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  • How find all overlapping circles from radius of central circle?

    - by roza
    How to do an intersection or overlap query in mongo shell - what circles overlap my search region? Within relate only to the center position but doesn't include radius of the other circles in searched scope. Mongo: # My bad conception: var search = [[30, 30], 10] db.places.find({circle : {"$within" : {"$center" : [search]}}}) Now I can obtain only this circles within central point lies in searched area of circle: Ruby: # field :circle, type: Circle # eg. [ [ 30, 30 ], 10 ] field :radius, type: Integer field :location, :type => Array, :spatial => true spatial_index :location Places.within_circle(location: [ [ 30, 30 ], 10 ]) # {"$query"=>{"location"=>{"$within"=>{"$center"=>[[30, 30], 10]}}} I created example data with additional location (special index) and radius instead circle because circle isn't supported by mongodb geo index: { "_id" : 1, "name" : "a", "circle" : [ [ 5, 5 ], 40 ], "latlng" : [ 5, 5 ], "radius" : 40 } { "_id" : 2, "name" : "b", "circle" : [ [ 10, 10 ], 5 ], "latlng" : [ 10, 10 ], "radius" : 5 } { "_id" : 3, "name" : "c", "circle" : [ [ 20, 20 ], 5 ], "latlng" : [ 20, 20 ], "radius" : 5 } { "_id" : 4, "name" : "d", "circle" : [ [ 30, 30 ], 50 ], "latlng" : [ 30, 30 ], "radius" : 50} { "_id" : 5, "name" : "e", "circle" : [ [ 80, 80 ], 30 ], "latlng" : [ 80, 80 ], "radius" : 30} { "_id" : 6, "name" : "f", "circle" : [ [ 80, 80 ], 20 ], "latlng" : [ 80, 80 ], "radius" : 20} Desired query result: { "_id" : 1, "name" : "a", "circle" : [ [ 5, 5 ], 40 ], "latlng" : [ 5, 5 ], "radius" : 40 } { "_id" : 3, "name" : "c", "circle" : [ [ 20, 20 ], 5 ], "latlng" : [ 20, 20 ], "radius" : 5 } { "_id" : 4, "name" : "d", "circle" : [ [ 30, 30 ], 50 ], "latlng" : [ 30, 30 ], "radius" : 50} { "_id" : 5, "name" : "e", "circle" : [ [ 80, 80 ], 30 ], "latlng" : [ 80, 80 ], "radius" : 30} Solution below assumes that I get all rows and then filter on the ruby side my radius but it returns only: { "_id" : 4, "name" : "d", "circle" : [ [ 30, 30 ], 50 ], "latlng" : [ 30, 30 ], "radius" : 50}

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  • C++: inheritance problem

    - by Helltone
    It's quite hard to explain what I'm trying to do, I'll try: Imagine a base class A which contains some variables, and a set of classes deriving from A which all implement some method bool test() that operates on the variables inherited from A. class A { protected: int somevar; // ... }; class B : public A { public: bool test() { return (somevar == 42); } }; class C : public A { public: bool test() { return (somevar > 23); } }; // ... more classes deriving from A Now I have an instance of class A and I have set the value of somevar. int main(int, char* []) { A a; a.somevar = 42; Now, I need some kind of container that allows me to iterate over the elements i of this container, calling i::test() in the context of a... that is: std::vector<...> vec; // push B and C into vec, this is pseudo-code vec.push_back(&B); vec.push_back(&C); bool ret = true; for(i = vec.begin(); i != vec.end(); ++i) { // call B::test(), C::test(), setting *this to a ret &= ( a .* (&(*i)::test) )(); } return ret; } How can I do this? I've tried two methods: forcing a cast from B::* to A::*, adapting a pointer to call a method of a type on an object of a different type (works, but seems to be bad); using std::bind + the solution above, ugly hack; changing the signature of bool test() so that it takes an argument of type const A& instead of inheriting from A, I don't really like this solution because somevar must be public.

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  • How to write curiously recurring templates with more than 2 layers of inheritance?

    - by Kyle
    All the material I've read on Curiously Recurring Template Pattern seems to one layer of inheritance, ie Base and Derived : Base<Derived>. What if I want to take it one step further? #include <iostream> using std::cout; template<typename LowestDerivedClass> class A { public: LowestDerivedClass& get() { return *static_cast<LowestDerivedClass*>(this); } void print() { cout << "A\n"; } }; template<typename LowestDerivedClass> class B : public A<LowestDerivedClass> { public: void print() { cout << "B\n"; } }; class C : public B<C> { public: void print() { cout << "C\n"; } }; int main() { C c; c.get().print(); // B b; // Intentionally bad syntax, // b.get().print(); // to demonstrate what I'm trying to accomplish return 0; } How can I rewrite this code to compile without errors (and output "C\nB\n")?

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  • Running an application from an USB device...

    - by Workshop Alex
    I'm working on a proof-of-concept application, containing a WCF service with console host and client, both on a single USB device. On the same device I will also have the client application which will connect to this service. The service uses the entity framework to connect to the database, which in this POC will just return a list of names. If it works, it will be used for a larger project. Creating the client and service was easy and this works well from USB. But getting the service to connect to the database isn't. I've found this site, suggesting that I should modify machine.config but that stops the XCopy deployment. This project cannot change any setting of the PC, so this suggestion is bad. I cannot create a deployment setup either. The whole thing just needs to run from USB disk. So, how do I get it to run? (The service just selects a list of names from the database, which it returns to the client. If this POC works, it will do far more complex things!)

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  • Need help/guidance about creating a desktop application with gui

    - by Somebody still uses you MS-DOS
    I'm planning to do an Desktop application using Python, to learn some Desktop concepts. I'm going to use GTK or Qt, I still haven't decided which one. Fact is: I would like to create an application with the possibility to be called from command line, AND using a GUI. So it would be useful for cmd fans, and GUI users as well. It would be interesting to create a web interface too in the future, so it could be run in a server somewhere using an html interface created with a template language. I'm thinking about two approaches: - Creating a "model" with a simple interface which is called from a desktop/web implementation; - Creating a "model" with an html interface, and embeb a browser component so I could reuse all the code in both desktop/web scenarios. My question is: which exactly concepts are involved in this project? What advantages/disadvantages each approach has? Are they possible? By naming "interface", I'm planning to just do some interfaces.py files with def calls. Is this a bad approach? I would like to know some book recommendations, or resources to both options - or source code from projects which share the same GUI/cmd/web goals I'm after. Thanks in advance!

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  • Mixing stored procedures and ORM

    - by Jason
    The company I work for develops a large application which is almost entirely based on stored procedures. We use classic ASP and SQL Server and the major part of the business logic is contained inside those stored procedures. For example, (I know, this is bad...) a single stored procedure can be used for different purposes (insert, update, delete, make some calculations, ...). Most of the time, a stored procedure is used for operations on related tables, but this is not always the case. We are planning to move to ASP.NET in a near future. I have read a lot of posts on StackOverflow recommending that I move the business logic outside the database. The thing is, I have tried to convince the people who takes the decisions at our company and there is nothing I can do to change their mind. Since I want to be able to use the advantages of object-oriented programming, I want to map the tables to actual classes. So far, my solution is to use an ORM (Entity Framework 4 or nHibernate) to avoid mapping the objects manually (mostly to retrieve the data) and use some kind of Data Access Layer to call the existing stored procedures (for saving). I want your advice on this. Do you think it is a good solution? Any ideas?

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  • R Random Data Sets within loops

    - by jugossery
    Here is what I want to do: I have a time series data frame with let us say 100 time-series of length 600 - each in one column of the data frame. I want to pick up 4 of the time-series randomly and then assign them random weights that sum up to one (ie 0.1, 0.5, 0.3, 0.1). Using those I want to compute the mean of the sum of the 4 weighted time series variables (e.g. convex combination). I want to do this let us say 100k times and store each result in the form ts1.name, ts2.name, ts3.name, ts4.name, weight1, weight2, weight3, weight4, mean so that I get a 9*100k df. I tried some things already but R is very bad with loops and I know vector oriented solutions are better because of R design. Thanks Here is what I did and I know it is horrible The df is in the form v1,v2,v2.....v100 1,5,6,.......9 2,4,6,.......10 3,5,8,.......6 2,2,8,.......2 etc e=NULL for (x in 1:100000) { s=sample(1:100,4)#pick 4 variables randomly a=sample(seq(0,1,0.01),1) b=sample(seq(0,1-a,0.01),1) c=sample(seq(0,(1-a-b),0.01),1) d=1-a-b-c e=c(a,b,c,d)#4 random weights average=mean(timeseries.df[,s]%*%t(e)) e=rbind(e,s,average)#in the end i get the 9*100k df } The procedure runs way to slow. EDIT: Thanks for the help i had,i am not used to think R and i am not very used to translate every problem into a matrix algebra equation which is what you need in R. Then the problem becomes a little bit complex if i want to calculate the standard deviation. i need the covariance matrix and i am not sure i can if/how i can pick random elements for each sample from the original timeseries.df covariance matrix then compute the sample variance (t(sampleweights)%*%sample_cov.mat%*%sampleweights) to get in the end the ts.weighted_standard_dev matrix Last question what is the best way to proceed if i want to bootstrap the original df x times and then apply the same computations to test the robustness of my datas thanks

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  • Is there a way to deserialize an object into "$this"?

    - by Andreas Bonini
    I'm writing a class to handle a memcached object. The idea was to create abstract class Cachable and all the cachable objects (such as User, Post, etc) would be subclasses of said class. The class offers some method such as Load() which calls the abstract function LoadFromDB() if the object is not cached, functions to refresh/invalidate the cache, etc. The main problem is in Load(); I wanted to do something similar: protected function Load($id) { $this->memcacheId = $id; $this->Connect(); $cached = $this->memcache->get(get_class($this) . ':' . $id); if($cached === false) { $this->SetLoaded(LoadFromDB($id)); UpdateCache(); } else { $this = $cached; $this->SetLoaded(true); } } Unfortunately I need $this to become $cached (the cached object); is there any way to do that? Was the "every cachable object derives from the cachable class" a bad design idea?

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  • Kohana 3, problem with m2m data adding

    - by Marek
    Hello I posted this on official forum but with no result. I am getting :Undefined index: enrollment error when trying to save data. My pivot model: class Model_Enrollment extends ORM { protected $_belongs_to = array('page' => array(), 'menugroup' => array()); } Model_Page protected $_has_many = array('templates' => array(), 'menugroups' => array('through' => 'enrollment')); Model_Menugroup protected $_has_many = array('menuitems' => array(), 'pages' => array('through' => 'enrollment')); //Overriden save() method in Model_Menugroup: public function save() { if (empty($this->created)) { $this->created = time(); } parent::save(); $this->reload(); if (! $this->is_global) { if (! empty($this->groupOwnerPagesId) { $page = ORM::factory('page'); foreach($this->groupOwnerPagesId as $id) { $this->add('enrollment', $page->find($id)); } } } } I did: I corrected table names in pivot model by changing them to singular I even now using the same name for pivot table / model = enrollment. The same as in tutorial. Just in case So the pivot table has name 'enrollment' and has 2 columns: page_id , menugroup_id I tried to add pk in pivot table, but it changed nothing I tried to add/remove db relation between pages/menugroups and pivot table (InnoDB) but with no luck I tried save all data in controller, but with the same bad result:( I am still getting the same error: Undefined index: enrollment in ORM line: $columns = array($this-_has_many[$alias]['foreign_key'], $this-_has_many[$alias]['far_key']); Could somebody tell me, what can be else wrong? I have no other ideas:( Kind regards

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  • ASP.NET MVC3 ValueProvider drops string input to a double property

    - by Daniel Koverman
    I'm attempting to validate the input of a text box which corresponds to a property of type double in my model. If the user inputs "foo" I want to know about it so I can display an error. However, the ValueProvider is dropping the value silently (no errors are added to the ModelState). In a normal submission, I fill in "2" for the text box corresponding to myDouble and submit the form. Inspecting controllerContext.HttpContext.Request.Form shows that myDouble=2, among other correct inputs. bindingContext.ValueProvider.GetValue("myDouble") == 2, as expected. The bindingContext.ModelState.Count == 6 and bindingContext.ModelState["myDouble"].Errors.Count == 0. Everything is good and the model binds as expected. Then I fill in "foo" for the text box corresponding to myDouble and submitted the form. Inspecting controllerContext.HttpContext.Request.Form shows that myDouble=foo, which is what I expected. However, bindingContext.ValueProvider.GetValue("myDouble") == null and bindingContext.ModelState.Count == 5 (The exact number isn't important, but it's one less than before). Looking at the ValueProvider, is as if myDouble was never submitted and the model binding occurs as if it wasn't. This makes it difficult to differentiate between a bad input and no input. Is this the expected behavior of ValueProvider? Is there a way to get ValueProvider to report when conversion fails without implementing a custom ValueProvider? Thanks!

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  • selenium and firefox timeout behavior

    - by Md. Reazul Karim
    I am facing this strange timeout behavior. I tried to load some page using: WebDriver drv = new FirefoxDriver(); drv.manage().timeouts().implicitlyWait(10, TimeUnit.SECONDS); drv.get(url); String email = ""; try { WebElement aElem = Util.safeFindElementByXpath(drv, "//p[1]/a[1]"); if (aElem != null) { email = aElem.getAttribute("href"); } } catch (Exception e) { } drv.quit(); return email; The safeFindElementByXpath is: static WebElement safeFindElementByXpath(WebDriver driver, String xpath) { try { return driver.findElement(By.xpath(xpath)); } catch (NoSuchElementException e) { return null; } } Now I set the firefox network.http.connection-timeout and network.http.connection-retry-timeout both to 10. Now if I restart the firefox I can see the new values. But if I try to run the above code - the firefox window opens and it waits for a particular website for a long time. Hence I open another tab in the same firefox window and check the values of timeout and find them to be 90 and 250. If I change the values on that same window, the selenium code immediately finishes requesting for the page (ie it goes after the exception block). So the thing is that the same code will work on many sites and I don't know beforehand which site is invalid/down and I was thinking of putting this code in a separate thread and kill the thread after some time from the calling thread. But that is not possible I guess because the child thread has no way to poll anything as it is stuck at page request and can't go to the polling code afterwards. Now the thing is that I want any kind of hack/workaround to accomplish this: try getting the emails for good sites and if there are bad sites just give up after a certain period (press the panic button sorta thing). Thanks

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  • Error in Android's clearCheck() for RadioGroup?

    - by Manuel R. Ciosici
    I'm having an issue with RadioGroup's clearChecked(). I'm displaying a multiple choice question to the user and after the user selects an answer I check the answer, give him some feedback and then move to the next question. In the process of moving to the next question I clearCheck on the RadioGroup. Can anyone explain to me why the onCheckedChanged method is called 3 times? Once when the change actually occurs (with the user changes), once when I clearCheck(with -1 as the selected id) and once in between (with the user changes again)? As far as I could tell the second trigger is provoked by clearCheck. Code below: private void checkAnswer(RadioGroup group, int checkedId){ // this makes sure it doesn't blow up when the check is cleared // also we don't check the answer when there is no answer if (checkedId == -1) return; if (group.getCheckedRadioButtonId() == -1) return; // check if correct answer if (checkedId == validAnswerId){ score++; this.giveFeedBack(feedBackType.GOOD); } else { this.giveFeedBack(feedBackType.BAD); } // allow for user to see feedback and move to next question h.postDelayed(this, 800); } private void changeToQuestion(int questionNumber){ if (questionNumber >= this.questionSet.size()){ // means we are past the question set // we're going to the score activity this.goToScoreActivity(); return; } //clearing the check gr.clearCheck(); // give change the feedback back to question imgFeedback.setImageResource(R.drawable.question_mark); //OTHER CODE HERE } and the run method looks like this public void run() { questionNumber++; changeToQuestion(questionNumber); }

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  • Windows Service Start-Up Error 1069

    - by Gavin
    Hello, I am installing a new windows service coded in C# on a server. I installed the service fine on the server, but once i manually start up the service on a server, with the same login credentials that our other services use, i get the fatal error message notification: "Could not start the %service name% on Local Computer. Error 1069: The Service did not start due to a logon failure." I looked in the event log and i got a 7038 and 7000 event id error in that order. 7038 event id message: "The %service name% service was unable to log on as %login% with the currently configured password due to the following error: Logon failure: unknown user name or bad password. To ensure that the service is configured properly, use the Services snap-in in Microsoft Management Console (MMC)." 7000 event id message: "The %service name% service failed to start due to the following error: The service did not start due to a logon failure. " I have other services that are using the same exact login account and they work fine. Is there something simple I could be missing? Thanks

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  • Doing some downloading without blocking you app

    - by Code
    Hi guys, I'm working on my first app that's doing a few different web connections at once. My first screen is my Menu. And at the bottom of viewDidLoad of MenuViewController i call a method that gets and parses a .xml file that is located on my webserver. Also at the bottom of viewDidLoad i do FootballScores = [[FootBallScores alloc] init]; and FootballScores makes a connection to a html page which it loads into a string and then parses out data. Now since both of these are getting called at the bottom of viewDidLoad of the class thats is responsible for the main menu(first screen in the app) it means the app is kinda slow to load. What is the right way to do the above? Should i remove the 2 pieces of code from my viewDidLoad and replace with maybe dataGetterOne = [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:1.000 target:self selector:@selector(xmlParser) userInfo:nil repeats:NO]; dataGetterTwo = [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:2.000 target:self selector:@selector(htmlParser) userInfo:nil repeats:NO]; This would mean that the methods get called later on and the viewDidLoad gets to finish before the i try get the data from the web servers. Making 2 connections to we bservers a second apart to quick? Can the iphone handle having 2 connections open at once? I'm really unsure of anything bad/dangerous I am doing in regards to connections. Many Thanks -Code

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  • Jquery conditionals, window locations, and viewdata. Oh my!

    - by John Stuart
    I have one last thing left on a project and its a doozy. Not only is this my first web application, but its the first app i used Jquery, CSS and MVC. I have no idea on how to proceed with this. What i am trying to do is: In my controller, a waste item is validated, and based on the results one of these things can happen. The validation is completed, nothing bad happens, which sets ViewData["FailedWasteId"] to -9999. Its a new waste item and the validation did not pass, which sets ViewData["FailedWasteId"] to 0. Its an existing waste item and the validation did not pass, which sets ViewData["FailedWasteId"] to the id of the waste item. This ViewData["FailedWasteId"] is set on page load using <%=Html.Hidden("wFailId", int.Parse(ViewData["WasteFailID"].ToString()))%> When the validations do not pass, then the page zooms (by window.location) to an invisible div, opens the invisible div etc. Hopefully my intentions are clear with this poor attempt at jquery. The new waste div is and the existing item divs are dynamically generated (this i know works) " So my question here is... Help? I cant even get the data to parse correctly, nor can i even get the conditionals to work. And since this happens after post, i cant get firebug to help my step through the debugger, as the script isnt loaded yet. $(document).ready(function () { var wasteId = parseInt($('#wFailId').text()); if (wasteId == -9999) { //No Issue } else if (wasteId < 0) { //Waste not saved to database } else if (wasteId == 0) { //New Waste window.location = '#0'; $('.editPanel').hide(); $('#GeneratedWasteGrid:first').before(newRow); $('.editPanel').appendTo('#edit-panel-row').slideDown('slow'); } else if (wasteId > 0) { //Waste saved to database } });

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  • Why can't I pass a form field of type file to a CFFUNCTION using structure syntax?

    - by Eric Belair
    I'm trying to pass a form field of type "file" to a CFFUNCTION. The argument type is "any". Here is the syntax I am trying to use (pseudocode): <cfloop from="1" to="5" index="i"> <cfset fieldname = "attachment" & i /> <cfinvoke component="myComponent" method="attachFile"> <cfinvokeargument name="attachment" value="#FORM[fieldname]#" /> </cfinvoke> </cfloop> The loop is being done because there are five form fields named "attachment1", "attachment2", et al. This throws an exception in the function: coldfusion.tagext.io.FileTag$FormFileNotFoundException: The form field C:\ColdFusion8\...\neotmp25080.tmp did not contain a file. However, this syntax DOES work: <cfloop from="1" to="5" index="i"> <cfinvoke component="myComponent" method="attachFile"> <cfinvokeargument name="attachment" value="FORM.attachment#i#" /> </cfinvoke> </cfloop> I don't like writing code like that in the second example. It just seems like bad practice to me. So, can anyone tell me how to use structure syntax to properly pass a file type form field to a CFFUNCTION??

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  • What is the strangest programming language you have used?

    - by Anders Sandvig
    For me I think it has to be the scripting language of an old proprietary telephony platform I used in the early 2000s. The language itself was not so bad, but the fact that it was meant to be edited with a drag-and-drop GUI, which did not expose all the functionality I needed, was quite frustrating. I also remember having to manually implement many common functions, such as calculating the length of a string. Whenever I wanted to use "custom" or "advanced" functions, I had to edit the script files in a text editor, but as soon as I opened the files in the GUI again they were reformatted and restructured, which usually resulted in broken code. And, of course, this was an interpreted language, so I would not know it was broken until I actually ran it—oh, and did I mention that it did not run the same in the simulator as in the live environment? So, what is the strangest programming language or environment you have used, and why did you use it? Note that I'm interested in languages and environments that you have actually used for "real-world" situations, so Whitespace, Brainf***k and friends are not valid—unless you have used them for something "real", of course.

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  • Creating UIButtons

    - by Ralphonzo
    During loadView I am creating 20 UIButtons that I would like to change the title text of depending on the state of a UIPageControl. I have a pre-save plist that is loaded into a NSArray called arrChars on the event of the current page changing, I set the buttons titles to their relevant text title from the array. The code that does this is: for (int i = 1; i < (ButtonsPerPage + 1); i++) { UIButton *uButton = (UIButton *)[self.view viewWithTag:i]; if(iPage == 1) { iArrPos = (i - 1); } else { iArrPos = (iPage * ButtonsPerPage) + (i - 1); } [uButton setAlpha:0]; NSLog(@"Trying: %d of %d", iArrPos, [self.arrChars count]); if (iArrPos >= [self.arrChars count]) { [uButton setTitle: @"" forState: UIControlStateNormal]; } else { NSString *value = [[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:@"%@", [self.arrChars objectAtIndex:iArrPos]]; NSLog(@"%@", value); [uButton setTitle: [[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@", value] forState: UIControlStateNormal]; [value release]; //////Have tried: //////[uButton setTitle: value forState: UIControlStateNormal]; //////Have also tried: //////[uButton setTitle: [self.arrChars objectAtIndex:iArrPos] forState: UIControlStateNormal]; //////Have also also tried: //////[uButton setTitle: [[self.arrChars objectAtIndex:iArrPos] autorelease] forState: UIControlStateNormal]; } [uButton setAlpha:1]; } When setting the Title of a button it does not appear to be autoreleasing the previous title and the allocation goes up and up. What am I doing wrong? I have been told before that tracking things by allocations is a bad way to chase leaks because as far as I can see, the object is not leaking in Instruments but my total living allocations continue to climb until I get a memory warning. If there is a better way to track there I would love to know.

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  • Is it possible to cache all the data in a SQL Server CE database using LinqToSql?

    - by DanM
    I'm using LinqToSql to query a small, simple SQL Server CE database. I've noticed that any operations involving sub-properties are disappointingly slow. For example, if I have a Customer table that is referenced by an Order table, LinqToSql will automatically create an EntitySet<Order> property. This is a nice convenience, allowing me to do things like Customer.Order.Where(o => o.ProductName = "Stopwatch"), but for some reason, SQL Server CE hangs up pretty bad when I try to do stuff like this. One of my queries, which isn't really that complicated takes 3-4 seconds to complete. I can get the speed up to acceptable, even fast, if I just grab the two tables individually and convert them to List<Customer> and List<Order>, then join then manually with my own query, but this is throwing out a lot of what makes LinqToSql so appealing. So, I'm wondering if I can somehow get the whole database into RAM and just query that way, then occasionally save it. Is this possible? How? If not, is there anything else I can do to boost the performance besides resorting to doing all the joins manually? Note: My database in its initial state is about 250K and I don't expect it to grow to more than 1-2Mb. So, loading the data into RAM certainly wouldn't be a problem from a memory point of view. Update Here are the table definitions for the example I used in my question: create table Order ( Id int identity(1, 1) primary key, ProductName ntext null ) create table Customer ( Id int identity(1, 1) primary key, OrderId int null references Order (Id) )

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  • Casting pointer to object to void * in C++

    - by JB
    I've been reading StackOverflow too much and started doubting all the code I've ever written, I keep thinking "Is that undefined behavour?" even in code that has been working for ages. So my question - Is it safe and well defined behavour to cast a pointer to an object (In this case abstract interface classes) to a void* and then later on cast them back to the original class and call method using them? I'm fully aware that the code that does this is probably awful. I wouldn't even consider writing it like this now (this is old code which I don't really want to change), so I'm not looking for a discussion of better ways to do this. I already know how to write it better if I ever did this again. But if it's actually broken to rely on this in C++ then I'll have to look at changing the code, if it's merely awful code then changing it won't be a priority. I would have had no doubts about something this simple a year or two ago but as my understanding of C++ increases I actually find I have more and more worries about code being safe under the standards even if it works perfectly well. Perhaps reading too much stack overflow is a bad thing for productivity sometimes :P

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  • Shared Git repo syncing to svn causing git svn rebase to pollute repo with a log of no-op merge prob

    - by John K
    This wasn't so bad at the beginning, but now I have hundreds of no-op merge problems (solved by git rebase --skip). I have setup a shared git repo for my group because it is easier to deal with. But the company uses SVN so I have to keep SVN in sync with GIT. Worked like a dream at first, but after weeks of doing this GIT is giving me a lot of the following errors. Applying: * making all config actions work Using index info to reconstruct a base tree... Falling back to patching base and 3-way merge... Auto-merging app/controllers/vulnerabilities_controller.rb CONFLICT (content): Merge conflict in app/controllers/vulnerabilities_controller.rb Auto-merging public/javascripts/network_analysis_vulnerability_config.js CONFLICT (content): Merge conflict in public/javascripts/network_analysis_vulnerability_config.js Failed to merge in the changes. Patch failed at 0046 * making all config actions work My workflow: git co master git pull origin git svn rebase ... deal with no-op merge problems ... git svn dcommit git pull origin git push origin The problem is that what is in SVN is the correct so I use git rebase --skip, but I have to do that hundreds of times before I can dcommit. How do I clear these merge problems permanently?

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  • C++ private inheritance and static members/types

    - by WearyMonkey
    I am trying to stop a class from being able to convert its 'this' pointer into a pointer of one of its interfaces. I do this by using private inheritance via a middle proxy class. The problem is that I find private inheritance makes all public static members and types of the base class inaccessible to all classes under the inheriting class in the hierarchy. class Base { public: enum Enum { value }; }; class Middle : private Base { }; class Child : public Middle { public: void Method() { Base::Enum e = Base::value; // doesn't compile BAD! Base* base = this; // doesn't compile GOOD! } }; I've tried this in both VS2008 (the required version) and VS2010, neither work. Can anyone think of a workaround? Or a different approach to stopping the conversion? Also I am curios of the behavior, is it just a side effect of the compiler implementation, or is it by design? If by design, then why? I always thought of private inheritance to mean that nobody knows Middle inherits from Base. However, the exhibited behavior implies private inheritance means a lot more than that, in-fact Child has less access to Base than any namespace not in the class hierarchy!

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  • LINQ - Splitting up a string with maximum length, but not chopping words apart.

    - by Stacey
    I have a simple LINQ Extension Method... public static IEnumerable<string> SplitOnLength(this string input, int length) { int index = 0; while (index < input.Length) { if (index + length < input.Length) yield return input.Substring(index, length); else yield return input.Substring(index); index += length; } } This takes a string, and it chops it up into a collection of strings that do not exceed the given length. This works well - however I'd like to go further. It chops words in half. I don't need it to understand anything complicated, I just want it to be able to chop a string off 'early' if cutting it at the length would be cutting in the middle of text (basically anything that isn't whitespace). However I suck at LINQ, so I was wondering if anyone had an idea on how to go about this. I know what I am trying to do, but I'm not sure how to approach it. So let's say I have the following text. This is a sample block of text that I would pass through the string splitter. I call this method SplitOnLength(6) I would get the following. This i s a sa mple b lock o f text that I would pass t hrough the s tring splitt er. I would rather it be smart enough to stop and look more like .. This is a sample // bad example, since the single word exceeds maximum length, but the length would be larger numbers in real scenarios, closer to 200. Can anyone help me?

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  • Parallelizing L2S Entity Retrieval

    - by MarkB
    Assuming a typical domain entity approach with SQL Server and a dbml/L2S DAL with a logic layer on top of that: In situations where lazy loading is not an option, I have settled on a convention where getting a list of entities does not also get each item's child entities (no loading), but getting a single entity does (eager loading). Since getting a single entity also gets children, it causes a cascading effect in which each child then gets its children too. This sounds bad, but as long as the model is not too deep, I usually don't see performance problems that outweigh the benefits of the ease of use. So if I want to get a list in which each of the items is fully hydrated with children, I combine the GetList and GetItem methods. So I'll get a list and then loop through it getting each item with the full cascade. Even this is generally acceptable in many of the projects I've worked on - but I have recently encountered situations with larger models and/or more data in which it needs to be more efficient. I've found that partitioning the loop and executing it on multiple threads yields excellent results. In my first experiment with a list of 50 items from one particular project, I did 5 threads of 10 items each and got a 3X improvement in time. Of course, the mileage will vary depending on the project but all else being equal this is clearly a big opportunity. However, before I go further, I was wondering what others have done that have already been through this. What are some good approaches to parallelizing this type of thing?

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  • Aliasing `T*` with `char*` is allowed. Is it also allowed the other way around?

    - by StackedCrooked
    Note: This question has been renamed and reduced to make it more focused and readable. Most of the comments refer to the old text. According to the standard objects of different type may not share the same memory location. So this would not be legal: int i = 0; short * s = reinterpret_cast<short*>(&i); // BAD! The standard however allows an exception to this rule: any object may be accessed through a pointer to char or unsigned char: int i = 0; char * c = reinterpret_cast<char*>(&i); // OK However, it is not clear to me if this is also allowed the other way around. For example: char * c = read_socket(...); unsigned * u = reinterpret_cast<unsigned*>(c); // huh? Summary of the answers The answer is NO for two reasons: You an only access an existing object as char*. There is no object in my sample code, only a byte buffer. The pointer address may not have the right alignment for the target object. In that case dereferencing it would result in undefined behavior. On the Intel and AMD platforms it will result performance overhead. On ARM it will trigger a CPU trap and your program will be terminated! This is a simplified explanation. For more detailed information see answers by @Luc Danton, @Cheers and hth. - Alf and @David Rodríguez.

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