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  • APC not working as expected?

    - by Alix Axel
    I've the following function: function Cache($key, $value = null, $ttl = 60) { if (isset($value) === true) { apc_store($key, $value, intval($ttl)); } return apc_fetch($key); } And I'm testing it using the following code: Cache('ktime', time(), 3); // Store sleep(1); var_dump(Cache('ktime') . '-' . time()); echo '<hr />'; // Should Fetch sleep(5); var_dump(Cache('ktime') . '-' . time()); echo '<hr />'; // Should NOT Fetch sleep(1); var_dump(Cache('ktime') . '-' . time()); echo '<hr />'; // Should NOT Fetch sleep(1); var_dump(Cache('ktime') . '-' . time()); echo '<hr />'; // Should NOT Fetch And this is the output: string(21) "1273966771-1273966772" string(21) "1273966771-1273966777" string(21) "1273966771-1273966778" string(21) "1273966771-1273966779" Shouldn't it look like this: string(21) "1273966771-1273966772" string(21) "-1273966777" string(21) "-1273966778" string(21) "-1273966779" I don't understand, can anyone help me figure out this strange behavior?

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  • Flipping View transition becomes clunky when using UIPickerViews with a large number of elements

    - by user302246
    I have a very simple app created with the Utility Application project template on XCode. My MainView has two UIPickerView components and two buttons. The FlipSideView has another UIPickerView. The pickers on the main view each have 4 segments and each segment has 8 rows. The picker on the flip side has just 1 segment with 8 rows. All rows on all pickers are just text. With just this setup, pressing the button to flip the view back and forth displays a noticeable delay before the animation actually starts, and then the animation actually seems to go faster than what it should, like it's trying to make up for the lost time. I removed the pickers in interface builder and loaded the app on the phone and the animation now seems natural. I also tried just one picker (the flipside one) and things still seem normal. So my current theory is that the number of objects involved in the main view is the cause. The thing is that I don't think it's that many (4 x 8 x 2 = 64), but I could be completely wrong. This is pretty much my first app so maybe I'm just doing something grossly wrong, or maybe the phone is has a lot more limited processing than I thought. I am thinking of creating the picker views with pickerView:viewForRow:forComponent:reusingView: to see if this hopefully performs better, but I'm not sure if this is just a waste of time. Any suggestions? Thanks Ruy P.S.: Testing on a 3G phone on 3.1.2

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  • python-iptables: Cryptic error when allowing incoming TCP traffic on port 1234

    - by Lucas Kauffman
    I wanted to write an iptables script in Python. Rather than calling iptables itself I wanted to use the python-iptables package. However I'm having a hard time getting some basic rules setup. I wanted to use the filter chain to accept incoming TCP traffic on port 1234. So I wrote this: import iptc chain = iptc.Chain(iptc.TABLE_FILTER,"INPUT") rule = iptc.Rule() target = iptc.Target(rule,"ACCEPT") match = iptc.Match(rule,'tcp') match.dport='1234' rule.add_match(match) rule.target = target chain.insert_rule(rule) However when I run this I get this thrown back at me: Traceback (most recent call last): File "testing.py", line 9, in <module> chain.insert_rule(rule) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/iptc/__init__.py", line 1133, in insert_rule self.table.insert_entry(self.name, rbuf, position) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/iptc/__init__.py", line 1166, in new obj.refresh() File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/iptc/__init__.py", line 1230, in refresh self._free() File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/iptc/__init__.py", line 1224, in _free self.commit() File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/iptc/__init__.py", line 1219, in commit raise IPTCError("can't commit: %s" % (self.strerror())) iptc.IPTCError: can't commit: Invalid argument Exception AttributeError: "'NoneType' object has no attribute 'get_errno'" in <bound method Table.__del__ of <iptc.Table object at 0x7fcad56cc550>> ignored Does anyone have experience with python-iptables that could enlighten on what I did wrong?

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  • Is there a more efficient AS3 way to compare 2 arrays for adds, removes & updates?

    - by WillyCornbread
    Hi all - I'm wondering if there is a better way to approach this than my current solution... I have a list of items, I then retrieve another list of items. I need to compare the two lists and come up with a list of items that are existing (for update), a list that are not existing in the new list (for removal) and a list of items that are not existing in the old list (for adding). Here is what I'm doing now - basically creating a lookup object for testing if an item exists. Thanks for any tips. for each (itm in _oldItems) { _oldLookup[itm.itemNumber] = itm; } // Loop through items and check if they already exist in the 'old' list for each (itm in _items) { // If an item exists in the old list - push it for update if (_oldLookup[itm.itemNumber]) { _itemsToUpdate.push(itm); } else // otherwise push it into the items to add { _itemsToAdd.push(itm); } // remove it from the lookup list - this will leave only // items for removal remaining in the lookup delete _oldLookup[itm.itemNumber]; } // The items remaining in the lookup object have neither been added or updated - // so they must be for removal - add to list for removal for each (itm in _oldLookup) { _itemsToRemove.push(itm); }

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  • Phonegap/Cordova geolocation not working on Android

    - by Kreeki
    I'm having a trouble to get Geolocation working on Android in both emulator (even when I geo fix over telnet) and on device. Works on iOS, WP8 and in the browser. When I ask device for location using the following code, I always get an error (in my case custom Retrieving your position failed for unknown reason. with null both error code and error message). Related code: successHandler = (position) -> resolve App.Location.create lat: position.coords.latitude lng: position.coords.longitude errorHandler = (error) -> error = switch error.code when 1 App.LocationError.create message: 'You haven\'t shared your location.' when 2 App.LocationError.create message: 'Couldn\'t detect your current location.' when 3 App.LocationError.create message: 'Retrieving your position timeouted.' else App.LocationError.create message: 'Retrieving your position failed for unknown reason. Error code: ' + error.code + '. Error message: ' + error.message reject(error) options = maximumAge: Infinity # I also tried with 0 timeout: 60000 enableHighAccuracy: true navigator.geolocation.getCurrentPosition(successHandler, errorHandler, options) platforms/android/AndroidManifest.xml <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.ACCESS_COARSE_LOCATION" /> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.ACCESS_FINE_LOCATION" /> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.ACCESS_LOCATION_EXTRA_COMMANDS" /> www/config.xml (just in case) <feature name="Geolocation"> <param name="android-package" value="org.apache.cordova.GeoBroker" /> </feature> Using Cordova 3.1.0. Testing on Android 4.2. Plugin installed. Cordova.js included in index.html (other plugins like InAppBrowser are working fine). $ cordova plugins ls [ 'org.apache.cordova.console', 'org.apache.cordova.device', 'org.apache.cordova.dialogs', 'org.apache.cordova.geolocation', 'org.apache.cordova.inappbrowser', 'org.apache.cordova.vibration' ] I'm clueless. Am I missing something?

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  • Jquery UI Dialog - when opened IE7 Browser moves instantly to the bottom of the page

    - by Truegilly
    Hello, i have been working on a new .net MVC site and have integrated some of the awesome jquery UI components. ive been testing it in IE8, FF, opera and Chrome and all looks well. Once I test in IE7, surprisingly its the dialogs that are causing a problem. basically what’s happening is that one you user clicks to open a dialog the page will scroll immediately to the bottom of the page. This is especially bad if the page is quite long. this only happens in IE7 (and probably 6 but im not even going there!). I have spend a few hours reading forums and it seems im not the only one. I have created a dirty hack which im not keen on but it does work. onclick="SignIn(); <% if(ModelHelperClass.CheckForOldIEVersion() == true) Response.Write("window.scrollTo(0, 0);"); %> return false;"> has anyone else had this issue and resolved it without resorting to dirty hacks ? im using jquery-ui-1.8.custom.min.js and jquery-1.4.2.min.js any help is most appreciated Truegilly

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  • Call to undefined function 'Encrypt' - Attempting to Link OMF Lib

    - by Changeling
    I created a DLL using Visual Studio 2005 VC++ and marked a function for export (for testing). I then took the .LIB file created, and ran it through the COFF2OMF converter program bundled with Borland C++ Builder 5 and it returns the following: C:\>coff2omf -v -lib:ms MACEncryption.lib MACEncryption2.lib COFF to OMF Converter Version 1.0.0.74 Copyright (c) 1999, 2000 Inprise Corporat ion Internal name Imported name ------------- ------------- ??0CMACEncryptionApp@@QAE@XZ ?Decrypt@CMACEncryptionApp@@QAEXXZ Encrypt Encrypt@0 I added the MACEncryption2.lib file to my C++ Builder 5 Project by going to Project-Add to Project.. and selecting the library. The application links, but it cannot find the Encrypt function that I am declaring for export as follows in the VC++ code: extern "C" __declspec(dllexport) BSTR* __stdcall Encrypt() { CoInitialize(NULL); EncryptionManager::_EncryptionManagerPtr pDotNetCOMPtr; HRESULT hRes = pDotNetCOMPtr.CreateInstance(EncryptionManager::CLSID_EncryptionManager); if (hRes == S_OK) { BSTR* str = new BSTR; BSTR filePath = (BSTR)"C:\\ICVER001.REQ"; BSTR encrypt = (BSTR)"\"test"; pDotNetCOMPtr->EncryptThirdPartyMessage(filePath, encrypt, str); return str; } return NULL; CoUninitialize (); } C++ Builder Code: __fastcall TForm1::TForm1(TComponent* Owner) : TForm(Owner) { Encrypt(); } (Yes I know I am encapsulating another DLL.. I am doing this for a reason since Borland can't 'see' the .NET DLL definitions) Can anyone tell me what I am doing wrong so I can figure out why Builder cannot find the function Encrypt() ?

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  • NSFetchedResultsController is driving me crazy

    - by user267980
    Hi everyone. i've been building an app since 1 month using NSFetchedResultsController and i was testing the app on the 3.1.2 SDK. The poblem is that i've been using NSFetchedResultsController everywhere in my app and was working on the 3.1.2 version of the SDK, now my client say that i should make it compatible with the 3.0 version and the deadline is almost there. But is crashing everytime i change an object handled by the contoller, the application is crashing with very weird errors. The problem occure when removing the last object in a section and when a change make an object love to another section. I've been using a sample code from "More iPhone 3 Development Tackling iPhone SDK 3" by Dave Mark and Jeff LaMarche. I've also included some changes from link text Here is a sample output of the console when the application is crashing. * Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: 'Invalid update: invalid number of sections. The number of sections contained in the table view after the update (1) must be equal to the number of sections contained in the table view before the update (2), plus or minus the number of sections inserted or deleted (2 inserted, 0 deleted).' 2010-03-14 16:23:29.758 Instaproofs[5879:207] Stack: ( 807902715, 7364425, 807986683, 811271572, 815059090, 815007323, 211023, 4363331, 810589786, 807635429, 810579728, 3620573, 3620227, 3614682, 3609719, 27337, 810595174, 807686849, 807683624, 839142449, 839142646, 814752238 ) If i knew that NSFetchedResultsController is so buggy, i would never used it. So basicaly i need the my NSFetchedResultsControllerDelegate to work fine on the 3.0 and above SDKs. It would be life saver if someone help me figure out what i'm doing wrong.

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  • Can the Singleton be replaced by Factory?

    - by lostiniceland
    Hello Everyone There are already quite some posts about the Singleton-Pattern around, but I would like to start another one on this topic since I would like to know if the Factory-Pattern would be the right approach to remove this "anti-pattern". In the past I used the singleton quite a lot, also did my fellow collegues since it is so easy to use. For example, the Eclipse IDE or better its workbench-model makes heavy usage of singletons as well. It was due to some posts about E4 (the next big Eclipse version) that made me start to rethink the singleton. The bottom line was that due to this singletons the dependecies in Eclipse 3.x are tightly coupled. Lets assume I want to get rid of all singletons completely and instead use factories. My thoughts were as follows: hide complexity less coupling I have control over how many instances are created (just store the reference I a private field of the factory) mock the factory for testing (with Dependency Injection) when it is behind an interface In some cases the factories can make more than one singleton obsolete (depending on business logic/component composition) Does this make sense? If not, please give good reasons for why you think so. An alternative solution is also appreciated. Thanks Marc

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  • convincing C# compiler that execution will stop after a member returns

    - by Sarah Vessels
    I don't think this is currently possible or if it's even a good idea, but it's something I was thinking about just now. I use MSTest for unit testing my C# project. In one of my tests, I do the following: MyClass instance; try { instance = getValue(); } catch (MyException ex) { Assert.Fail("Caught MyException"); } instance.doStuff(); // Use of unassigned local variable 'instance' To make this code compile, I have to assign a value to instance either at its declaration or in the catch block. However, Assert.Fail will never, to the best of my knowledge, allow execution to proceed past it, hence instance will never be used without a value. Why is it then that I must assign a value to it? If I change the Assert.Fail to something like throw ex, the code compiles fine, I assume because it knows that exception will disallow execution to proceed to a point where instance would be used uninitialized. So is it a case of runtime versus compile-time knowledge about where execution will be allowed to proceed? Would it ever be reasonable for C# to have some way of saying that a member, in this case Assert.Fail, will never allow execution after it returns? Maybe that could be in the form of a method attribute. Would this be useful or an unnecessary complexity for the compiler?

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  • Fast, very lightweight algorithm for camera motion detection?

    - by Ertebolle
    I'm working on an augmented reality app for iPhone that involves a very processor-intensive object recognition algorithm (pushing the CPU at 100% it can get through maybe 5 frames per second), and in an effort to both save battery power and make the whole thing less "jittery" I'm trying to come up with a way to only run that object recognizer when the user is actually moving the camera around. My first thought was to simply use the iPhone's accelerometers / gyroscope, but in testing I found that very often people would move the iPhone at a consistent enough attitude and velocity that there wouldn't be any way to tell that it was still in motion. So that left the option of analyzing the actual video feed and detecting movement in that. I got OpenCV working and tried running their pyramidal Lucas-Kanade optical flow algorithm, which works well but seems to be almost as processor-intensive as my object recognizer - I can get it to an acceptable framerate if I lower the depth levels / downsample the image / track fewer points, but then accuracy suffers and it starts to miss some large movements and trigger on small hand-shaking-y ones. So my question is, is there another optical flow algorithm that's faster than Lucas-Kanade if I just want to detect the overall magnitude of camera movement? I don't need to track individual objects, I don't even need to know which direction the camera is moving, all I really need is a way to feed something two frames of video and have it tell me how far apart they are.

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  • Calling jquery function from ascx not working

    - by Metju
    Hi Guys, I'm having a problem with the following situation. I have an ascx which contains a submit button for a search criteria and I am trying to call a validation function in a js file I've used throughout the site (this is the first time I'm using it in an ascx). Now I've just tried this: <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery-1.3.2.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jsAdmin_Generic_SystemValidation.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $(".submitBtn").click(function (e) { alert("test"); alert($.Validate()); alert("test 2"); }); }); </script> The file is being referenced correctly as I am already seeing posts in Firebug that are done by it. This is the function: jQuery.extend({ Validate: function () { does validation... }); Now at first I was getting "Validate() is not a function" in firebug. Since I did that alert testing, I am getting the first alert, then nothing with no errors. Can anyone shed some light? Thanks

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  • IHttpModule not being applied to virtual directory

    - by arthurdent510
    I have a network folder that is mapped to my iis app as a virtual directory and I'm trying to do some authentication for files that are located there with an ihttpmodule. I've verified that the ihttpmodule is firing properly for anything else in my app, just not the files located in virtual directory. Most of what I've found is that the directory can't be listed as an application (which it isn't), and everything should work. The other solution that I found was to add the the module tag to the tag, but that didn't seem to help either. Everything that I've found talks about stopping this from happening. So my question is what could be set that is causing this to not work? Is there a certain execute permission that needs to be set? Any other iis settings that could cause this? It is an mvc app, and this is how my directory structure is laid out: server/app <- my application folder server/app/content/downloads <- downloads is the virtual directory Do I have to add the virtual directory directly under my app directory? Is that part of the problem? I don't have direct control of the server my code is running on, so testing things out is a bit of a pain... so I was looking for some more thoughts before starting to send emails off to my operations people. Thanks!

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  • Javascript API not working for Chrome or Safari on JW Player 5.9

    - by Lando
    I am working on a custom interface for the JW Player which displays the current track title and has play/pause, next track, previous track and volume toggle buttons. It works for IE8/9 and FF but fails for Chrome and Safari. Chrome's console gives the following error: Uncaught TypeError: Object # has no method 'addControllerListener' This is the code I am using for testing. <div id="container">Loading the player ...</div> <script type="text/javascript"> jwplayer("container").setup({ image: "preview.jpg", height: 320, width: 480, modes: [ { type: "html5" }, { type: "flash", src: "player.swf" } ], 'playlist': [ { 'file': "audio/01.mp3", 'title': "Track 1" }, { 'file': "audio/02.mp3", 'title': "Track 2" }, { 'file': "audio/03.mp3", 'title': "Track 3" } ], }); function playerReady(obj) { player = document.getElementById(obj.id); displayFirstItem(); }; function displayFirstItem() { try { playlist = player.getPlaylist(); } catch(e) { setTimeout("displayFirstItem()", 100); } player.addControllerListener('ITEM', 'itemMonitor'); itemMonitor({index:0}); }; function itemMonitor(obj) { $('#nowplaying').html('<span><strong>Now Playing:</strong> ' + playlist[obj.index]['title'] + '</span>'); }; </script> <div id="nowplaying"></div> <div class="control_bar"> <ul> <li onclick='player.sendEvent("play");'>[ &#8250; ] Play / Pause</li> <li onclick='player.sendEvent("prev");'>[ &laquo; ] Previous item</li> <li onclick='player.sendEvent("next");'>[ &raquo; ] Next item</li> </ul> </div> I have searched and tried several modifications, like adding the javascriptid parameter, nothing seems to work for Chrome or Safari. Any ideas? Thanks

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  • Directly call distutils' or setuptools' setup() function with command name/options, without parsing

    - by Ryan B. Lynch
    I'd like to call Python's distutils' or setuptools' setup() function in a slightly unconventional way, but I'm not sure whether distutils is meant for this kind of usage. As an example, let's say I currently have a 'setup.py' file, which looks like this (lifted verbatim from the distutils docs--the setuptools usage is almost identical): from distutils.core import setup setup(name='Distutils', version='1.0', description='Python Distribution Utilities', author='Greg Ward', author_email='[email protected]', url='http://www.python.org/sigs/distutils-sig/', packages=['distutils', 'distutils.command'], ) Normally, to build just the .spec file for an RPM of this module, I could run python setup.py bdist_rpm --spec-only, which parses the command line and calls the 'bdist_rpm' code to handle the RPM-specific stuff. The .spec file ends up in './dist'. How can I change my setup() invocation so that it runs the 'bdist_rpm' command with the '--spec-only' option, WITHOUT parsing command-line parameters? Can I pass the command name and options as parameters to setup()? Or can I manually construct a command line, and pass that as a parameter, instead? NOTE: I already know that I could call the script in a separate process, with an actual command line, using os.system() or the subprocess module or something similar. I'm trying to avoid using any kind of external command invocations. I'm looking specifically for a solution that runs setup() in the current interpreter. For background, I'm converting some release-management shell scripts into a single Python program. One of the tasks is running 'setup.py' to generate a .spec file for further pre-release testing. Running 'setup.py' as an external command, with its own command line options, seems like an awkward method, and it complicates the rest of the program. I feel like there may be a more Pythonic way.

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  • php file force download

    - by droidus
    When I use this code to download this image (only used for testing purposes), I open the downloaded image, and all it gives me is an error. i tried it in chrome. opening it with windows photo viewer, it says that it can't display the picture because it is empty??? here is the code: <?PHP // Define the path to file $file = 'http://www.media.lonelyplanet.com/lpi/12553/12553-11/469x264.jpg'; if(!file) { // File doesn't exist, output error die('file not found'); } else { header('Content-Description: File Transfer'); header('Content-Type: application/octet-stream'); header('Content-Disposition: attachment; filename='.basename($file)); header('Content-Transfer-Encoding: binary'); header('Expires: 0'); header('Cache-Control: must-revalidate, post-check=0, pre-check=0'); header('Pragma: public'); header('Content-Length: ' . filesize($file)); ob_clean(); flush(); readfile($file); exit; } ?>

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  • How to download .exe file with progress bar - VB 2012

    - by user2839828
    I am trying to create an updater for my program which automatically download's the latest version of my program from the web. Now I want this process to be done using a progress bar (so when the download progress is at 50% the progress bar is half-way through). This is my code: Private Sub client_ProgressChanged(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As DownloadProgressChangedEventArgs) Dim bytesIn As Double = Double.Parse(e.BytesReceived.ToString()) Dim totalBytes As Double = Double.Parse(e.TotalBytesToReceive.ToString()) Dim percentage As Double = bytesIn / totalBytes * 100 client.Value = Int32.Parse(Math.Truncate(percentage).ToString()) End Sub Private Sub Button1_Click(sender As Object, e As EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim url As String = "MY DOWNLOAD LINK" 'Download Dim client As WebClient = New WebClient AddHandler client.DownloadProgressChanged, AddressOf client_ProgressChanged AddHandler client.DownloadFileCompleted, AddressOf client_DownloadCompleted client.DownloadFileAsync(New Uri(url), "C:\Users\User\Desktop\BACKUP\TESTING\New folder\1.exe") End Sub End Class Now I know that the place where the file is saved has been inputed manually by me , but I will change that later. My problem currently is that the file is not being downloaded. However when I change the DownloadFileAsync method to DownloadFile , my program downloads the file. However with the DownloadFile method I will not be able to use the progress bar to track the download progress. Any help is much appreciated :-)

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  • Android Accessing Accelerometer: Returns always 0 as Value

    - by Rotesmofa
    Hello there, i would like to use the accelerometer in an Android Handset for my Application. The data from the sensor will be saved together with a GPS Point, so the Value is only needed when the GPS Point is updated. If i use the attached Code the values is always zero. API Level 8 Permissions: Internet, Fine Location Testing Device: Galaxy S(i9000), Nexus One Any Suggestions? I am stuck at this point. Best regards from Germany, Pascal import android.app.Activity; import android.hardware.Sensor; import android.hardware.SensorEvent; import android.hardware.SensorEventListener; import android.hardware.SensorManager; import android.os.Bundle; public class AccelerometerService extends Activity{ AccelerometerData accelerometerData; private SensorManager mSensorManager; private float x,y,z; private class AccelerometerData implements SensorEventListener{ public void onSensorChanged(SensorEvent event) { x = event.values[0]; y = event.values[1]; z = event.values[2]; } public void onAccuracyChanged(Sensor sensor, int accuracy) {} } @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); mSensorManager = (SensorManager) getSystemService(SENSOR_SERVICE); mSensorManager.registerListener(accelerometerData, mSensorManager.getDefaultSensor(Sensor.TYPE_ACCELEROMETER), SensorManager.SENSOR_DELAY_FASTEST); } @Override protected void onResume() { super.onResume(); } @Override protected void onStop() { mSensorManager.unregisterListener(accelerometerData); super.onStop(); } public String getSensorString() { return ("X: " + x+"m/s, Y: "+ y +"m/s, Z: "+ z +"m/s" ); } }

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  • Apache attack on compromised server, iframe injected by string replace

    - by Quang-Tuan Luong
    My server has been compromised recently. This morning, I have discovered that the intruder is injecting an iframe into each of my HTML pages. After testing, I have found out that the way he does that is by getting Apache (?) to replace every instance of <body> by <iframe link to malware></iframe></body> For example if I browse a file residing on the server consisting of: </body> </body> Then my browser sees a file consisting of: <iframe link to malware></iframe></body> <iframe link to malware></iframe></body> I have immediately stopped Apache to protect my visitors, but so far I have not been able to find what the intruder has changed on the server to perform the attack. I presume he has modified an Apache config file, but I have no idea which one. In particular, I have looked for recently modified files by time-stamp, but did not find anything noteworthy. Thanks for any help. Tuan. PS: I am in the process of rebuilding a new server from scratch, but in the while, I would like to keep the old one running, since this is a business site.

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  • Dumping an ADODB recordset to XML, then back to a recordset, then saving to the db

    - by Mark Biek
    I've created an XML file using the .Save() method of an ADODB recordset in the following manner. dim res dim objXML: Set objXML = Server.CreateObject("MSXML2.DOMDocument") 'This returns an ADODB recordset set res = ExecuteReader("SELECT * from some_table) With res Call .Save(objXML, 1) Call .Close() End With Set res = nothing Let's assume that the XML generated above then gets saved to a file. I'm able to read the XML back into a recordset like this: dim res : set res = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.recordset") res.open server.mappath("/admin/tbl_some_table.xml") And I can loop over the records without any problem. However what I really want to do is save all of the data in res to a table in a completely different database. We can assume that some_table already exists in this other database and has the exact same structure as the table I originally queried to make the XML. I started by creating a new recordset and using AddNew to add all of the rows from res to the new recordset dim outRes : set outRes = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.recordset") dim outConn : set outConn = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") dim testConnStr : testConnStr = "DRIVER={SQL Server};SERVER=dev-windows\sql2000;UID=myuser;PWD=mypass;DATABASE=Testing" outConn.open testConnStr outRes.activeconnection = outConn outRes.cursortype = adOpenDynamic outRes.locktype = adLockOptimistic outRes.source = "product_accessories" outRes.open while not res.eof outRes.addnew for i=0 to res.fields.count-1 outRes(res.fields(i).name) = res(res.fields(i).name) next outRes.movefirst res.movenext wend outRes.updatebatch But this bombs the first time I try to assign the value from res to outRes. Microsoft OLE DB Provider for ODBC Drivers error '80040e21' Multiple-step OLE DB operation generated errors. Check each OLE DB status value, if available. No work was done. Can someone tell me what I'm doing wrong or suggest a better way for me to copy the data loaded from XML to a different database?

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  • Serializing a DataType="time" field using XmlSerializer

    - by CraftyFella
    Hi, I'm getting an odd result when serializing a DateTime field using XmlSerializer. I have the following class: public class RecordExample { [XmlElement("TheTime", DataType = "time")] public DateTime TheTime { get; set; } [XmlElement("TheDate", DataType = "date")] public DateTime TheDate { get; set; } public static bool Serialize(Stream stream, object obj, Type objType, Encoding encoding) { try { using (var writer = XmlWriter.Create(stream, new XmlWriterSettings { Encoding = encoding })) { var xmlSerializer = new XmlSerializer(objType); if (writer != null) xmlSerializer.Serialize(writer, obj); } return true; } catch (Exception) { return false; } } } When i call the use the XmlSerializer with the following testing code: var obj = new RecordExample {TheDate = DateTime.Now.Date, TheTime = new DateTime(0001, 1, 1, 12, 00, 00)}; var ms = new MemoryStream(); RecordExample.Serialize(ms, obj, typeof (RecordExample), Encoding.UTF8); txtSource2.Text = Encoding.UTF8.GetString(ms.ToArray()); I get some strange results, here's the xml that is produced: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <RecordExample xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <TheTime>12:00:00.0000000+00:00</TheTime> <TheDate>2010-03-08</TheDate> </RecordExample> Any idea's how i can get the "TheTime" element to contain a time which looks more like this: <TheTime>12:00:00.0Z</TheTime> ...as that's what i was expecting? Thanks Dave

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  • Calculate an Internet (aka IP, aka RFC791) checksum in C#

    - by Pat
    Interestingly, I can find implementations for the Internet Checksum in almost every language except C#. Does anyone have an implementation to share? Remember, the internet protocol specifies that: "The checksum field is the 16 bit one's complement of the one's complement sum of all 16 bit words in the header. For purposes of computing the checksum, the value of the checksum field is zero." More explanation can be found from Dr. Math. There are some efficiency pointers available, but that's not really a large concern for me at this point. Please include your tests! (Edit: Valid comment regarding testing someone else's code - but I am going off of the protocol and don't have test vectors of my own and would rather unit test it than put into production to see if it matches what is currently being used! ;-) Edit: Here are some unit tests that I came up with. They test an extension method which iterates through the entire byte collection. Please comment if you find fault in the tests. [TestMethod()] public void InternetChecksum_SimplestValidValue_ShouldMatch() { IEnumerable<byte> value = new byte[1]; // should work for any-length array of zeros ushort expected = 0xFFFF; ushort actual = value.InternetChecksum(); Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); } [TestMethod()] public void InternetChecksum_ValidSingleByteExtreme_ShouldMatch() { IEnumerable<byte> value = new byte[]{0xFF}; ushort expected = 0xFF; ushort actual = value.InternetChecksum(); Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); } [TestMethod()] public void InternetChecksum_ValidMultiByteExtrema_ShouldMatch() { IEnumerable<byte> value = new byte[] { 0x00, 0xFF }; ushort expected = 0xFF00; ushort actual = value.InternetChecksum(); Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); }

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  • Correctly encode characters in a PHP mail form ("I'm" turns to be "I\'m")

    - by Peanuts
    Hello guys, I'm testing a PHP mail form, a very barebones one, found here: <?php if(isset($_POST['submit'])) { //The form has been submitted, prep a nice thank you message $output = '<h3>Thanks for your message</h3>'; //Deal with the email $to = '[email protected]'; $subject = 'you have a mail'; $contactname = strip_tags($_POST['contactname']); $adress = strip_tags($_POST['adress']); $contactemail = strip_tags($_POST['contactemail']); $textmessage = strip_tags($_POST['textmessage']); $boundary =md5(date('r', time())); $headers = "From: My Site\r\nReply-To: [email protected]"; $message = "Name: ".$contactname."\n"; $message .= "Adress: ".$adress."\n"; $message .= "E-mail: ".$contactemail."\n"; $message .= "Message: ".$textmessage."\n"; mail($to, $subject, $message, $headers); } ?> The problem is I'm receiving an unwanted slash "\" everytime I write a single or a double quote in my message, so "I'm" appear as "I\'m" in my mailbox. I know it have to do with the way PHP distinguishes code quotes from only lecture quotes, but I wouldn't know what to add in my form to get it properly running. Any help is appreciated,

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  • Has form post behavior changed in modern browsers? (or How are double clicks handled by the browser)

    - by Alex Czarto
    Background: We are in the process of writing a registration/payment page, and our philosophy was to code all validation and error checking on the server side first, and then add client side validation as a second step (un-obstructive jQuery). We wanted to disable double clicks server side, so we wrote some locking, thread-safe code to handle simultaneous posts/race conditions. When we tried to test this, we realized that we could not cause a simultaneous post or race condition to occur. I thought that (in older browsers anyway) double clicking a submit button worked as follows: User double clicks submit button. Browser sends a post on the first click On the second click, browser cancels/ignores initial post, and initiates a second post (before the first post has returned with a response). Browser waits for second post to return, ignoring initial post response. I thought that from the server side it looked like this: Server gets two simultaneous post requests, executes and responds to them both (unaware that no one is listening to the first response). From our testing (FireFox 3.0, IE 8.0) this is what actually happens: User double clicks submit button Browser sends a post for the first click Browser queues up second click, but waits for the response from the first click. Response returns from first click (response is ignored?). Browser sends a post for the second click. So from a server side: Server receives a single post which it executes and responds to. Then, server receives a second request wich it executes and responds to. My question is, has this always worked this way (and I'm losing my mind)? Or is this a new feature in modern browsers that prevents simultaneous posts to be sent to the server? It seems that for server side double click prevention, we don't have to worry about simultaneous posts or race conditions. Only need to worry about queued up posts. Thanks in advance for any feedback / comments. Alex

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  • Porting WebGL game to iPhone's native OpenGL?

    - by ArtPulse
    We are developing a web game that uses WebGL for the two biggest parts of it. Working with HTML / CSS was too slow and too limited, so it's off the table. Thing is, iOS does not support WebGL publicly just yet, only on iAd. It is my guess Apple will eventually support it once the security issues they and Microsoft claim it has are fixed, and looks stable enough. Problem is, if Apple does not do this by the release of the next mayor iOS version, then we will have in our hands a mobile WebGL game that does not run. 6 months of development and testing to waste. So, questions: If that was the case, how viable (regarding amount of time) is it porting the WebGL part of the game to native iPhone OpenGL? I'm afraid that porting will take longer than the development of the game itself. I saw posts on Stack Overflow (like this) that suggested, on Android, adding the OpenGL interface manually to a WebKit element. It'd be slower than native. But either way... Is this something that could be accepted in the AppStore? Apple is very restrictive with these kind of stuff... Thank you all for your time!

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