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  • How do you populate a UIImage view with ASIHTTPRequest given @2x?

    - by Jonathan Page
    I've been trying to load images from a url using ASIHTTPRequest but I always come up with a blank UIImage. I think it might have something to do with iOS automatically choosing the @2x named version of images or vica versa. [ASIHTTPRequest setDefaultCache:[ASIDownloadCache sharedCache]]; NSString *url_string = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"http://173.246.100.185/%@", [eventDictionary objectForKey:kEventDescriptionImageURLKey]]; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:url_string]; __block ASIHTTPRequest *request = [ASIHTTPRequest requestWithURL:url]; [request setDownloadCache:[ASIDownloadCache sharedCache]]; [request setCachePolicy:ASIAskServerIfModifiedCachePolicy|ASIFallbackToCacheIfLoadFailsCachePolicy]; [request setCacheStoragePolicy:ASICachePermanentlyCacheStoragePolicy]; [request setSecondsToCache:86400]; [request setDelegate:self]; [request setCompletionBlock:^{ NSLog(@"Successful Update"); [self makeAssignment]; }]; [request setFailedBlock:^{ NSError *error = [request error]; NSLog(@"%@", [error localizedDescription]); UIAlertView *alert = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Update Failed" message:[error localizedDescription] delegate:nil cancelButtonTitle:@"OK" otherButtonTitles:nil]; [alert show]; [alert release]; }]; [request startAsynchronous]; NSLog(@"%@", url_string); The makeAssignment method is below. NSString *url_string = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"http://173.246.100.185/%@", [eventDictionary objectForKey:kEventDescriptionImageURLKey]]; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:url_string]; downloadedImage = [[UIImage alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:[[ASIDownloadCache sharedCache] pathToCachedResponseDataForURL:url]]; NSLog(@"%@", downloadedImage); NSLog(@"%@", [[ASIDownloadCache sharedCache] pathToCachedResponseDataForURL:url]); Nothing I do, including naming images @2x on the server or providing both versions, gets it to load. Any ideas? Has anyone done this before? When I load them locally (from within the package) I don't have any issues. Thanks!

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  • Opa app does not load in Internet Explorer when compiled with Opa 1.1.1

    - by Marcin Skórzewski
    I did a minor update to the already working application and then had problems using new version of Opa compiler. First problem - runtime exception Since the original deployment Opa 1.1.1 has been released and it resulted in error: events.js:72 throw er; // Unhandled 'error' event ^ Error: listen EADDRINUSE at errnoException (net.js:901:11) at Server._listen2 (net.js:1039:14) at listen (net.js:1061:10) at Server.listen (net.js:1127:5) at global.BslNet_Http_server_init_server (/opt/mlstate/lib/opa/stdlib/server.opp/serverNodeJsPackage.js:223:1405) at global.BslNet_Http_server_init_server_cps (/opt/mlstate/lib/opa/stdlib/server.opp/serverNodeJsPackage.js:226:15) at __v1_bslnet_http_server_init_server_cps_b970f080 (/opt/mlstate/lib/opa/stdlib/stdlib.qmljs/stdlib.core.web.server.opx/main.js:1:175) at /opt/mlstate/lib/opa/stdlib/stdlib.qmljs/stdlib.core.web.server.opx/main.js:440:106 at global.execute_ (/opt/mlstate/lib/opa/static/opa-js-runtime-cps/main.js:19:49) at /opt/mlstate/lib/opa/static/opa-js-runtime-cps/main.js:17:78 I decided to build Opa from sources and it helped, but another problem occurred :( Second problem - stops to support the IE Application stopped to work in Internet Explorer. I tried two different machines (Windows XP and 7) with IE 8 and 10. Web page does not load at all (looks like the network problem, but the same URL works fine in Firefox). I confirmed the same problem with "Hello world" from the Opa tutorial compiled with both Opa stable 1.1.1 and build from sources. I suspected that the problem is due to Node.js update (Opa = 1.1.1 requires Node 0.10.* - now I am using 0.10.12, but I also tried other 0.10-s), but "Hello world" from the Node's from page works fine. I am running the app on OSX developer box and Linux Debian 7.0 server. Any suggestions what am I doing wrong? PS. I was off the business for a while. Anyone knows what happened to the Opa forum? Signing is seams not to work.

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  • Get the equivalent time between "dynamic" time zones

    - by doctore
    I have a table providers that has three columns (containing more columns but not important in this case): starttime, start time in which you can contact him. endtime, final hour in which you can contact him. region_id, region where the provider resides. In USA: California, Texas, etc. In UK: England, Scotland, etc starttime and endtime are time without timezone columns, but, "indirectly", their value has time zone of the region in which the provider resides. For example: starttime | endtime | region_id (time zone of region) | "real" st | "real" et ----------|----------|---------------------------------|-----------|----------- 03:00:00 | 17:00:00 | 1 (EGT => -1) | 02:00:00 | 16:00:00 Often I need to get the list of suppliers whose time range is within the current server time (taking into account the time zone conversion). The problem is that the time zones aren't "constant", ie, they may change during the summer time. However, this change is very specific to the region and not always carried out at the same time: EGT <= EGST, ART <= ARST, etc. The question is: 1. Is it necessary to use a webservice to update every so often the time zones in the regions? Does anyone know of a web service that can serve? 2. Is there a better approach to solve this problem? Thanks in advance. UPDATE I will give an example to clarify what I'm trying to get. In the table providers I found this records: idproviders | starttime | endtime | region_id ------------|-----------|----------|----------- 1 | 03:00:00 | 17:00:00 | 23 (Texas) 2 | 04:00:00 | 18:00:00 | 23 (Texas) If I execute the query in January, with this information: Server time (UTC offset) = 0 hours Texas providers (UTC offset) = +1 hour Server time = 02:00:00 I should get the following results: idproviders = 1 If I execute the query in June, with this information: Server time (UTC offset) = 0 hours Texas providers (UTC offset) = +2 hours (their local time has not changed, but their time zone has changed) Server time = 02:00:00 I should get the following results: idproviders = 1 and 2

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  • Good strategy for copying a "sliding window" of data from a table?

    - by chiborg
    I have a MySQL table from a third-party application that has millions of rows and only one index - the timestamp of each entry. Now I want to do some heavy self-joins and queries on the data using fields other than the timestamp. Doing the query on the original table would bring the database to a crawl, adding indexes to the table is not an option. Additionally, I only need entries that are newer than one week. My current strategy for doing the queries efficiently is to use a separate table (aux_table) that has the necessary indexes. My questions are: Is there another way to do the queries? and if not, How do I update the data in the indexed table efficiently? So far I have found two approaches for updating aux_table: Truncate aux_table and insert the desired data from the original table. Not very efficient because all the indexes must be re-crated. Check for the biggest timestamp in aux_table and insert all entries with a greater or equal timestamp from the original table. Occasionally drop older entries. Only copying entries with greater timestamp leads to dropped entries (because of entries with same timestamp that were inserted into the original table after the last update).

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  • JSF: Showing/Calling a dialog programatically

    - by Sway
    has anybody an idea to show/call a dialog programatically and add this to stage(actual browser window) ?! I am running in circles and cannot find a solution :/ More background what I want to do: I want to trigger a database update every 2 hours. This I have done with a TimerTask... This works fine for me, the Timertask gets all the data I want from the database... Before this TimerTask is triggered I want to "lock" the screen for some seconds that no user(session scoped) can access the database(this I also know how this will work) ... My problem is that I don't know/ cannot find a way/ i am to stupid to call a dialog programatically ... Any tips, hints would be very cool :) Thanks a lot ! UPDATE: I want to set this primefaces dialog: Dialog dialog = new Dialog(); dialog.setAppendToBody(true); dialog.setModal(true); dialog.setVisible(true); dialog.setWidgetVar("generatedDialog"); dialog.setId("fancyDialog"); dialog.setClosable(false); dialog.setHeader("Getting latest information from the database"); dialog.setDynamic(true); dialog.setResizable(false); dialog.setDraggable(false); How can I do that ? :/ How do I display it to my browser ? :o Regards

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  • Setting acquired location to a text view: How to maintain?

    - by Mark
    Hi, I have built an app for the Motorola Droid which should automatically update a server with the phone's location. After the user performs a particular task on the main activity screen, an alarm is set to update the user's location periodically, using a service. The alarm is explicitly stopped when the user completes another task. Thing is, I have set up a location manager within the main activity's onCreate() method which is supposed to place the first acquired lat/long into two textview fields. Even though the manifest is set up for acquiring coarse and fine coords and I'm using requestLocationUpdates (String provider, long minTime, float minDistance, LocationListener listener), with minTime and minDistance set to zero, I'm not seeing the coords coming up on the screen. With that, I'm not recording any locations on the server. When I seed the textviews with sample coords, they are being recorded fine on the server. I am not at a computer that can run the IDE, so don't currently have the code, but am desperate for some help on this. One other thing is that the main activity screen calls a photography app before the user manually clicks "send data". I'm suspicious that I may need to override the main activity's onResume() method to do this location acquisition. Please help, thanks. Mark.

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  • SQL Server stored procedure return code oddity

    - by gbn
    Hello The client that calls this code is restricted and can only deal with return codes from stored procs. So, we modified our usual contract to RETURN -1 on error and default to RETURN 0 if no error If the code hits the inner catch block, then the RETURN code default to -4. Where does this come from, does anyone know...? IF OBJECT_ID('dbo.foo') IS NOT NULL DROP TABLE dbo.foo GO CREATE TABLE dbo.foo ( KeyCol char(12) NOT NULL, ValueCol xml NOT NULL, Comment varchar(1000) NULL, CONSTRAINT PK_foo PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED (KeyCol) ) GO IF OBJECT_ID('dbo.bar') IS NOT NULL DROP PROCEDURE dbo.bar GO CREATE PROCEDURE dbo.bar @Key char(12), @Value xml, @Comment varchar(1000) AS SET NOCOUNT ON DECLARE @StartTranCount tinyint; BEGIN TRY SELECT @StartTranCount = @@TRANCOUNT; IF @StartTranCount = 0 BEGIN TRAN; BEGIN TRY --SELECT @StartTranCount = 'fish' INSERT dbo.foo (KeyCol, ValueCol, Comment) VALUES (@Key, @Value, @Comment); END TRY BEGIN CATCH IF ERROR_NUMBER() = 2627 --PK violation UPDATE dbo.foo SET ValueCol = @Value, Comment = @Comment WHERE KeyCol = @Key; ELSE RAISERROR ('Tits up', 16, 1); END CATCH IF @StartTranCount = 0 COMMIT TRAN; END TRY BEGIN CATCH IF @StartTranCount = 0 AND XACT_STATE() <> 0 ROLLBACK TRAN; RETURN -1 END CATCH --Without this, we'll send -4 if we hit the UPDATE CATCH block above --RETURN 0 GO --Run with RETURN 0 and fish line commented out DECLARE @rtn int EXEC @rtn = dbo.bar 'abcdefghijkl', '<foobar />', 'testing' SELECT @rtn; SELECT * FROM dbo.foo DECLARE @rtn int EXEC @rtn = dbo.bar 'abcdefghijkl', '<foobar2 />', 'testing2' --updated OK but we get @rtn = -4 SELECT @rtn; SELECT * FROM dbo.foo --uncomment fish line DECLARE @rtn int EXEC @rtn = dbo.bar 'abcdefghijkl', '<foobar />', 'testing' --Hit outer CATCH, @rtn = -1 as expected SELECT @rtn; SELECT * FROM dbo.foo

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  • Copying a foreign Subversion repository to keep under dependencies

    - by Jonathan Sternberg
    I want to keep dependencies for my project in our own repository, that way we have consistent libraries for the entire team to work with. For example, I want our project to use the Boost libraries. I've seen this done in the past with putting dependencies under a "vendor" or "dependencies" folder. But I still want to be able to update these dependencies. If a new feature appears in a library and we need it, I want to just be able to update that repository within our own repository. I don't want to have to recopy it and put it under version control again. I'd also like for us to have the ability to change dependencies if a small change is needed without stopping us from ever updating the library. I want the ability to do something like 'svn cp', then be able to 'svn merge' in the future. I just tried this with the boost trunk, but I'm not able to get any history using 'svn log' on the copy I made. How do I do this? What is usually done for large projects with dependencies?

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  • Flex DataGridColumn with array of objects as data provider

    - by rforte
    I have a datagrid that uses an array of objects as the data provider. The objects are essentially key/value pairs: { foo:"something"} { bar:"hello"} { caca:"lorem"} The datagrid has 2 columns. The first column is the key and the second column is the value. Right now my grid looks like: My dataFormatter function makes sure that depending on the column (i.e. the dataField value) the correct key or value gets printed out. This works fine for displaying. However, as soon as I try and edit the value field it essentially adds a new value into the object with a key of '1'. For example, if I edit the {caca:"lorem"} object it will then contain the value {caca:"lorem",1:"new value"}. Is there any possible way I can set the DataGridColumn so that when I edit a value it will update the value associated with the key rather than inserting a new value? I've tried using a custom item editor but it still does the insert. It seems like I need to be able to update the 'dataField' with the actual key value but I'm not sure how to do that.

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  • Sample twitter application

    - by Jack
    I have installed WAMP and running PHP scripts on localhost. I have enabled cURL. Here is my code. <?php function updateTwitter($status) { // Twitter login information $username = 'xxxxx'; $password = 'xxxxx'; // The url of the update function $url = 'http://twitter.com/statuses/update.xml'; // Arguments we are posting to Twitter $postargs = 'status='.urlencode($status); // Will store the response we get from Twitter $responseInfo=array(); // Initialize CURL $ch = curl_init($url); // Tell CURL we are doing a POST curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_PROXY,"localhost:80"); curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_POST, true); // Give CURL the arguments in the POST curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $postargs); // Set the username and password in the CURL call curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_USERPWD, $username.':'.$password); // Set some cur flags (not too important) curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_VERBOSE, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_NOBODY, 0); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, 0); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION,1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); // execute the CURL call $response = curl_exec($ch); if($response === false) { echo 'Curl error: ' . curl_error($ch); } else { echo 'Operation completed without any errors<br/>'; } // Get information about the response $responseInfo=curl_getinfo($ch); // Close the CURL connection curl_close($ch); // Make sure we received a response from Twitter if(intval($responseInfo['http_code'])==200){ // Display the response from Twitter echo $response; }else{ // Something went wrong echo "Error: " . $responseInfo['http_code']; } curl_close($ch); } updateTwitter("Just finished a sweet tutorial on http://brandontreb.com"); ?> Here's my output Operation completed without any errors Error: 404 Here's what error 404 means 404 Not Found: The URI requested is invalid or the resource requested, such as a user, does not exists. Please help.

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  • Class design when working with dataset

    - by MC
    If you have to retrieve data from a database and bring this dataset to the client, and then allow the user to manipulate the data in various ways before updating the database again, what is a good class design for this if the data tables will not have a 1:1 relationship with the class objects? Here are some I came up with: Just manipulate the DataSet itself on the client and then send it back to the database as is. This will work though obviously the code will be very dirty and not well-structured. Same as #1, but wrap the dataset code around classes. What I mean is that you may have a class that takes a dataset or a datatable in its constructor, and then provides public methods and properties to simplify the code. Inside these methods and properties it will be reading or manipulating the dataset. To update the database afterwards will be easy because you already have the updated dataset. Get rid of the dataset entirely on the client, convert to objects, then convert back to a dataset when needing to update the database. Is there any good resources where I can find information on this?

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  • White Screen of Death (WSOD) in Browser

    - by nickyt
    Here's the specs: ASP.NET 3.5 using ASP.NET AJAX AJAX Control Toolkit jQuery 1.3.2 web services IIS6 on Windows Server 2003 SP1 SP1 SQLServer 2005 SP3 Site is SSL Here's the problem: I'm getting the White Screen of Death (WSOD) in pretty much any browser (at least FireFox and IE 7/8). We have an application that uses one popup window for updating records. Most of the time when you click on the [Edit] button to edit a record, the popup window opens and loads the update page. However, after editing records for a while, all of a sudden the popup window will open, but it stays blank and just hangs. The URL is in the address bar. Loading up Fiddler I noticed that the request for the update page is never sent which leads me to believe it's some kind of lockup on the client-side. If I copy the same URL that's in the popup window into a new browser window, the page generally loads fine. Observations: - Since the request is never sent to the server, it's definitely something client-side - Only appears to happen when there is some semblance of traffic on the site which is weird because this appears to be contained within client-side code - There is a web service being called in the background every few seconds checking if the user is logged on, but this doesn't cause the freeze. I'm really at a loss here. I've googled WSOD but not much seems to appear related to my specific WSOD. Any ideas?

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  • Javascript timezone solution needed(taking into account the actual difference in UTC timestamps)

    - by user198729
    I have unix timestamps from time zone X which is not known, the current timestamp(now()) in TZ X is known 1275143019, how to approach a javascript function so that it can generate the datetime in the users current TZ in the format 2010-05-29 15:32:35 ? UPDATE I'm not a unix timestamp expert,if unix timestamp is always the same in different TZ, then I have to change the question a little,so that the current datetime in TZ X is known(like 2010-05-29 22:32:28),and the other datetime is also in this format,how to convert them to the user's TZ based on the difference between now() ? UPDATE Something strange from MySQL: On server: mysql> select now(); +---------------------+ | now() | +---------------------+ | 2010-05-29 18:34:30 | +---------------------+ 1 row in set (0.00 sec) mysql> select UNIX_TIMESTAMP(); +------------------+ | UNIX_TIMESTAMP() | +------------------+ | 1275143674 | +------------------+ 1 row in set (0.00 sec) On local: mysql> select now(); +---------------------+ | now() | +---------------------+ | 2010-05-29 22:41:30 | +---------------------+ 1 row in set (0.00 sec) mysql> select UNIX_TIMESTAMP(); +------------------+ | UNIX_TIMESTAMP() | +------------------+ | 1275144091 | +------------------+ 1 row in set (0.00 sec) Why the difference between now() (2010-05-29 22:41:30-2010-05-29 18:34:30=6hours) and UNIX_TIMESTAMP() (1275144091 - 1275143674 = 417seconds) is not the same ?

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  • updating multiple nodes in xml with xquery and xdmp:node-replace

    - by morja
    Hi all, I wnat to update an XML document in my xml database (Marklogic). I have xml as input and want to replace each node that exists in the target xml. If a node does not exist it would be great if it gets added, but thats maybe another task. My XML in the database: <user> <username>username</username> <firstname>firstname</firstname> <lastname>lastname</lastname> <email>[email protected]</email> <comment>comment</comment> </user> The value of $user_xml: <user> <firstname>new firstname</firstname> <lastname>new lastname</lastname> </user> My function so far: declare function update-user ( $username as xs:string, $user_xml as node()) as empty-sequence() { let $uri := user-uri($username) return for $node in $user_xml/user return xdmp:node-replace(fn:doc($uri)/user/fn:node-name($node), $node) }; First of all I cannot iterate over $user_xml/user. If I try to iterate over $user_xml I get "arg1 is not of type node()" exception. But maybe its the wrong approach anyway? Does anybody maybe have sample code how to do this?

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  • Visual studio erroneous errors when building a website?

    - by Curtis White
    Visual Studio 2008 shows a lot of erroneous errors when building a website (not a web project) in the errors list. These errors are usually corrected (removed) when I rebuild the site a couple times but they cost me wasted time. Is there anyway to hide the erroneous errors? Update: I've decided to look into this to see if I could reproduce it. This is the exact behavior I am seeing, using the website model, I type some invalid syntax on a page. The errors list fills up with errors. I correct the error and the errors list does not update. I build the project and the errors list still shows the errors but the build shows as build completed. I build the project a second time and the errors list is cleared. My question is there anyway to make the errors list clear on the first build? I thought it might have something to do with page build vs website build but it seems to make no difference. I am not using any third party dlls on this website.

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  • SQL Duplicates Issue SQL SERVER 2000

    - by jeff
    I have two tables : Product and ProductRateDetail. The parent table is Product. I have duplicate records in the product table which need to be unique. There are entries in the ProductRateDetail table which correspond to duplicate records in the product table. Somehow I need to update the ProductRateDetail table to match the original (older) ID from the Product table and then remove the duplicates from the product table. I would do this manually but there are 100's of records. i.e. something like UPDATE tbl_productRateDetail SET productID = (originalID from tbl_product) then something like DELETE from tbl_product WHERE duplicate ID and only delete the recently added ID data example: (sorry can't work out this formatting thing) tbl_Product select * from dbo.Product where ProductCode = '10003' ProductID ProductTypeID ProductDescription ProductCode ProductSize 365 1 BEND DOUBLE FLANGED 10003 80mmX90deg 1354 1 BEND DOUBLE FLANGED 10003 80mmX90deg tbl_ProductRateDetail SELECT * FROM [MSTS2].[dbo].[ProductRateDetail] WHERE ProductID in (365,1354) ProductRateDetailID ProductRateID ProductID UnitRate 365 1 365 16.87 1032 5 365 16.87 2187 10 365 16.87 2689 11 365 16.87 3191 12 365 16.87 7354 21 1354 21.30 7917 22 1354 21.30 8480 23 1354 21.30 9328 25 1354 21.30 9890 26 1354 21.30 10452 27 1354 21.30 Please help!

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  • Help me write my LISP :) LISP environments, Ruby Hashes...

    - by MikeC8
    I'm implementing a rudimentary version of LISP in Ruby just in order to familiarize myself with some concepts. I'm basing my implementation off of Peter Norvig's Lispy (http://norvig.com/lispy.html). There's something I'm missing here though, and I'd appreciate some help... He subclasses Python's dict as follows: class Env(dict): "An environment: a dict of {'var':val} pairs, with an outer Env." def __init__(self, parms=(), args=(), outer=None): self.update(zip(parms,args)) self.outer = outer def find(self, var): "Find the innermost Env where var appears." return self if var in self else self.outer.find(var) He then goes on to explain why he does this rather than just using a dict. However, for some reason, his explanation keeps passing in through my eyes and out through the back of my head. Why not use a dict, and then inside the eval function, when a new "sub-environment" needs to be created, just take the existing dict and update the key/value pairs that need to be updated, and pass that new dict into the next eval? Won't the Python interpreter keep track of the previous "outer" envs? And won't the nature of the recursion ensure that the values are pulled out from "inner" to "outer"? I'm using Ruby, and I tried to implement things this way. Something's not working though, and it might be because of this, or perhaps not. Here's my eval function, env being a regular Hash: def eval(x, env = $global_env) ........ elsif x[0] == "lambda" then ->(*args) { eval(x[2], env.merge(Hash[*x[1].zip(args).flatten(1)])) } ........ end The line that matters of course is the "lambda" one. If there is a difference, what's importantly different between what I'm doing here and what Norvig did with his Env class? If there's no difference, then perhaps someone can enlighten me as to why Norvig uses the Env class. Thanks :)

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  • Dynamic Auto updating (to UI, Grid) binding list in C# Winform?

    - by Dhana
    I'm not even sure if i'm doing this correctly. But basically I have a list of objects that are built out of a class/interface. From there, I am binding the list to a datagrid view that is on a Windows Form (C#) Here the list is a Sync list which will auto update the UI, in this case datagridview. Every thing works fine now, but now i would like to have the List should have an dynamic object, that is the object will have by default two static property (ID, Name), and at run time user will select remaining properties. These should be bind to the data grid. Any update on the list should be auto reflected in the grid. I am aware that, we can use dynamic objects, but i would like to know , how to approach for solution, datagridview.DataSource = myData; // myData is AutoUpdateList<IPersonInfo> Now IPersonInfo is the type of object, need to add dynamic properties for this type at runtime. public class AutoUpdateList<T> : System.ComponentModel.BindingList<T> { private System.ComponentModel.ISynchronizeInvoke _SyncObject; private System.Action<System.ComponentModel.ListChangedEventArgs> _FireEventAction; public AutoUpdateList() : this(null) { } public AutoUpdateList(System.ComponentModel.ISynchronizeInvoke syncObject) { _SyncObject = syncObject; _FireEventAction = FireEvent; } protected override void OnListChanged(System.ComponentModel.ListChangedEventArgs args) { try { if (_SyncObject == null) { FireEvent(args); } else { _SyncObject.Invoke(_FireEventAction, new object[] { args }); } } catch (Exception) { // TODO: Log Here } } private void FireEvent(System.ComponentModel.ListChangedEventArgs args) { base.OnListChanged(args); } } Could you help out on this?

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  • Using SMO to call Database.ExecuteNonQuery() concurrently?

    - by JimDaniel
    I have been banging my head against the wall trying to figure out how I can run update scripts concurrently against multiple databases in a single SQL Server instance using SMO. Our environments have an ever-increasing number of databases which need updating, and iterating through one at a time is becoming a problem (too slow). From what I understand SMO does not support concurrent operations, and my tests have bore that out. There seems to be shared memory at the Server object level, for things like DataReader context, keeps throwing exceptions such as "reader is already open." I apologize for not having the exact exceptions I am getting. I will try to get them and update this post. I am no expert on SMO and just feeling my way through to be honest. Not really sure I am approaching it the right way, but it's something that has to be done, or our productivity will slow to a crawl. So how would you guys do something like this? Am I using the wrong technology with SMO? All I am wanting to do is execute sql scripts against databases in a single sql server instance in parallel. Thanks for any help you can give, Daniel

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  • Should I use IDisposable for purely managed resources?

    - by John Gietzen
    Here is the scenario: I have an object called a Transaction that needs to make sure that only one entity has permission to edit it at any given time. In order to facilitate a long-lived lock, I have the class generating a token object that can be used to make the edits. You would use it like this: var transaction = new Transaction(); using (var tlock = transaction.Lock()) { transaction.Update(data, tlock); } Now, I want the TransactionLock class to implement IDisposable so that its usage can be clear. But, I don't have any unmanaged resources to dispose. however, the TransctionLock object itself is a sort of "unmanaged resource" in the sense that the CLR doesn't know how to properly finalize it. All of this would be fine and dandy, I would just use IDisposable and be done with it. However, my issue comes when I try to do this in the finalizer: ~TransactionLock() { this.Dispose(false); } I want the finalizer to release the transaction from the lock, if possible. How, in the finalizer, do I detect if the parent transaction (this.transaction) has already been finalized? Is there a better pattern I should be using? The Transaction class looks something like this: public sealed class Transaction { private readonly object lockMutex = new object(); private TransactionLock currentLock; public TransactionLock Lock() { lock (this.lockMutex) { if (this.currentLock != null) throw new InvalidOperationException(/* ... */); this.currentLock = new TransactionLock(this); return this.currentLock; } } public void Update(object data, TransactionLock tlock) { lock (this.lockMutex) { this.ValidateLock(tlock); // ... } } internal void ValidateLock(TransactionLock tlock) { if (this.currentLock == null) throw new InvalidOperationException(/* ... */); if (this.currentLock != tlock) throw new InvalidOperationException(/* ... */); } internal void Unlock(TransactionLock tlock) { lock (this.lockMutex) { this.ValidateLock(tlock); this.currentLock = null; } } }

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  • Seam @Factory in abstract base class?

    - by Shadowman
    I've got a series of web actions I'm implementing in Seam to perform create, read, update, etc. operations. For my read/update/delete actions, I'd like to have individual action classes that all extend an abstract base class. I'd like to put the @Factory method in the abstract base class to retrieve the item that is to be acted upon. For example, I have this as the base class: public abstract class BaseAction { @In(required=false)@Out(required=false) private MyItem item=null; public MyItem getItem(){...} public void setItem(...){...} @Factory("item") public void initItem(){...} } My subclasses would extend BaseAction, so that I don't have to repeat the logic to load the item that is to be viewed, deleted, updated, etc. However, when I start my application, Seam throws errors saying I have declared multiple @Factory's for the same object. Is there any way around this? Is there any way to provide the @Factory in the base class without encoutnering these errors?

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  • What is best practice about having one-many hibernate

    - by Patrick
    Hi all, I believe this is a common scenario. Say I have a one-many mapping in hibernate Category has many Item Category: @OneToMany( cascade = {CascadeType.ALL},fetch = FetchType.LAZY) @JoinColumn(name="category_id") @Cascade( value = org.hibernate.annotations.CascadeType.DELETE_ORPHAN ) private List<Item> items; Item: @ManyToOne(targetEntity=Category.class,fetch=FetchType.EAGER) @JoinColumn(name="category_id",insertable=false,updatable=false) private Category category; All works fine. I use Category to fully control Item's life cycle. But, when I am writing code to update Category, first I get Category out from DB. Then pass it to UI. User fill in altered values for Category and pass back. Here comes the problem. Because I only pass around Category information not Item. Therefore the Item collection will be empty. When I call saveOrUpdate, it will clean out all associations. Any suggestion on what's best to address this? I think the advantage of having Category controls Item is to easily main the order of Item and not to confuse bi-directly. But what about situation that you do want to just update Category it self? Load it first and merge? Thank you.

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  • Trigger JavaScript action after Datatable is loaded

    - by perissf
    In a JSF 2.1 + PrimeFaces 3.2 web application, I need to trigger a JavaScript function after a p:dataTable is loaded. I know that there is no such event in this component, so I have to find a workaround. In order to better understand the scenario, on page load the dataTable is not rendered. It is rendered after a successful login: <p:commandButton value="Login" update=":aComponentHoldingMyDataTable" action="#{loginBean.login}" oncomplete="handleLoginRequest(xhr, status, args)"/> As you can see from the above code, I have a JavaScript hook after the successful login, if it can be of any help. Immediately after the oncomplete action has finished, the update attribute renders the dataTable: <p:dataTable var="person" value="#{myBean.lazyModel}" rendered="#{p:userPrincipal() != null}" /> After the datatable is loaded, I need to run a JavaScript function on each row item, in order to subscribe to a cometD topic. In theory I could use the oncomplete attribute of the login Button for triggering a property from myBean in order to retrieve once again the values to be displayed in the dataTable, but it doesn't seem very elegant. The JavaScript function should do something with the rowKey of each row of the dataTable: function javaScriptFunctionToBeTriggered(rowKey) { // do something }

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  • Entity Framework 4 + POCO with custom classes and WCF contracts (serialization problem)

    - by eman
    Yesterday I worked on a project where I upgraded to Entity Framework 4 with the Repository pattern. In one post, I have read that it is necessary to turn off the custom tool generator classes and then write classes (same like entites) by hand. That I can do it, I used the POCO Entity Generator and then deleted the new generated files .tt and all subordinate .cs classes. Then I wrote the "entity classes" by myself. I added the repository pattern and implemented it in the business layer and then implemented a WCF layer, which should call the methods from the business layer. By calling an Insert (Add) method from the presentation layer and everything is OK. But if I call any method that should return some class, then I get an error like (the connection was interrupted by the server). I suppose there is a problem with the serialization or am I wrong? How can by this problem solved? I'm using Visual Studio S2010, Entity Framework 4, C#. UPDATE: I have uploaded the project and hope somebody can help me! link text UPDATE 2: My questions: Why is POCO good (pros/cons)? When should POCO be used? Is POCO + the repository pattern a good choice? Should POCO classes by written by myself or could I use auto generated POCO classes?

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  • XNA Vector2 Rotation Question

    - by Tom Allen
    I'm messing about with some stuff in XNA and am trying to move an object around asteroids-style in that you press left and right to rotate and up/down to go forwards and backwards in the direction you are pointing. I've got the rotation of the sprite done, but i can't get the object to move in the direction you've pointed it, it always moves up and down on the x = 0 axis. I'm guessing this is straight forward but I just can't figure it out. My "ship" class has the following properties which are note worthy here: Vector2 Position float Rotation The "ship" class has an update method is where the input is handled and so far I've got the following: public void Update(GameTime gameTime) { KeyboardState keyboard = Keyboard.GetState(); GamePadState gamePad = GamePad.GetState(PlayerIndex.One); float x = Position.X; float y = Position.Y; if (keyboard.IsKeyDown(Keys.Left)) Rotation -= 0.1f; if (keyboard.IsKeyDown(Keys.Right)) Rotation += 0.1f; if (keyboard.IsKeyDown(Keys.Up)) y -= ??; if (keyboard.IsKeyDown(Keys.Down)) y += ??; this.Position = new Vector2(x, y); } Any help would be most appreciated!

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