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  • Python 3.3 Webserver restarting problems

    - by IPDGino
    I have made a simple webserver in python, and had some problems with it before as described here: Python (3.3) Webserver script with an interesting error In that question, the answer was to use a While True: loop so that any crashes or errors would be resolved instantly, because it would just start itself again. I've used this for a while, and still want to make the server restart itself every few minutes, but on Linux for some reason it won't work for me. On windows the code below works fine, but on linux it keeps saying Handler class up here ... ... class Server: def __init__(self): self.server_class = HTTPServer self.server_adress = ('MY IP GOES HERE, or localhost', 8080) global httpd httpd = self.server_class(self.server_adress, Handler) self.main() def main(self): if count > 1: global SERVER_UP_SINCE HOUR_CHECK = int(((count - 1) * RESTART_INTERVAL) / 60) SERVER_UPTIME = str(HOUR_CHECK) + " MINUTES" if HOUR_CHECK > 60: minutes = int(HOUR_CHECK % 60) hours = int(HOUR_CHECK // 60) SERVER_UPTIME = ("%s HOURS, %s MINUTES" % (str(hours), str(minutes))) SERVING_ON_ADDR = self.server_adress SERVER_UP_SINCE = str(SERVER_UP_SINCE) SERVER_RESTART_NUMBER = count - 1 print(""" SERVER INFO ------------------------------------- SERVER_UPTIME: %s SERVER_UP_SINCE: %s TOTAL_FILES_SERVED: %d SERVING_ON_ADDR: %s SERVER_RESTART_NUMBER: %s \n\nSERVER HAS RESTARTED """ % (SERVER_UPTIME, SERVER_UP_SINCE, TOTAL_FILES, SERVING_ON_ADDR, SERVER_RESTART_NUMBER)) else: print("SERVER_BOOT=1\nSERVER_ONLINE=TRUE\nRESTART_LOOP=TRUE\nSERVING_ON_ADDR:%s" % str(self.server_adress)) while True: try: httpd.serve_forever() except KeyboardInterrupt: print("Shutting down...") break httpd.shutdown() httpd.socket.close() raise(SystemExit) return def server_restart(): """If you want the restart timer to be longer, replace the number after the RESTART_INTERVAL variable""" global RESTART_INTERVAL RESTART_INTERVAL = 10 threading.Timer(RESTART_INTERVAL, server_restart).start() global count count = count + 1 instance = Server() if __name__ == "__main__": global SERVER_UP_SINCE SERVER_UP_SINCE = strftime("%d-%m-%Y %H:%M:%S", gmtime()) server_restart() Basically, I make a thread to restart it every 10 seconds (For testing purposes) and start the server. After ten seconds it will say File "/home/username/Desktop/Webserver/server.py", line 199, in __init__ httpd = self.server_class(self.server_adress, Handler) File "/usr/lib/python3.3/socketserver.py", line 430, in __init__ self.server_bind() File "/usr/lib/python3.3/http/server.py", line 135, in server_bind socketserver.TCPServer.server_bind(self) File "/usr/lib/python3.3/socketserver.py", line 441, in server_bind self.socket.bind(self.server_address) OSError: [Errno 98] Address already in use As you can see in the except KeyboardInterruption line, I tried everything to make the server stop, and the program stop, but it will NOT stop. But the thing I really want to know is how to make this server able to restart, without giving some wonky errors.

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  • converting numbers into alphabets.

    - by Nina
    Hi! i want to convert number into alphabets using javascript e.g. 01=n, 02=i 03=n,04=a and when someone enters the numbers:01020304 in the form he will get like this: nina. or whatever he enters it get replace with equivalent alphabets including spaces. i will be really thankful if you can provide full code including html form code as i am beginner. Thank you all for quick response. I have found this code in one site it converts alphabets into numbers, but code for converting numbers into alphabets isn't working. here is a code for converting alphabets into numbers: var i,j; var getc; var len; var num,alpha; num=new Array("01","02","03","04","05","06","07","08","09","10","11","12","13","14","15","16","17", "18","19","20","21","22","23","24","25","26","00","##","$$"); alpha=new Array("a","b","c","d","e","f","g","h","i","j","k","l","m","n","o","p","q","r","s","t","u"," v","w","x","y","z"," ",".",","); function encode() { len=document.f1.ta1.value.length; document.f1.ta2.value=""; for(i=0;i

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  • Is a call to the following method considered late binding?

    - by AspOnMyNet
    1) Assume: • B1 defines methods virtualM() and nonvirtualM(), where former method is virtual while the latter is non-virtual • B2 derives from B1 • B2 overrides virtualM() • B2 is defined inside assembly A • Application app doesn’t have a reference to assembly A In the following code application app dynamically loads an assembly A, creates an instance of a type B2 and calls methods virtualM() and nonvirtualM(): Assembly a=Assembly.Load(“A”); Type t= a.GetType(“B2”); B1 a = ( B1 ) Activator.CreateInstance ( “t” ); a.virtualM(); a.nonvirtualM(); a) Is call to a.virtualM() considered early binding or late binding? b) I assume a call to a.nonvirtualM() is resolved during compilation time? 2) Does the term late binding refer only to looking up the target method at run time or does it also refer to creating an instance of given type at runtime? thanx EDIT: 1) A a=new A(); a.M(); As far as I know, it is not known at compile time where on the heap (thus at which memory address ) will instance a be created during runtime. Now, with early binding the function calls are replaced with memory addresses during compilation process. But how can compiler replace function call with memory address, if it doesn’t know where on the heap will object a be created during runtime ( here I’m assuming the address of method a.M will also be at same memory location as a )? 2) The method slot is determined at compile time I assume that by method slot you’re referring to the entry point in V-table?

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  • Really cool way to create custom UITabBar for iPhone app?

    - by ludicco
    Hi, I am doing a lot of researching lately about how to get a different looking with nice effects UITabBar on my iPhone app, but unfortunately I am only finding things on how to replace background color etc. Well, I've checked out this app called Momento which is pretty cool and presents a very slick tabBar: So there are a couple of elements here I would like to ask you guys if you could help me by giving me the right directions on how to get a similar effect :) Arrow above items: as you can see this app has this animated arrow that runs above the selected item with a very smooth animation. Selected Stated of the item's image is not that blue-ish default one neither the default state which displays in a different shade of brown and gray version. nice Items separators with beveled vertical lines. diferrent background image for the tabBar different height for the tabBar At this point after some research I am able to set the height and background image by subclassing UITabBarController but I'm still not sure on how to accomplish the other items specially the first one related to the nice arrow effect. If someone knows about a very good tutorial on how to do this it would be great for clarifying what can or can't be done by subclassing the UITabBarController and specially if can be done in Interface Builder :) I am just starting on this world off app development for iOS so if you could help me on that it would be really appreciated Thanks a lot in advance

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  • Unit Testing a rails 2.3.5 plugin

    - by brad
    I'm writing a new plugin for a rails 2.3.5 app. I've included an app directory (which makes it an engine) so i can easily load some extra routes. Not sure if that affects anything. Anyway, in the test directory i have two files: test_helper.rb and my_plugin_test.rb These files were generated automatically using script/generate plugin my_plugin When I go to vendor/plugins/my_plugin directory and run rake test they don't seem to run. I get the following console output: (in /Users/me/Repos/my_app/source/trunk/vendor/plugins/my_plugin) /Users/me/.rvm/rubies/jruby-1.4.0/bin/jruby -I"lib:lib:test" "/Users/me/.rvm/gems/jruby-1.4.0/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake/rake_test_loader.rb" "test/my_plugin_test.rb" So it obviously sees my test file, but none of the tests inside get run, I just get back to my console prompt. What am I missing here? I figured the generated code would work out of the box Here are the two files test_helper.rb require 'rubygems' require 'active_support' require 'active_support/test_case' my_plugin_test.rb require 'test_helper' class MyPluginTest < ActiveSupport::TestCase # Replace this with your real tests. test "the truth" do assert true end test "Factories are supported" do assert_not_nil Factory end end File structure vendor - plugins - my_plugin - app - config - routes.rb - generators - my_plugin - some generator files.rb - lib - my_plugin.rb - my_plugin - my_plugin_lib_file.rb - rails - init.rb - Rakefile - tasks - my_plugin_tasks.rake - test - test_helper.rb - my_plugin_test.rb

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  • Trigger ad-hoc activity within a workflow

    - by Chris Taylor
    I am looking to use WF 4 to replace an existing workflow solution we have. One feature that is currently used in the existing workflow engine is the ability to cancel a current activity and loopback to a FlowSwitch type activity. So given the following crude workflow where we start at 'O' and base in the input data the workflow follows the path to 'A2' which is currently blocking on s bookmark waiting for input. ---------A1--\ | \ /\ \ O------- ---->--(A2)-------| ^ \/ / | | | / | | ---------A3--/ | | | |----------------------| However in the meantime some out of band data comes in that means we should cancel 'A2' and return to the FlowSwitch to re-evaluate based on the new data. The question is what is the best way to handle the out of band data that arrived? My initial guess is to have a Parallel activity with one branch waiting for out of band data and the other branch containing the workflow sequence described above. If data came in on the brach waiting for the out of band data, how would I cancel the current activity in the workflow and force it to return to the FlowSwitch. Or of course is there a better way to handle this. I have not actually done any work with the WF4 stuff for WF3 for that matter so I might be missing something obvious here.

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  • Sms via a nokia phone over a serial port

    - by abigblackman
    Hi, I'm trying to send a sms via a Nokia phone over serial which is easy enough via putty. The commands from the nokia documentation works fine. However, trying to send the same commands from a c# application fails miserably. I've run Sysinternals PortMon and can see the commands come through OK, the only difference I can see is in the way it connects but I am having trouble finding the commands that would iron out those differences. The code I'm running looks a little bit like this using (SerialPort port = new SerialPort(comPort, 9600, Parity.None, 8, StopBits.One)) { port.DataReceived += new SerialDataReceivedEventHandler(port_DataReceived); port.ErrorReceived += new SerialErrorReceivedEventHandler(port_ErrorReceived); //port.ReceivedBytesThreshold = 1; port.DtrEnable = true; port.RtsEnable = true; port.ReadTimeout = 1; port.Handshake = Handshake.XOnXOff; try { port.Open(); port.WriteLine("AT"); port.WriteLine("AT+CMGF=1"); port.WriteLine("AT+CMGS=\"" + number + "\""); port.WriteLine(message); port.Write(new byte[] { (byte)26 }, 0, 1); } finally { if (port.IsOpen) { port.Close(); } } The differences I'm seeing in the trace from the serial port are At the start 0.00001844 aspnet_wp.exe IOCTL_SERIAL_SET_HANDFLOW USBSER001 SUCCESS Shake:1 Replace:43 XonLimit:4096 XoffLimit:4096 And at the very end 0.00061153 aspnet_wp.exe IOCTL_SERIAL_PURGE USBSER001 SUCCESS Purge: RXABORT RXCLEAR 0.00004442 aspnet_wp.exe IOCTL_SERIAL_PURGE USBSER001 SUCCESS Purge: TXABORT TXCLEAR Has anyone got any tips on how to iron out these issues? I also notice that the phone is not responding back to the application with any acknowledgement when I issue a command so I suspect the problem is with the connection, not those messages at the end.

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  • Silverlight Socket Constantly Returns With Empty Buffer

    - by Benny
    I am using Silverlight to interact with a proxy application that I have developed but, without the proxy sending a message to the Silverlight application, it executes the receive completed handler with an empty buffer ('\0's). Is there something I'm doing wrong? It is causing a major memory leak. this._rawBuffer = new Byte[this.BUFFER_SIZE]; SocketAsyncEventArgs receiveArgs = new SocketAsyncEventArgs(); receiveArgs.SetBuffer(_rawBuffer, 0, _rawBuffer.Length); receiveArgs.Completed += new EventHandler<SocketAsyncEventArgs>(ReceiveComplete); this._client.ReceiveAsync(receiveArgs); if (args.SocketError == SocketError.Success && args.LastOperation == SocketAsyncOperation.Receive) { // Read the current bytes from the stream buffer int bytesRecieved = this._client.ReceiveBufferSize; // If there are bytes to process else the connection is lost if (bytesRecieved > 0) { try { //Find out what we just received string messagePart = UTF8Encoding.UTF8.GetString(_rawBuffer, 0, _rawBuffer.GetLength(0)); //Take out any trailing empty characters from the message messagePart = messagePart.Replace('\0'.ToString(), ""); //Concatenate our current message with any leftovers from previous receipts string fullMessage = _theRest + messagePart; int seperator; //While the index of the seperator (LINE_END defined & initiated as private member) while ((seperator = fullMessage.IndexOf((char)Messages.MessageSeperator.Terminator)) > 0) { //Pull out the first message available (up to the seperator index string message = fullMessage.Substring(0, seperator); //Queue up our new message _messageQueue.Enqueue(message); //Take out our line end character fullMessage = fullMessage.Remove(0, seperator + 1); } //Save whatever was NOT a full message to the private variable used to store the rest _theRest = fullMessage; //Empty the queue of messages if there are any while (this._messageQueue.Count > 0) { ... } } catch (Exception e) { throw e; } // Wait for a new message if (this._isClosing != true) Receive(); } } Thanks in advance.

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  • Inserting javascript with jQuery .html

    - by Andrew Appleby
    I'm experiencing an issue with a website I'm working on, where I originally believed I could simply replace $("main").html('THIS') which was originally code for a flash object, with a new and improved HTML5/Javascript version. The original code: $("#main").html('<div style="height: 100%; width: 100%; overflow: hidden;"><object width="100%" height="100%" codebase="http://fpdownload.macromedia.com/pub/shockwave/cabs/flash/swflash.cab#version=8,0,0,0" classid="clsid:d27cdb6e-ae6d-11cf-96b8-444553540000">\ <param value="images/uploads/'+image_id+'.swf" name="movie">\ <param value="true" name="allowFullScreen">\ <param value="#737373" name="bgcolor">\ <param value="" name="FlashVars">\ <embed width="100%" height="100%" flashvars="" bgcolor="#737373" allowfullscreen="true" src="images/uploads/'+image_id+'.swf" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" pluginspage="http://www.macromedia.com/go/getflashplayer">\ </object></div>\ '); }); And my (failed) attempt at inserting my new code: $("#main").html('<script type="text/javascript">pano=new pano2vrPlayer("container");skin=new pano2vrSkin(pano);pano.readConfigUrl("xml/tablet_'+image_id+'.xml");hideUrlBar();</script>'); It doesn't even work when I just put , so I know it's gotta be the javascript itself. I've looked at the solutions out there, but I can't make sense in how to properly implement them here in the most efficient way. Your help is much appreciated, thanks!

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  • Creating a function in Postgresql that does not return composite values

    - by celenius
    I'm learning how to write functions in Postgresql. I've defined a function called _tmp_myfunction() which takes in an id and returns a table (I also define a table object type called _tmp_mytable) -- create object type to be returned CREATE TYPE _tmp_mytable AS ( id integer, cost double precision ); -- create function which returns query CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION _tmp_myfunction( id integer ) RETURNS SETOF _tmp_mytable AS $$ BEGIN RETURN QUERY SELECT id, cost FROM sales WHERE id = sales.id; END; $$ LANGUAGE plpgsql; This works fine when I use one id and call it using the following approach: SELECT * FROM _tmp_myfunction(402); What I would like to be able to do is to call it, but to use a column of values instead of just one value. However, if I use the following approach I end up with all values of the table in one column, separated by commas: -- call function using all values in a column SELECT _tmp_myfunction(t.id) FROM transactions as t; I understand that I can get the same result if I use SELECT _tmp_myfunction(402); instead of SELECT * FROM _tmp_myfunction(402); but I don't know how to construct my query in such a way that I can separate out the results.

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  • asp.net mvc ajax helper/post additional data w/o jquery.

    - by Jopache
    I would like to use the ajax helper to create ajax requests that send additional, dynamic data with the post (for example, get the last element with class = blogCommentDateTime and send the value of that last one to the controller which will return only blog comments after it). I have successfully done so with the help of jQuery Form plugin like so: $(document).ready(function () { $("#addCommentForm").submit(function () { var lastCommentDate = $(".CommentDateHidden:last").val(); var lastCommentData = { lastCommentDateTicks: lastCommentDate }; var formSubmitParams = { data: lastCommentData, success: AddCommentResponseHandler } $("#addCommentForm").ajaxSubmit(formSubmitParams); return false; }); This form was created with html.beginform() method. I am wondering if there is an easy way to do this using the ajax.beginform() helper? When I try to use the same code but replace html.beginform() with ajax.beginform(), when i try to submit the form, I am issuing 2 posts (which is understandable, one being taken care of by the helper, the other one by me with the JS above. I can't create 2 requests, so this option is out) I tried getting rid of the return false and changing ajaxSubmit() to ajaxForm() so that it would only "prepare" the form, and this leads in only one post, but it does not include the extra parameter that I defined, so this is worthless as well. I then tried keeping the ajaxForm() but calling that whenever the submit button on the form gets clicked rather than when the form gets submitted (I guess this is almost the same thing) and that results in 2 posts also. The biggest reason I am asking this question is that I have run in to some issues with the javascript above and using mvc validation provided by the mvc framework (which i will set up another question for) and would like to know this so I can dive further in to my validation issue.

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  • What VC++ compiler/linker does when building a C++ project with Managed Extension

    - by ???
    The initial problem is that I tried to rebuild a C++ project with debug symbols and copied it to test machine, The output of the project is external COM server(.exe file). When calling the COM interface function, there's a RPC call failre: COMException(0x800706BE): The remote procedure call failed. According to the COM HRESULT design, if the FACILITY code is 7, it's actually a WIN32 error, and the win32 error code is 0x6BE, which is the above mentioned "remote procedure call failed". All I do is replace the COM server .exe file, the origin file works well. When I checked into the project, I found it's a C++ project with Managed Extension. When I checking the DLL with reflector, it shows there's 2 additional .NET assembly reference. Then I checked the project setting and found nothing about the extra 2 assembly reference. I turned on the show includes option of compiler and verbose library of linker, and try to analyze whether the assembly is indirectly referenced via .h file. I've collect all the .h file and grep all the files with '#using' '#import' and the assembly file itself. There really is a '#using ' in one of the .h file but not-relevant to the referenced assembly. And about the linked .lib library files, only one of the .lib file is a side-product of another managed-extension-enabled C++ project, all others are produced by a pure, traditional C++ project. For the managed-extension-enabled C++ project, I checked the output DLL assembly, it did NOT reference to the 2 assembly. I even try to capture the access of the additional assembly file via sysinternal's filemon and procmon, but the rebuild process does NOT access these file. I'm very confused about the compile and linking process model of a VC++/CLI project, where the additional assembly reference slipped into the final assembly? Thanks in advance for any of your help.

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  • Are function-local typedefs visible inside C++0x lambdas?

    - by GMan - Save the Unicorns
    I've run into a strange problem. The following simplified code reproduces the problem in MSVC 2010 Beta 2: template <typename T> struct dummy { static T foo(void) { return T(); } }; int main(void) { typedef dummy<bool> dummy_type; auto x = [](void){ bool b = dummy_type::foo(); }; // auto x = [](void){ bool b = dummy<bool>::foo(); }; // works } The typedef I created locally in the function doesn't seem to be visible in the lambda. If I replace the typedef with the actual type, it works as expected. Here are some other test cases: // crashes the compiler, credit to Tarydon int main(void) { struct dummy {}; auto x = [](void){ dummy d; }; } // works as expected int main(void) { typedef int integer; auto x = [](void){ integer i = 0; }; } I don't have g++ 4.5 available to test it, right now. Is this some strange rule in C++0x, or just a bug in the compiler? From the results above, I'm leaning towards bug. Though the crash is definitely a bug. For now, I have filed two bug reports. All code snippets above should compile. The error has to do with using the scope resolution on locally defined scopes. (Spotted by dvide.) And the crash bug has to do with... who knows. :) Update According to the bug reports, they have both been fixed for the next release of Visual Studio 2010.

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  • Removing HTML entities while preserving line breaks with JSoup

    - by shrodes
    I have been using JSoup to parse lyrics and it has been great until now, but have run into a problem. I can use Node.html() to return the full HTML of the desired node, which retains line breaks as such: Gl&oacute;andi augu, silfurn&aacute;tt <br />Bl&oacute;&eth; alv&ouml;ru, starir &aacute; <br />&Oacute;&eth;ur hundur er &iacute; v&iacute;gam&oacute;&eth;, &iacute; maga... m&eacute;r <br /> <br />Kolni&eth;ur gref, kvik sem dreg h&eacute;r <br />Kolni&eth;ur svart, hvergi bjart n&eacute; But has the unfortunate side-effect, as you can see, of retaining HTML entities and tags. However, if I use Node.text(), I can get a better looking result, free of tags and entities: Glóandi augu, silfurnátt Blóð alvöru, starir á Óður hundur er í vígamóð, í maga... mér Kolniður gref, kvik sem dreg hér Kolniður svart, Which has another unfortunate side-effect of removing the line breaks and compressing into a single line. Simply replacing <br /> from the node before calling Node.text() yields the same result, and it seems that that method is compressing the text onto a single line in the method itself, ignoring newlines. Is it possible to have the best of both worlds, and have tags and entities replaced correctly which preserving the line breaks, or is there another method or way of decoding entities and removing tags without having to replace them manually?

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  • Can Content script set value of a text box within HTML frame? using Google Chrome extensions..

    - by devdreamers
    Hi all, I was working on a very simple extension, where on clicking extension icon, a webpage is opened in a new tab, the webpage has HTML frames, within which lies a textbox. I want to set a value for the same. The webpage which opens has: <HTML> <FRAMESET rows="15%, *" border="0"> <FRAME src="./files/abc.htm" id="abc_frame" name="abc_frame" onload="abcLoad()" scrolling="NO"> </FRAMESET> </HTML> and abc.htm has: <div align="center" valign="bottom" style="font-size: 1em;"> <form onSubmit="javascript:navigate(this);return false;"> <label for="loc">Loc</label>: <input type="text" size="50" id="loc" value="http://google.com"/> <input name="go" type="submit" value="Go" id="loc_go" onclick='navigate(this); return false;'/> </form> </div> how can I replace current textbox value with, say http://yahoo.com ? I guess, Content Script in Chrome extensions is required, but not sure, how/what should be it's code/content. Please guide/help. Thanks a lot. Appreciate it.

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  • Boost binding a function taking a reference

    - by Jamie Cook
    Hi all, I am having problems compiling the following snippet int temp; vector<int> origins; vector<string> originTokens = OTUtils::tokenize(buffer, ","); // buffer is a char[] array // original loop BOOST_FOREACH(string s, originTokens) { from_string(temp, s); origins.push_back(temp); } // I'd like to use this to replace the above loop std::transform(originTokens.begin(), originTokens.end(), origins.begin(), boost::bind<int>(&FromString<int>, boost::ref(temp), _1)); where the function in question is // the third parameter should be one of std::hex, std::dec or std::oct template <class T> bool FromString(T& t, const std::string& s, std::ios_base& (*f)(std::ios_base&) = std::dec) { std::istringstream iss(s); return !(iss >> f >> t).fail(); } the error I get is 1>Compiling with Intel(R) C++ 11.0.074 [IA-32]... (Intel C++ Environment) 1>C:\projects\svn\bdk\Source\deps\boost_1_42_0\boost/bind/bind.hpp(303): internal error: assertion failed: copy_default_arg_expr: rout NULL, no error (shared/edgcpfe/il.c, line 13919) 1> 1> return unwrapper<F>::unwrap(f, 0)(a[base_type::a1_], a[base_type::a2_]); 1> ^ 1> 1>icl: error #10298: problem during post processing of parallel object compilation Google is being unusually unhelpful so I hope that some one here can provide some insights.

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  • how to generate unique numbers less than 8 characters long.

    - by loudiyimo
    hi I want to generate unique id's everytime i call methode generateCustumerId(). The generated id must be 8 characters long or less than 8 characters. This requirement is necessary because I need to store it in a data file and schema is determined to be 8 characters long for this id. Option 1 works fine. Instead of option 1, I want to use UUID. The problem is that UUID generates an id which has to many characters. Does someone know how to generate a unique id which is less then 99999999? option 1 import java.util.HashSet; import java.util.Random; import java.util.Set; public class CustomerIdGenerator { private static Set<String> customerIds = new HashSet<String>(); private static Random random = new Random(); // XXX: replace with java.util.UUID public static String generateCustumerId() { String customerId = null; while (customerId == null || customerIds.contains(customerId)) { customerId = String.valueOf(random.nextInt(89999999) + 10000000); } customerIds.add(customerId); return customerId; } } option2 generates an unique id which is too long public static String generateCustumerId() { String ownerId = UUID.randomUUID().toString(); System.out.println("ownerId " + ownerId); return ownerId }

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  • How to redirect a URL with GET variables in routes.rb without Rails stripping out the variable first?

    - by Michael Hopkins
    I am building a website in Rails to replace an existing website. In routes.rb I am trying to redirect some of the old URLs to their new equivalents (some of the URL slugs are changing so a dynamic solution is not possible.) My routes.rb looks like this: match "/index.php?page=contact-us" => redirect("/contact-us") match "/index.php?page=about-us" => redirect("/about-us") match "/index.php?page=committees" => redirect("/teams") When I visit /index.php?page=contact-us I am not redirected to /contact-us. I have determined this is because Rails is removing the get variables and only trying to match /index.php. For example, If I pass /index.php?page=contact-us into the below routes I will be redirected to /foobar: match "/index.php?page=contact-us" => redirect("/contact-us") match "/index.php?page=about-us" => redirect("/about-us") match "/index.php?page=committees" => redirect("/teams") match "/index.php" => redirect("/foobar") How can I keep the GET variables in the string and redirect the old URLs the way I'd like? Does Rails have an intended mechanism for this?

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  • R: manipulating data.frames containing strings and booleans.

    - by Mike Dewar
    Hello. I have a data.frame in R; it's called p. Each element in the data.frame is either True or False. My variable p has, say, m rows and n columns. For every row there is strictly only one TRUE element. It also has column names, which are strings. What I would like to do is the following: For every row in p I see a TRUE I would like to replace with the name of the corresponding column I would then like to collapse the data.frame, which now contains FALSEs and column names, to a single vector, which will have m elements. I would like to do this in an R-thonic manner, so as to continue my enlightenment in R and contribute to a world without for-loops. I can do step 1 using the following for loop: for (i in seq(length(colnames(p)))) { p[p[,i]==TRUE,i]=colnames(p)[i] } but theres's no beauty here and I have totally subscribed to this for-loops-in-R-are-probably-wrong mentality. Maybe wrong is too strong but they're certainly not great. I don't really know how to do step 2. I kind of hoped that the sum of a string and FALSE would return the string but it doesn't. I kind of hoped I could use an OR operator of some kind but can't quite figure that out (Python responds to False or 'bob' with 'bob'). Hence, yet again, I appeal to you beautiful Rstats people for help!

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  • Is there a supplementary guide/answer key for ruby koans?

    - by corroded
    I have recently tried sharpening my rails skills with this tool: http://github.com/edgecase/ruby_koans but I am having trouble passing some tests. Also I am not sure if I'm doing some things correctly since the objective is just to pass the test, there are a lot of ways in passing it and I may be doing something that isn't up to standards. Is there a way to confirm if I'm doing things right? a specific example: in about_nil, def test_nil_is_an_object assert_equal __, nil.is_a?(Object), "Unlike NULL in other languages" end so is it telling me to check if that second clause is equal to an object(so i can say nil is an object) or just put assert_equal true, nil.is_a?(Object) because the statement is true? and the next test: def test_you_dont_get_null_pointer_errors_when_calling_methods_on_nil # What happens when you call a method that doesn't exist. The # following begin/rescue/end code block captures the exception and # make some assertions about it. begin nil.some_method_nil_doesnt_know_about rescue Exception => ex # What exception has been caught? assert_equal __, ex.class # What message was attached to the exception? # (HINT: replace __ with part of the error message.) assert_match(/__/, ex.message) end end Im guessing I should put a "No method error" string in the assert_match, but what about the assert_equal?

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  • Free solution for automatic updates with .NET/C#?

    - by a2h
    Yes, from searching I can see this has been asked time and time again. Here's a backstory. I'm an individual hobbyist developer with zero budget. A program I've been developing has been in need of constant bugfixes, and me and users are getting tired of having to manually update. Me, because my current solution of Manually FTP to my website Update a file "newest.txt" with the newest version Update index.html with a link to the newest version Hope for people to see the "there's an update" message Have them manually download the update sucks, and whenever I screw up an update, I get pitchforks. Users, because, well, "Are you ever going to implement auto-update?" "Will there ever be an auto-update feature?" Over the past few hours I have looked into: http://windowsclient.net/articles/appupdater.aspx - I can't comprehend the documentation http://www.codeproject.com/KB/vb/Auto_Update_Revisited.aspx - Doesn't appear to support anything other than working with files that aren't in use http://wyday.com/wyupdate/ - wyBuild isn't free, and the file specification is simply too complex. Maybe if I was under a company paying me I could spend the time, but then I may as well pay for wyBuild. http://www.kineticjump.com/update/default.aspx - Ditto. ClickOnce - Workarounds for implementing launching on startup are massive, horrendous and not worth it for such a simple feature. Publishing is a pain; manual FTP and replace of all files is required for servers without FrontPage Extensions. I'm pretty much ready to throw in the towel right now and strangle myself. And then I think about Sparkle...

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  • Compilation errors calling find_if using a functor

    - by Jim Wong
    We are having a bit of trouble using find_if to search a vector of pairs for an entry in which the first element of the pair matches a particular value. To make this work, we have defined a trivial functor whose operator() takes a pair as input and compares the first entry against a string. Unfortunately, when we actually add a call to find_if using an instance of our functor constructed using a temporary string value, the compiler produces a raft of error messages. Oddly (to me, anyway), if we replace the temporary with a string that we've created on the stack, things seem to work. Here's what the code (including both versions) looks like: typedef std::pair<std::string, std::string> MyPair; typedef std::vector<MyPair> MyVector; struct MyFunctor: std::unary_function <const MyPair&, bool> { explicit MyFunctor(const std::string& val) : m_val(val) {} bool operator() (const MyPair& p) { return p.first == m_val; } const std::string m_val; }; bool f(const char* s) { MyFunctor f(std::string(s)); // ERROR // std::string str(s); // MyFunctor f(str); // OK MyVector vec; MyVector::const_iterator i = std::find_if(vec.begin(), vec.end(), f); return i != vec.end(); } And here's what the most interesting error message looks like: /usr/include/c++/4.2.1/bits/stl_algo.h:260: error: conversion from ‘std::pair, std::allocator , std::basic_string, std::allocator ’ to non-scalar type ‘std::string’ requested Because we have a workaround, we're mostly curious as to why the first form causes problems. I'm sure we're missing something, but we haven't been able to figure out what it is.

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  • Possible to write an Extension Method for ASP.NET's Html.ActionLink() method?

    - by Pretzel
    Right now, I'm trying to work around an IE6/7 bug which requires the wrapping of the </a closing tag with this IE specific comment to make some drop-down menu work: <!--[if IE 7]><!--></a><!--<![endif]--> Unfortunately, I cannot inject this directly into my View page code like this: <%= Html.ActionLink("LinkName<!--[if IE 7]><!--></a><!--<![endif]-->","Action","Controller") %> As Html.ActionLink will do the safe thing and filter out the comment to prevent a Javascript injection attack. Ok, cool. I'm fine with that. Good design decision. What I'd like to do is write an Extension Method to this, but the process is eluding me as I haven't done this before. I thought this would work, but Intellisense doesn't seem to be picking up this Extension method that I've written. public static class MyLinkExtensions { public static string ActionLinkIE(this HtmlHelper htmlHelper, string linkText, string actionName, string controllerName) { return LinkExtensions.ActionLink(htmlHelper, linkText, actionName, controllerName). Replace(@"</a>", @"<!--[if IE 7]><!--></a><!--<![endif]-->"); } } Any suggestions?

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  • Visual C++ overrides/mock objects for unit testing?

    - by Mark
    When I'm running unit tests, I want to be able to "stub out" or create a mock object, but I'm running into DLL Hell. For example: There are two DLL libraries built: A.dll and B.dll -- Classes in A.dll have calls to classes in B.dll so when A.dll was built, the link line was using B.lib for the defintions. My test driver (Foo.exe) is testing classes in A.dll, so it links against A.lib. However, I want to "stub out" some of the calls A.dll makes to B.dll with simple versions (return basic value, no DB look up, etc). I can't build an Override.dll that just overrides the needed methods (not entire classes) and replace B.dll because Foo.exe will A) complain that B.dll is missing if I just remove it and put Override.dll in it's place or B) if I rename Override.dll to B.dll, Foo.exe complains that there are unresolved symbols because Override.dll is not a complete implementation of B.dll. Is there a way to do this? Is there a way to statically link Foo.exe with A.lib, B.lib and Override.lib such that it will work without having to completely rebuild A.lib and B.lib to remove the __delcspec(dllexport)? Is there another option?

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  • How use unobtrusive validation without a model

    - by Ross Cyrus
    i have simple a form wich made by htmlHelper(mvc3) then inside of it i have 2 input field 1:type=text 2:type=submit to submit the form. there is no model behind.so i need to perfom a clientside validation on the textfield before submit it to the server.but i dont know how. i tried this puting manualy the 'data-* artibute , but does not work : @using( Html.BeginForm()) { <label for="UserName" >User Name</label> <div class="editor-field"> <input type="text" data-val="true" data-val-requierd="You must provide an user Name" id="userName" name="userName" placeholder="Enter Your User Name" /> </div> <input type="submit" value="Recover" /> } the "jquery.validate.min.js" and jquery.validate.unobtrusive.min.js and jquery.validate.min.js and jquery.validate.unobtrusive.min.js are loaded to the page. It doesnt let me to answer my self ,so i put it here : I solve it my self,just made an other view wich has its own model and Required on its propertyis and then just copy the renderd html to my own,and i got this and works : <input data-val="true" data-val-required="You must provide an user Name" id="UserName" name="UserName" type="text" value="" placeholder="Enter your User Name"/> <span class="field-validation-valid" data-valmsg-for="UserName" data-valmsg-replace="true"></span> And there is no type="Required".any way thank you guys.

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