vs Spring MVC

    - by user1515968
    my question is what potential problems or difficulties would be with implementing usual web app with somewhat reach user interface (multiple dynamic tabs, accordians and so on) using jQuery MVC approach with Spring REST vs using Spring MVC. Problems what I can think of could be: I will not be able to use Spring security fully, JavaScript coding could become hard to manage, any form verification becomes not easy to manage... what else? and does jQuery MVC with REST make sense at all? On other side jQuery with MVC and REST move all GUI concerns to JavaScript side (whether it is bad or not) and leave all data manipulation to server side.

    Read the article

  • sql - getting the id from a row based on a group by

    - by user85116
    Table A tableAID tableBID grade Table B tableBID name description Table A links to Table b from the tableBID found in both tables. If I want to find the row in Table A, which has the highest grade, for each row in Table B, I would write my query like this: select max(grade) from TableA group by tableBID However, I don't just want the grade, I want the grade plus id of that row.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 318 319 320 321 322 323 324 325 326 327 328 329  | Next Page >