Search Results

Search found 9715 results on 389 pages for 'bad passwords'.

Page 334/389 | < Previous Page | 330 331 332 333 334 335 336 337 338 339 340 341  | Next Page >

  • Add something to symbol in dynamicly loaded swf (ActionScript 3)

    - by user1468671
    I have a program written in Flash Builder with Flex 4.6 sdk and swf movie with some symbols inside. Those symbols moving around the stage. What I need is load that swf in my program and replace one of those symbols to my bitmap and show whole swf in flashContainer. There is my code for now: var swfLoader:Loader = new Loader(); var bgUrl:URLRequest = new URLRequest("testMovie.swf"); swfLoader.contentLoaderInfo.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, function(event: Event) : void { var movie: MovieClip = event.target.content; var headClass: Class = movie.loaderInfo.applicationDomain.getDefinition("headSymbol") as Class; var head:MovieClip = new headClass() as MovieClip; head.addChild(bmp); flashContainer.source = movie; }); but in flashContainer showed old movie. If I do flashContainer.source = head; then only head with my bmp appears. Need help. And sorry for my bad English.

    Read the article

  • WPF app startup problems

    - by Dave
    My brain is all over the map trying to fully understand Unity right now. So I decided to just dive in and start adding it in a branch to see where it takes me. Surprisingly enough (or maybe not), I am stuck just getting my darn Application to load properly. It seems like the right way to do this is to override OnStartup in App.cs. I've removed my StartupUri from App.xaml so it doesn't create my GUI XAML. My App.cs now looks something like this: public partial class App : Application { private IUnityContainer container { get; set; } protected override void OnStartup(StartupEventArgs e) { container = new UnityContainer(); GUI gui = new GUI(); gui.Show(); } protected override void OnExit(ExitEventArgs e) { container.Dispose(); base.OnExit(e); } } The problem is that nothing happens when I start the app! I put a breakpoint at the container assignment, and it never gets hit. What am I missing? App.xaml is currently set to ApplicationDefinition, but I'd expect this to work because some sample Unity + WPF code I'm looking at (from Codeplex) does the exact same thing, except that it works! I've also started the app by single-stepping, and it eventually hits the first line in App.xaml. When I step into this line, that's when the app just starts "running", but I don't see anything (and my breakpoint isn't hit). If I do the exact same thing in the sample application, stepping into App.xaml puts me right into OnStartup, which is what I'd expect to happen. Argh! Is it a Bad Thing to just put the Unity construction in my GUI's Window_Loaded event handler? Does it really need to be at the App level?

    Read the article

  • How do I become better in math, after being a programmer for several years.

    - by loxs
    I've had quite a weird career till now. First I graduated from a medical school. Then I went into marketing (pharmaceuticals). And then umm, after some time, I decided to go for my (till then) hobby and became a "professional" programmer. I've been quite successful at this ever since. I have quite some languages "under my belt". I earn not bad and I have been involved in the opensource community quite heavily. The thing is that I suck at math :). Well, not totally of course, as I get my work done. But I don't know how much I suck. And I don't know how to find out. Math has never really been of any priority during my middle/high school years. I only picked as little as I could afford, because I was always getting ready to go for Medicine. Of course I know the basics of algebra. Things like "normal" and square equations. Also the basics of geometry. But well, there are things that I have missed. And lately I am being fascinated by things like probability theory, infinity, chaos/order etc. But every time I try to learn something about these topics, I hit a wall of terminology, special symbols, and some special kind of thinking, that is quite like mine (a programmer), but also a lot different (and appears weird to me). So, what kinds of books would you recommend me? It's very hard to find something suitable. All that I find are either too easy (and boring) or totally impenetrable.

    Read the article

  • Cannot display converted value inside xml field

    - by zurna
    PS: My bad, there was not an error. I forgot to upload the latest version to the server... I have multimedias and images table. I save images in multimedias table with their images table id numbers. Then whenever I need image's url, with a simple function I get it from images table. The problem I am having is when I try to display image's url inside ImageURL, it just does not happen. This is very annoying. xml output <?xml version='1.0' encoding='windows-1254' ?> <rows><row id='1'> <MultimediaTitle>Hagi Goals</MultimediaTitle> /FLPM/media/images/5Y2K4T5V_sm.jpg <ImageURL><![CDATA[]]></ImageURL> <Videos> <VideoID id='1'><VideoURL>/FLPM/media/videos/0H7T9C0F.flv</VideoURL></VideoID> <VideoID id='2'><VideoURL>/FLPM/media/videos/9L6X9G9J.flv</VideoURL></VideoID> </Videos> </row> </rows>

    Read the article

  • J2EE and alternatives

    - by Ilya K
    Hello, I am J2SE developer but I have rich web-background (php, perl/cgi and so on) and now I am starting new project. It will have web interface, spaghetti business logic, relational database as storage and connections to other services. I do it from the scratch. My colleagues told me to use spring, spring security and struts. I look briefly at J2EE spec and found that it covers almost all aspects of enterprise application. I asked my colleagues why do they need spring and struts, but looks like they use technologies simply because they are familiar with them and not familiar with classic J2EE stack. So, my question is: what is bad about J2EE? Why do I need spring if there are JNDI lookups? It will take a day or two to create fake InitialContext for unit-tests. And that is all: I stand with out of external tools like spring. Why do I need spring-security if there is a security built in Servlets spec? I can map any request to any servlet using web.xml, no struts.xml is needed. I can use servlet-filters instead of struts interceptors. There is RMI, so I do not need spring-remote. And so on.. Why should I bother my self with all that fancy stuff if there is J2EE? I really want to find situation when J2EE is not enough. Do you have any? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How string accepting interface should look like?

    - by ybungalobill
    Hello, This is a follow up of this question. Suppose I write a C++ interface that accepts or returns a const string. I can use a const char* zero-terminated string: void f(const char* str); // (1) The other way would be to use an std::string: void f(const string& str); // (2) It's also possible to write an overload and accept both: void f(const char* str); // (3) void f(const string& str); Or even a template in conjunction with boost string algorithms: template<class Range> void f(const Range& str); // (4) My thoughts are: (1) is not C++ish and may be less efficient when subsequent operations may need to know the string length. (2) is bad because now f("long very long C string"); invokes a construction of std::string which involves a heap allocation. If f uses that string just to pass it to some low-level interface that expects a C-string (like fopen) then it is just a waste of resources. (3) causes code duplication. Although one f can call the other depending on what is the most efficient implementation. However we can't overload based on return type, like in case of std::exception::what() that returns a const char*. (4) doesn't work with separate compilation and may cause even larger code bloat. Choosing between (1) and (2) based on what's needed by the implementation is, well, leaking an implementation detail to the interface. The question is: what is the preffered way? Is there any single guideline I can follow? What's your experience?

    Read the article

  • My project is no longer used - how should I feel?

    - by flybywire
    For the last two years I have been developing and supporting an important project for a big customer. The project included mining data from the customer's existing systems, processing, and displaying and updating in the customer's public home page. The project was defined as crucial by the customer and I was payed good money and flown at the customer's expense to meet key employees. Some months ago, when the project was finished and in maintainance mode, I informed the customer that I am no longer interested in doing it as I had a new opportunity that would not be compatible with my existing customer. I was payed to train one of their employees, flown to meet him, make sure everything works and that he can be safely left in charge of the project. We finished in good terms after I complied with all my obligations and they payed me all they owed me. Some days ago, just out of curiosity, I entered to their website to see how the data continues to be updated and much to my dismay I discovered that the day after my contract was finished my system was "turned off" and it ceased to feed data to the public website. Let's put it clear, there is no issue of money or broken contract here. They are in they full right to do whatever they want with my software. But it is an issue of broken "programmer's ego". Should I feel bad about it (I do). Should I care and check out with my customer if they need some help? Or is it none of my matters?

    Read the article

  • [Apache] Creating rewrite rules for multiple urls in the same folder

    - by DavidYell
    I have been asked by our client to convert a site we created into SEO friendly url format. I've managed to crack a small way into this, but have hit a problem with having the same urls in the same folder. I am trying to rewrite the following urls, /review/index.php?cid=intercasino /review/submit.php?cid=intercasino /review/index.php?cid=intercasino&page=2#reviews I would like to get them to, /review/intercasino /submit-review/intercasino /review/intercasino/2#reviews I've almost got it working using the following rule, RewriteRule (submit-review)/(.*)$ review/submit.php?cid=$2 [L] RewriteRule (^review)/(.*) review/index.php?cid=$2 The problem, you may already see, is that /submit-review rewrites to /review, which in turn gets rewritten to index.php, thus my review submission page is lost in place of my index page. I figured that putting [L] would prevent the second rule being called, but it seems that it rewrites both urls in two seperate passes. I've also tried [QSE], and [S=1] I would rather not have to move my files into different folders to get the rewriting to work, as that just seems too much like bad practise. If anyone could give me some pointers on how to differentiate between these similar urls that would be great! Thanks (Ref: http://httpd.apache.org/docs/2.0/mod/mod_rewrite.html)

    Read the article

  • Creating android app Database with big amount of data

    - by Thomas
    Hi all, The database of my application need to be filled with a lot of data, so during onCreate(), it's not only some create table sql instructions, there is a lot of inserts. The solution I chose is to store all this instructions in a sql file located in res/raw and which is loaded with Resources.openRawResource(id). It works well but I face to encoding issue, I have some accentuated caharacters in the sql file which appears bad in my application. This my code to do this : public String getFileContent(Resources resources, int rawId) throws IOException { InputStream is = resources.openRawResource(rawId); int size = is.available(); // Read the entire asset into a local byte buffer. byte[] buffer = new byte[size]; is.read(buffer); is.close(); // Convert the buffer into a string. return new String(buffer); } public void onCreate(SQLiteDatabase db) { try { // get file content String sqlCode = getFileContent(mCtx.getResources(), R.raw.db_create); // execute code for (String sqlStatements : sqlCode.split(";")) { db.execSQL(sqlStatements); } Log.v("Creating database done."); } catch (IOException e) { // Should never happen! Log.e("Error reading sql file " + e.getMessage(), e); throw new RuntimeException(e); } catch (SQLException e) { Log.e("Error executing sql code " + e.getMessage(), e); throw new RuntimeException(e); } The solution I found to avoid this is to load the sql instructions from a huge static final string instead of a file, and all accentutated characters appears well. But Isn't there a more elegant way to load sql instructions than a big static final String attribute with all sql instructions ? Thanks in advance Thomas

    Read the article

  • Centralizing Messagebox handling for application

    - by DRapp
    I'm wondering how others deal with trying to centralize MessageBox function calling. Instead of having long text embedded all over the place in code, in the past (non .net language), I would put system and application base "messagebox" type of messages into a database file which would be "burned" into the executable, much like a resource file in .Net. When a prompting condition would arise, I would just do call something like MBAnswer = MyApplication.CallMsgBox( IDUserCantDoThat ) then check the MBAnswer upon return, such as a yes/no/cancel or whatever. In the database table, I would have things like what the messagebox title would be, the buttons that would be shown, the actual message, a special flag that automatically tacked on a subsequent standard comment like "Please contact help desk if this happens.". The function would call the messagebox with all applicable settings and just return back the answer. The big benefits of this was, one location to have all the "context" of messages, and via constants, easier to read what message was going to be presented to the user. Does anyone have a similar system in .Net to do a similar approach, or is this just a bad idea in the .Net environment.

    Read the article

  • Java reflection appropriateness

    - by jsn
    This may be a fairly subjective question, but maybe not. My application contains a bunch of forms that are displayed to the user at different times. Each form is a class of its own. Typically the user clicks a button, which launches a new form. I have a convenience function that builds these buttons, you call it like this: buildButton( "button text", new SelectionAdapter() { @Override public void widgetSelected( SelectionEvent e ) { showForm( new TasksForm( args... ) ); } } ); I do this dozens of times, and it's really cumbersome having to make a SelectionAdapter every time. Really all I need for the button to know is what class to instantiate when it's clicked and what arguments to give the constructor, so I built a function that I call like this instead: buildButton( "button text", TasksForm.class, args... ); Where args is an arbitrary list of objects that you could use to instantiate TasksForm normally. It uses reflection to get a constructor from the class, match the argument list, and build an instance when it needs to. Most of the time I don't have to pass any arguments to the constructor at all. The downside is obviously that if I'm passing a bad set of arguments, it can't detect that at compilation time, so if it fails, a dialog is displayed at runtime. But it won't normally fail, and it'll be easy to debug if it does. I think this is much cleaner because I come from languages where the use of function and class literals is pretty common. But if you're a normal Java programmer, would seeing this freak you out, or would you appreciate not having to scan a zillion SelectionAdapters?

    Read the article

  • casting vs using the 'as' keyword in the CLR

    - by Frank V
    I'm learning about design patterns and because of that I've ended using a lot of interfaces. One of my "goals" is to program to an interface, not an implementation. What I've found is that I'm doing a lot of casting or object type conversion. What I'd like to know is if there is a difference between these two methods of conversion: public interface IMyInterface { void AMethod(); } public class MyClass : IMyInterface { public void AMethod() { //Do work } // other helper methods.... } public class Implementation { IMyInterface _MyObj; MyClass _myCls1; MyClass _myCls2; public Implementation() { _MyObj = new MyClass(); // What is the difference here: _myCls1 = (MyClass)_MyObj; _myCls2 = (_MyObj as MyClass); } } If there is a difference, is there a cost difference or how does this affect my program? Hopefully this makes sense. Sorry for the bad example; it is all I could think of... Update: What is "in general" the preferred method? (I had a question similar to this posted in the 'answers'. I moved it up here at the suggestion of Michael Haren. Also, I want to thank everyone who's provided insight and perspective on my question.

    Read the article

  • Who needs singletons?

    - by sexyprout
    Imagine you access your MySQL database via PDO. You got some functions, and in these functions, you need to access the database. The first thing I thought of is global, like: $db = new PDO('mysql:host=127.0.0.1;dbname=toto', 'root', 'pwd'); function some_function() { global $db; $db->query('...'); } But it's considered as a bad practice. So, after a little search, I ended up with the Singleton pattern, which "applies to situations in which there needs to be a single instance of a class." According to the example of the manual, we should do this: class Database { private static $instance, $db; private function __construct(){} static function singleton() { if(!isset(self::$instance)) self::$instance = new __CLASS__; return self:$instance; } function get() { if(!isset(self::$db)) self::$db = new PDO('mysql:host=127.0.0.1;dbname=toto', 'user', 'pwd') return self::$db; } } function some_function() { $db = Database::singleton(); $db->get()->query('...'); } some_function(); But I just can't understand why you need that big class when you can do it merely with: class Database { private static $db; private function __construct(){} static function get() { if(!isset(self::$rand)) self::$db = new PDO('mysql:host=127.0.0.1;dbname=toto', 'user', 'pwd'); return self::$db; } } function some_function() { Database::get()->query('...'); } some_function(); This last one works perfectly and I don't need to worry about $db anymore. But maybe I'm forgetting something. So, who's wrong, who's right?

    Read the article

  • managing classes when everything is relative to a user in nhibernate (orm)

    - by Schotime
    Firstly I have three entities. Users, Roles, Items A user can have multiple Roles. An item gets assigned to one or more roles. Therefore a user will have access to a distinct set of items. Now there is a few ways I can see this working. There is a Collection on Users which has Roles via a many-to-many assoc. Then each Role in this collection will have its own collection of Items. So for each user I would have to get the User (using nhib and fetch the roles and items with it) then either do a selectMany on the Items in each Role to get all the Items for the user or do a couple of foreach's to port the data to a view or dto model. Create a db trigger to automatically insert into another table that just has the relationship between user and items so that on my User entity I only have a Items collections which has all the items assigned to me. Some other way that i can't think of yet, because I'm new to nHibernate. Now i know that the trigger doesn't feel right but I'm not sure how to do this. We also have some hierarchy later where a user may be in charge of a group of users. If anyone could shed some light on how they go about these scenarios in nhibernate or another orm that would be great, or point be in a direction. I know that in the past you would have to enter all combinations into a table so that the query worked, but when you know sql its not too bad. If you need any other info then let me know. Cheers

    Read the article

  • Problem Routing domains subfolder

    - by hkda150
    Hi there, I'm pretty new to ASP.NET MVC and I hope it is not a too silly question. So here it comes. I have ... a ASP.NET MVC application with a domain similar to http://mydomain/mysubfoler1/myappfolder My problem... The problem for me is the routing of my application (it worked fine without using a subfolder after the domain-name). The applications homepage loads not to bad, with css files but without ressources like images (defined in css files) and without jQuery ajax calls similar to /mycontroller/myaction links are only working once (the second time I get a page similar to this link: http://mydomain/mysubfoler1/myappfolder/myController/myController/myAction) Here's my Global.asax contaning the routing: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", "{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "myController", action = "Index", id = "" } defaults ); routes.MapRoute( "Root", "", new { controller = "myController", action = "Index", id = "" } ); } protected void Application_Start() { ViewEngines.Engines.Clear(); ViewEngines.Engines.Add(new MyApplicationWeb.LocalizationWebFormViewEngine()); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); //RouteDebug.RouteDebugger.RewriteRoutesForTesting(RouteTable.Routes); } Any suggestions? My first suggestion was to use areas like: "mysubfolder1/myappfolder/{controller}/{action}/{id}" (but without any luck) Thank you very much for your help!

    Read the article

  • Where should my "filtering" logic reside with Linq-2-SQL and ASP.NET-MVC in View or Controller?

    - by Nate Bross
    I have a main Table, with several "child" tables. TableA and TableAChild1 and TableAChild2. I have a view which shows the information in TableA, and then has two columns of all items in TableAChild1 and TableAChild2 respectivly, they are rendered with Partial views. Both child tables have a bit field for VisibleToAll, and depending on user role, I'd like to either display all related rows, or related rows where VisibleToAll = true. This code, feels like it should be in the controller, but I'm not sure how it would look, because as it stands, the controller (limmited version) looks like this: return View("TableADetailView", repos.GetTableA(id)); Would something like this be even work, and would it be bad what if my DataContext gets submitted, would that delete all the rows that have VisibleToAll == false? var tblA = repos.GetTableA(id); tblA.TableAChild1 = tblA.TableAChild1.Where(tmp => tmp.VisibleToAll == true); tblA.TableAChild2 = tblA.TableAChild2.Where(tmp => tmp.VisibleToAll == true); return View("TableADetailView", tblA); It would also be simple to add that logic to the RendarPartial call from the main view: <% Html.RenderPartial("TableAChild1", Model.TableAChild1.Where(tmp => tmp.VisibleToAll == true); %>

    Read the article

  • How do i find if an object is before or after a waypoint?

    - by BoMann Andersen
    Im working on a racing game for a school project. Using Visual studio 10 pro, and Irrlicht. Sorry for bad grammar ., and its my first question so not sure if its done right. How i want it to work is that i make waypoints at different points on the track, and then i run my waypoint check to see if a car is past its next waypoint (the next it "needs" to go past), if yes then it updates the next waypoint, else nothing. The way i hope this will work is, i make a vector from n to n+1, then find the vector that is perpendicular to the first vector at n. Then i see if the object is in front or behind that vector. I found a Gamedev.net forumpost that helped me make this function: void Engine::checkWaypoint(Vehicle* vehicle) { btVector3 vector = waypoints[vehicle->nextWaypoint]; // n btVector3 nextVector = waypoints[vehicle->nextWaypoint + 1]; // n+1 vector = nextVector - vector; // First vector btVector3 pos = btVector3(vehicle->position.X,vehicle->position.Y,vehicle->position.Z); float product = vector.dot(pos - waypoints[vehicle->nextWaypoint]); // positiv = before, negative = behind if(product < 0) vehicle->nextWaypoint += 1; } Current bugs with this is: Updates the nextwaypoint more then ones without going past a new point. When it gets to the end and resets, it stops triggering on the first waypoints. So my questions: Is this an good way to do this? Did i do it right?

    Read the article

  • Passing a Variable into jQuery AJAX

    - by Scott
    I'm stuck in a rut. I hope some one can help. Basically, I am building an AJAX mobile web app with jQuery. I am able to parse a specific XML file just fine, but I want the option to parse other XML files based on the link they were clicked on and load them on the fly into the same DIV or UL. So: click on Link1, loads XML1 click on Link2, loads XML2 I would like to be able to do this all client side, so no PHP (or is that a bad idea?). This the jquery code I've been using: $(document).ready(function() { $("a.load_ajax").click(loadAjax()); function loadAjax() { var fileID = get('?lineID='); var dataID = "xml/" + fileID + ".xml" $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: dataID, dataType: "xml", success: parseXml }); function parseXml(xml) { $(xml).find("train").each(function() { $("ul#ajax-output").append('<li>' + $(this).find("time").text() + '</li>'); }); } } }); Its just not working at all. I have been passing the variable using GET in the url. So the link in the HTML goes to /?lineID=SBD_to_Union and it should load the XML file called SBD_to_Union.xml Making sense to anyone? I'd appreciate some help.

    Read the article

  • How do C++ compilers actually pass reference parameters?

    - by T.E.D.
    This question came about as a result of some mixed-langauge programming. I had a Fortran routine I wanted to call from C++ code. Fortran passes all its parameters by reference (unless you tell it otherwise). So I thought I'd be clever (bad start right there) in my C++ code and define the Fortran routine something like this: extern "C" void FORTRAN_ROUTINE (unsigned & flag); This code worked for a while but (of course right when I needed to leave) suddenly started blowing up on a return call. Clear indication of a munged call stack. Another engineer came behind me and fixed the problem, declaring that the routine had to be deinfed in C++ as extern "C" void FORTRAN_ROUTINE (unsigned * flag); I'd accept that except for two things. One is that it seems rather counter-intuitive for the compiler to not pass reference parameters by reference, and I can find no documentation anywhere that says that. The other is that he changed a whole raft of other code in there at the same time, so it theoretically could have been another change that fixed whatever the issue was. So the question is, how does C++ actually pass reference parameters? Is it perhaps free to do copy-in, copy-out for small values or something? In other words, are reference parameters utterly useless in mixed-language programming? I'd like to know so I don't make this same code-killing mistake ever again.

    Read the article

  • Is it acceptable to wrap PHP library functions solely to change the names?

    - by Carson Myers
    I'm going to be starting a fairly large PHP application this summer, on which I'll be the sole developer (so I don't have any coding conventions to conform to aside from my own). PHP 5.3 is a decent language IMO, despite the stupid namespace token. But one thing that has always bothered me about it is the standard library and its lack of a naming convention. So I'm curious, would it be seriously bad practice to wrap some of the most common standard library functions in my own functions/classes to make the names a little better? I suppose it could also add or modify some functionality in some cases, although at the moment I don't have any examples (I figure I will find ways to make them OO or make them work a little differently while I am working). If you saw a PHP developer do this, would you think "Man, this is one shoddy developer?" Additionally, I don't know much (or anything) about if/how PHP is optimized, and I know that usually PHP performace doesn't matter. But would doing something like this have a noticeable impact on the performance of my application?

    Read the article

  • .NET binary serialization conditionally without ISerializable

    - by SillyWhy
    I got 2 classes, for example: public class A { private B b; ... } public class B { ... } I need to serialize an object A using BinaryFormatter. When remoting it shall include the field b, but not when serialize to file. Here is what I added: [Serializable] public class A : MarshalByRefObject { private B b; [OnSerializing] private void OnSerializing(StreamingContext context) { if (context.State == StreamingContextStates.File) { this.b = null; } } ... } [Serializable] public class B : MarshalByRefObject { ... } I think this is a bad design because if another class C also contains B, in class C we must add the duplicate OnSerializing() logic as in A. Class B should decide what to do, not class A or C. I don't want to use ISerializable interface because there are too many variables in class B have to be added to SerializationInfo. I can create a SerializationSurrogate for class B, which perform nothing in GetObjectData() & SetObjectData(), then use it when serializing to file. However the same maintenance issue because whoever modify class B can't notice what going to happen during serialization & the existence of SerializationSurrogate. Is there a better alternative?

    Read the article

  • Which options do I have for Java process communication?

    - by Dmitriy Matveev
    We have a place in a code of such form: void processParam(Object param) { wrapperForComplexNativeObject result = jniCallWhichMayCrash(param); processResult(result); } processParam - method which is called with many different arguments. jniCallWhichMayCrash - a native method which is intended to do some complex processing of it's parameter and to create some complex object. It can crash in some cases. wrapperForComplexNativeObject - wrapper type generated by SWIG processResult - a method written in pure Java which processes it's parameter by creation of several kinds (by the kinds I'm not meaning classes, maybe some like hierarchies) of objects: 1 - Some non-unique objects which are referencing each other (from the same hierarchy), these objects can have duplicates created from the invocations of processParam() method with different parameter values. Since it's costly to keep all the duplicates it's necessary to cache them. 2 - Some unique objects which are referencing each other (from the same hierarchy) and some of the objects of 1st kind. After processParam is executed for each of the arguments from some set the data created in processResult will be processed together. The problem is in fact that jniCallWhichMayCrash method may crash the entire JVM and this will be very bad. The reason of crash may be such that it can happen for one argument value and not for the other. We've decided that it's better to ignore crashes inside of JVM and just skip some chunks of data when such crashes occur. In order to do this we should run processParam function inside of separate process and pass the result somehow (HOW? HOW?! This is a question) to the main process and in case of any crashes we will only lose some part of data (It's ok) without lose of everything else. So for now the main problem is implementation of transport between different processes. Which options do I have? I can think about serialization and transmitting of binary data by the streams, but serialization may be not very fast due to object complexity. Maybe I have some other options of implementing this?

    Read the article

  • Sub Query making Query slow.

    - by Muhammad Kashif Nadeem
    Please copy and paste following script. DECLARE @MainTable TABLE(MainTablePkId int) INSERT INTO @MainTable SELECT 1 INSERT INTO @MainTable SELECT 2 DECLARE @SomeTable TABLE(SomeIdPk int, MainTablePkId int, ViewedTime1 datetime) INSERT INTO @SomeTable SELECT 1, 1, DATEADD(dd, -10, getdate()) INSERT INTO @SomeTable SELECT 2, 1, DATEADD(dd, -9, getdate()) INSERT INTO @SomeTable SELECT 3, 2, DATEADD(dd, -6, getdate()) DECLARE @SomeTableDetail TABLE(DetailIdPk int, SomeIdPk int, Viewed INT, ViewedTimeDetail datetime) INSERT INTO @SomeTableDetail SELECT 1, 1, 1, DATEADD(dd, -7, getdate()) INSERT INTO @SomeTableDetail SELECT 2, 2, NULL, DATEADD(dd, -6, getdate()) INSERT INTO @SomeTableDetail SELECT 3, 2, 2, DATEADD(dd, -8, getdate()) INSERT INTO @SomeTableDetail SELECT 4, 3, 1, DATEADD(dd, -6, getdate()) SELECT m.MainTablePkId, (SELECT COUNT(Viewed) FROM @SomeTableDetail), (SELECT TOP 1 s2.ViewedTimeDetail FROM @SomeTableDetail s2 INNER JOIN @SomeTable s1 ON s2.SomeIdPk = s1.SomeIdPk WHERE s1.MainTablePkId = m.MainTablePkId) FROM @MainTable m Above given script is just sample. I have long list of columns in SELECT and around 12+ columns in Sub Query. In my From clause there are around 8 tables. To fetch 2000 records full query take 21 seconds and if I remove Subquiries it just take 4 seconds. I have tried to optimize query using 'Database Engine Tuning Advisor' and on adding new advised indexes and statistics but these changes make query time even bad. Note: As I have mentioned that this is test data to explain my question the real data has lot of tables joins columns but without Sub-Query the results us fine. Any help thanks.

    Read the article

  • How to make div follow scrolling smoothly with jQuery?

    - by Martti Laine
    Hello I'm creating a blog layout, which has an sidebar. In sidebar there are sections/boxes, but the last one of these boxes should follow scrolling when none of the other boxes are visible. So, when user scrolls down, he sees a normal sidebar, but when user has went down enough, sidebar ends but the last box starts to follow on the top of the screen. I have seen this a lot on different kind of sites. So hard to explain with my english. I already made it to follow screen smoothly with animate() but couldn't get it like this. Hope you understood. I already tried in Google for almost an hour but couldn't figure out any keywords (due to my bad english). EDIT: My code at the moment: $(window).scroll(function(){ $.each($('.follow-scroll'),function(){ var eloffset = $(this).offset(); var windowpos = $(window).scrollTop(); if(windowpos<eloffset.top) { var finaldestination = 0; } else { var finaldestination = windowpos; } $(this).stop().animate({'top':finaldestination},200); }); });

    Read the article

  • How to pass a parameter in a Javascript confirm function?

    - by Miles M.
    I have something like that in my code: <?php foreach($clients as $client): ?> <tr class="tableContent"> <td onclick="location.href='<?php echo site_url('clients/edit/'.$client->id ) ?>'"><?php echo $client->id ?></td> <td><a class='Right btn btn-danger' onClick="ConfirmMessage('client', <?php $client->id ?>,'clients')"> <i class="icon-remove-sign icon-white"></i> </a></td> </tr> <?php endforeach ?> that's actually the view. So when the user click on the delete button (thr one with the btn-danger class) I'd like him to confirm his choice with a javascript confirmation box message. You can find that script in the header <script> function ConfirmMessage(type, id, types) { if (confirm("Are you sure you want to delete this ",type," ?")) { // Clic sur OK document.location.href='<?php echo site_url(); ?>',types,'/delete/',id; } } </script> So here is my question: I would like the $type to be replaced by a paramenter (like client, article, post .. ) that I'll pass to the function. And i would like to get the $client-id parameter as well. I'm bad in javascript and as you already have guess, It is obviously not working at all.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 330 331 332 333 334 335 336 337 338 339 340 341  | Next Page >