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  • Should I use IDisposable for purely managed resources?

    - by John Gietzen
    Here is the scenario: I have an object called a Transaction that needs to make sure that only one entity has permission to edit it at any given time. In order to facilitate a long-lived lock, I have the class generating a token object that can be used to make the edits. You would use it like this: var transaction = new Transaction(); using (var tlock = transaction.Lock()) { transaction.Update(data, tlock); } Now, I want the TransactionLock class to implement IDisposable so that its usage can be clear. But, I don't have any unmanaged resources to dispose. however, the TransctionLock object itself is a sort of "unmanaged resource" in the sense that the CLR doesn't know how to properly finalize it. All of this would be fine and dandy, I would just use IDisposable and be done with it. However, my issue comes when I try to do this in the finalizer: ~TransactionLock() { this.Dispose(false); } I want the finalizer to release the transaction from the lock, if possible. How, in the finalizer, do I detect if the parent transaction (this.transaction) has already been finalized? Is there a better pattern I should be using? The Transaction class looks something like this: public sealed class Transaction { private readonly object lockMutex = new object(); private TransactionLock currentLock; public TransactionLock Lock() { lock (this.lockMutex) { if (this.currentLock != null) throw new InvalidOperationException(/* ... */); this.currentLock = new TransactionLock(this); return this.currentLock; } } public void Update(object data, TransactionLock tlock) { lock (this.lockMutex) { this.ValidateLock(tlock); // ... } } internal void ValidateLock(TransactionLock tlock) { if (this.currentLock == null) throw new InvalidOperationException(/* ... */); if (this.currentLock != tlock) throw new InvalidOperationException(/* ... */); } internal void Unlock(TransactionLock tlock) { lock (this.lockMutex) { this.ValidateLock(tlock); this.currentLock = null; } } }

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  • MySQL move data from one table to another, matching ID's

    - by Reveller
    I have (a.o.) two MySQL tables with (a.o.) the following columns: tweets: ------------------------------------- id text from_user_id from_user ------------------------------------- 1 Cool tweet! 13295354 tradeny 2 Tweeeeeeeet 43232544 bolleke 3 Yet another 13295354 tradeny 4 Something.. 53546443 janusz4 users: ------------------------------------- id from_user num_tweets from_user_id ------------------------------------- 1 tradeny 2235 2 bolleke 432 3 janusz4 5354 I now want to normalize the tweets table, replacing tweets.from_user with an integer that matches users.id. Secondly, I want to fill in the corresponding users.from_user_id, Finally, I want to delete tweets.from_user_id so that the end result would look like: tweets: ------------------------ id text from_user ------------------------ 1 Cool tweet! 1 2 Tweeeeeeeet 2 3 Yet another 1 4 Something.. 3 users: ------------------------------------- id from_user num_tweets from_user_id ------------------------------------- 1 tradeny 2235 13295354 2 bolleke 432 43232544 3 janusz4 5354 53546443 My question is whether one could help me form the proper queries for this. I have only come so far: UPDATE tweets SET from_user = (SELECT id FROM users WHERE from_user = tweets.from_user) WHERE... UPDATE users SET from_user_id = (SELECT from_user_id FROM tweets WHERE from_user = tweets.from_user) WHERE... ALTER TABLE tweets DROP from_user_id Any help would be greatly appreciated :-)

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  • What should i do for accomodating large scale data storage and retrieval?

    - by kailashbuki
    There's two columns in the table inside mysql database. First column contains the fingerprint while the second one contains the list of documents which have that fingerprint. It's much like an inverted index built by search engines. An instance of a record inside the table is shown below; 34 "doc1, doc2, doc45" The number of fingerprints is very large(can range up to trillions). There are basically following operations in the database: inserting/updating the record & retrieving the record accoring to the match in fingerprint. The table definition python snippet is: self.cursor.execute("CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `fingerprint` (fp BIGINT, documents TEXT)") And the snippet for insert/update operation is: if self.cursor.execute("UPDATE `fingerprint` SET documents=CONCAT(documents,%s) WHERE fp=%s",(","+newDocId, thisFP))== 0L: self.cursor.execute("INSERT INTO `fingerprint` VALUES (%s, %s)", (thisFP,newDocId)) The only bottleneck i have observed so far is the query time in mysql. My whole application is web based. So time is a critical factor. I have also thought of using cassandra but have less knowledge of it. Please suggest me a better way to tackle this problem.

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  • Ajax with Jsf 1.1 implementation

    - by Rohan Ved
    I am using JSF1.1 in that, have this code_ <%@ taglib uri="http://java.sun.com/jsf/html" prefix="h"%> <%@ taglib uri="http://java.sun.com/jsf/core" prefix="f"%> <%@ taglib uri="http://www.azureworlds.org" prefix="azure"%> <%@ taglib uri="http://myfaces.apache.org/tomahawk" prefix="x"%> <%@ taglib uri="http://www.asifqamar.com/jsf/asif" prefix="a"%> ... <x:selectOneMenu value="#{hotelBean.state}"> <f:selectItem itemLabel="Select One" itemValue="" /> <f:selectItem value="#{hotelBean.mapStates }" /> <x:ajax update="city" listener="#{hotelBean.handleCityChange}" /> </x:selectOneMenu> <h:outputText value="City* " /> <x:selectOneMenu id="city" value="#{hotelBean.city}"> <f:selectItem itemLabel="Select One" itemValue="" /> <f:selectItem value="#{hotelBean.mapCities }" /> </x:selectOneMenu> line x:ajax update="city" listener="#{hotelBean.handleCityChange}" is not working , i searched but got JSF1.1 not support for Ajax. then what can i do for this? and i have less knowledge of JS. Thanx

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  • Javascript storing properties and functions in variables

    - by richard
    Hello, I'm having trouble with my programming style and I hope to get some feedback here. I recently bought Javascript: The Good Parts and while I find this a big help, I'm still having trouble designing this application. Especially when it comes to writing function and methods. Example: I have a function that let's the user switches games in my app. This function updates game-specific information in the current view. var games = { active: Titanium.App.Properties.getString('active_game'), gameswitcher_positions: { 'Game 1': 0, 'Game 2': 1, 'Game 3': 2, 'Game 4': 3, 'Game 5': 4 }, change: function(game) { if (active_game !== game) { gameswitcher.children[this.gameswitcher_positions[this.active]].backgroundImage = gameswitcher.children[this.gameswitcher_positions[this.active]].backgroundImage.replace('_selected', ''); gameswitcher.children[this.gameswitcher_positions[game]].backgroundImage = gameswitcher.children[this.gameswitcher_positions[game]].backgroundImage.replace('.png', '_selected.png'); events.update(game); this.active = game; } }, init: function() { gameswitcher.children[this.gameswitcher_positions[this.active]].backgroundImage = gameswitcher.children[this.gameswitcher_positions[this.active]].backgroundImage.replace('.png', '_selected.png'); events.update(this.active); } }; gameswitcher is a container view which contains buttons to switch games. I am not satisfied with this approach but I cannot think of a better one. Should I place the gameswitcher_positions outside of the variable in a seperate variable instead of as a property? And what about the active game? Please give me feedback, what am I doing wrong?

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  • Entity Framework 4 + POCO with custom classes and WCF contracts (serialization problem)

    - by eman
    Yesterday I worked on a project where I upgraded to Entity Framework 4 with the Repository pattern. In one post, I have read that it is necessary to turn off the custom tool generator classes and then write classes (same like entites) by hand. That I can do it, I used the POCO Entity Generator and then deleted the new generated files .tt and all subordinate .cs classes. Then I wrote the "entity classes" by myself. I added the repository pattern and implemented it in the business layer and then implemented a WCF layer, which should call the methods from the business layer. By calling an Insert (Add) method from the presentation layer and everything is OK. But if I call any method that should return some class, then I get an error like (the connection was interrupted by the server). I suppose there is a problem with the serialization or am I wrong? How can by this problem solved? I'm using Visual Studio S2010, Entity Framework 4, C#. UPDATE: I have uploaded the project and hope somebody can help me! link text UPDATE 2: My questions: Why is POCO good (pros/cons)? When should POCO be used? Is POCO + the repository pattern a good choice? Should POCO classes by written by myself or could I use auto generated POCO classes?

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  • How can I remove a JPanel from a JFrame?

    - by Roman
    Recently I asked here how to add a new JPanel to JFrame. The answer helped me to get a working code. But not I have a related question: "How can I remove an old JPanel". I need that because of the following problem. A new JPanel appears appears when I want (either time limit is exceeded or user press the "Submit" button). But in several seconds some element of the old JPanel appears together with the component of the new JPanel. I do not understand why it happens. I thought that it is because I have to other threads which update the window. But the first thread just add the old panel once (so, it should be finished). And in the second thread I have a loop which is broken (so, it also should be finished). Here is my code: private Thread controller = new Thread() { public void run() { // First we set the initial pane (for the selection of partner). SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { frame.getContentPane().add(generatePartnerSelectionPanel()); frame.invalidate(); frame.validate(); } }); // Update the pane for the selection of the parnter. for (int i=40; i>0; i=i-1) { final int sec = i; SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { timeLeftLabel.setText(sec + " seconds left."); } }); try {Thread.sleep(1000);} catch (InterruptedException e) {} if (partnerSubmitted) {break;} } // For the given user the selection phase is finished (either the time is over or form was submitted). SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { frame.getContentPane().add(generateWaitForGamePanel()); frame.invalidate(); frame.validate(); } }); } };

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  • OSGI, Servlets and JPA hello world / tutorial / example

    - by Kamil
    I want to build a web application which basically is a restful web-service serving json messages. I would like it to be as simple as possible. I was thinking about using servlets (with annotations). JPA as a database layer is a must - Toplink or Hibernate. Preferably working on Tomcat. I want to have app divided into modules serving different functionality (auth service, customer service, etc..). And I would like to be able to update those modules without reinstalling whole application on the server - like eclipse plugins, user is notified (when he enters webapp's home url) that update is available, clicks it, and app is downloading and installing updated module. I think this functionality can be made with OSGI, but I can't find any example code, or tutorial with simple hello world updatable servlet providing some data from database through jpa. I'm looking for an advice: - Is OSGI the right tool for this or it can be done with something simpler? - Where can I find some examples covering topic (or topics) which I need for this project. - Which OSGI implementation would be best-simplest for this task. *My knowledge of OSGI is basic. I know how bundles are described, I understand concept of OSGI container and what it does. I have never created any OSGI app yet.

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  • What is best practice about having one-many hibernate

    - by Patrick
    Hi all, I believe this is a common scenario. Say I have a one-many mapping in hibernate Category has many Item Category: @OneToMany( cascade = {CascadeType.ALL},fetch = FetchType.LAZY) @JoinColumn(name="category_id") @Cascade( value = org.hibernate.annotations.CascadeType.DELETE_ORPHAN ) private List<Item> items; Item: @ManyToOne(targetEntity=Category.class,fetch=FetchType.EAGER) @JoinColumn(name="category_id",insertable=false,updatable=false) private Category category; All works fine. I use Category to fully control Item's life cycle. But, when I am writing code to update Category, first I get Category out from DB. Then pass it to UI. User fill in altered values for Category and pass back. Here comes the problem. Because I only pass around Category information not Item. Therefore the Item collection will be empty. When I call saveOrUpdate, it will clean out all associations. Any suggestion on what's best to address this? I think the advantage of having Category controls Item is to easily main the order of Item and not to confuse bi-directly. But what about situation that you do want to just update Category it self? Load it first and merge? Thank you.

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  • Dynamic Auto updating (to UI, Grid) binding list in C# Winform?

    - by Dhana
    I'm not even sure if i'm doing this correctly. But basically I have a list of objects that are built out of a class/interface. From there, I am binding the list to a datagrid view that is on a Windows Form (C#) Here the list is a Sync list which will auto update the UI, in this case datagridview. Every thing works fine now, but now i would like to have the List should have an dynamic object, that is the object will have by default two static property (ID, Name), and at run time user will select remaining properties. These should be bind to the data grid. Any update on the list should be auto reflected in the grid. I am aware that, we can use dynamic objects, but i would like to know , how to approach for solution, datagridview.DataSource = myData; // myData is AutoUpdateList<IPersonInfo> Now IPersonInfo is the type of object, need to add dynamic properties for this type at runtime. public class AutoUpdateList<T> : System.ComponentModel.BindingList<T> { private System.ComponentModel.ISynchronizeInvoke _SyncObject; private System.Action<System.ComponentModel.ListChangedEventArgs> _FireEventAction; public AutoUpdateList() : this(null) { } public AutoUpdateList(System.ComponentModel.ISynchronizeInvoke syncObject) { _SyncObject = syncObject; _FireEventAction = FireEvent; } protected override void OnListChanged(System.ComponentModel.ListChangedEventArgs args) { try { if (_SyncObject == null) { FireEvent(args); } else { _SyncObject.Invoke(_FireEventAction, new object[] { args }); } } catch (Exception) { // TODO: Log Here } } private void FireEvent(System.ComponentModel.ListChangedEventArgs args) { base.OnListChanged(args); } } Could you help out on this?

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  • Is it possible in Perl to require a subroutine call is made?

    - by MitchelWB
    I don't know enough about Perl to even know what I'm asking for exactly, but I'm writing a series of subroutines to be available for many individual scripts that all process different incoming flat files. The process is far from perfect, but it's what I've got to deal with and I'm trying to build myself a small library of subs that make it easier for me to manage it all. Each script handles a different incoming flat file with it's own formatting, sorting, grouping and outputting requirements. One common aspect is that we have small text files that house counters that are used to name the output files so that we have no duplicate file names. Because the processing of the data is different for each file, I need to open the file to get my counter value, because this is a common operation, I'd like to put it in a sub to retrieve the counter. But then need to write specific code to process the data. And would like a second sub that allows me to update the counter with the counter once I've processed the data. Is there a way to make the second sub call a requirement if the first one is called? Ideally if it could even be an error that would prevent the script from running at all much like a syntax error. EDIT: Here is a little [ugly and simplified] psuedo-code to give a better feel for what the current process is: require "importLibrary.plx"; #open data source file open DataIn, $filename; #call getCounterInfo from importLibrary.plx to get the counter value from counter file $counter = &getCounterInfo($counterFileName); while (<DataIn>) { #Process data based on unique formatting and requirements #output to task files based on requirements and name files using the $counter #increment $counter } #update counter file with new value of $counter &updateCounterInfo($counter);

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  • EF4 POCO Not Updating Navigation Property On Save

    - by Gavin Draper
    I'm using EF4 with POCO objects the 2 tables are as follows Service ServiceID, Name, StatusID Status StatusID, Name The POCO objects look like this Service ServiceID, Status, Name Status StatusID, Name With Status on the Service object being a Navigation Property and of type Status. In my Service Repository I have a save method that takes a service objects attaches it to the context and calls save. This works fine for the service, but if the status for that service has been changed it does not get updated. My Save method looks like this public static void SaveService(Service service) { using (var ctx = Context.CreateContext()) { ctx.AttachModify("Services", service); ctx.AttachTo("Statuses",service.Status); ctx.SaveChanges(); } } The AttachModify method attaches an object to the context and sets it to modified it looks like this public void AttachModify(string entitySetName, object entity) { if (entity != null) { AttachTo(entitySetName, entity); SetModified(entity); } } public void SetModified(object entity) { ObjectStateManager.ChangeObjectState(entity, EntityState.Modified); } If I look at a SQL profile its not even including the navigation property in the update for the service table, it never touches the StatusID. Its driving me crazy. Any idea what I need to do to force the Navigation Property to update?

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  • Entity Framework and WCf

    - by Nihilist
    Hi I am little confused on designing WCf services with EF. When using WCf and EF, where do we draw this line on what properties to return and what not to with the entity. Here is my scenario I have User. Here are the relations. User [1 to many] Address, User [ 1 to many] Email, User [ 1 to many] Phone So now on the webform, on page1 I can edit user information. say I can edit few properties on the user entity and can also edit address, phone, email entities[ like add / delete and update any] On page2, i can only update user properties and nothing related to navigation properties [ address, email, phone]. So when I return the User Entity [ OR DTO] should i be returning the navigation properties too? Or should the client make multiple calls to get navigation properites. Also, how does it go with Save? Like should the client make multiple calls to save user and related entites or just one call to save the graph? Lets say, if I just have a Save(User user) [ where user has all the related entities too] both page1 and page2 will call save and pass me the user. but one page1 i will need a lot more information. but on page2 i just need the user primitive properties. So my question is, where do we draw this line, how do we design theses services ? Is the WCF operation designed on the page and the fields it has ? I am hoping i explained my problem well enough.

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  • How to get at JSON in grails 2.0

    - by Mikey
    I am sending myself JSON like so with jQuery: $.ajax ({ type: "POST", url: 'http://localhost:8080/myproject/myController/myAction', dataType: 'json', async: false, //json object to sent to the authentication url data: {"stuff":"yes", "listThing":[1,2,3], "listObjects":[{"one":"thing"},{"two":"thing2"}]}, success: function () { alert("Thanks!"); } }) I send this to a controller and do println params And I know I'm already in trouble... [stuff:yes, listObjects[1][two]:thing2, listObjects[0][one]:thing, listThing[]:[1, 2, 3], action:myAction, controller:myController] I cannot figure out how to get at most of these values... I can get "yes" with params.stuff, but I cant do params.listThing.each{} or params.listObjects.each{} What am I doing wrong? UPDATE: I make the controller do this to try the two suggestions so far: println params println params.stuff println params.list('listObjects') println params.listThing def thisWontWork = JSON.parse(params.listThing) render("omg l2json") look how weird the parameters look at the end of the null pointer exception when I try the answers: [stuff:yes, listObjects[1][two]:thing2, listObjects[0][one]:thing, listThing[]:[1, 2, 3], action:l2json, controller:rateAPI] yes [] null | Error 2012-03-25 22:16:13,950 ["http-bio-8080"-exec-7] ERROR errors.GrailsExceptionResolver - NullPointerException occurred when processing request: [POST] /myproject/myController/myAction - parameters: stuff: yes listObjects[1][two]: thing2 listObjects[0][one]: thing listThing[]: 1 listThing[]: 2 listThing[]: 3 UPDATE 2 I am learning things, but this can't be right: println params['listThing[]'] println params['listObjects[0][one]'] prints [1, 2, 3] thing It seems like this is some part of grails new JSON marshaling. This is somewhat inconvenient for my purposes of hacking around with the values. How would I get all these individual params back into a big groovy object of nested maps and lists? Maybe I am not doing what I want with jQuery?

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  • Codeigniter: Library function--I'm stuck

    - by Kevin Brown
    I have a library function that sets up my forms, and submits data. They're long, and they work, so I'll spare you reading my code. :) I simply need a way for my functions to determine how to handle the data. Until now, the function did one thing: Submit a report for the current user. NOW, the client has requested that an administrator also be able to complete a form--this means that the form would be filled out, and it would CREATE a user at the same time, whereas the current function EDITS and is accessed by an EXISTING user. Do I need a separate function to do essentially the same thing? How do I make one function perform two tasks? One to update a user, and if there is no user, create one. Current controller: function survey() { $id = $this->session->userdata('id'); $data['member'] = $this->home_model->getUser($id); //Convert the db Object to a row array $data['manager'] = $data['member']->row(); $manager_id = $data['manager']->manager_id; $data['manager'] = $this->home_model->getUser($manager_id); $data['manager'] = $data['manager']->row(); $data['header'] = "Home"; $this->survey_form_processing->survey_form($this->_container,$data, $method); } Current Library: function survey_form($container) { //Lots of validation stuff $this->CI->validation->set_rules($rules); if ( $this->CI->validation->run() === FALSE ) { // Output any errors $this->CI->validation->output_errors(); } else { // Submit form $this->_submit(); } $this->CI->load->view($container,$data); The submit function is huge too. Basically says, "Update table with data where user_id=current user" I hope this wasn't too confusing. I'll create two functions if need be, but I'd like to keep redundancy down! }

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  • How to get value of h:inputText when binded in JSF

    - by Tr?n Minh Phuong
    How can i get 2 h:inputTextValue from this? <h:dataTable cellspacing="0" value="#{managerManagedBean.lstMatch}" var="m" binding="#{managerManagedBean.datatableMatch}"> <!-- cellspacing='0' is important, must stay --> <h:column> <f:facet name="header">Team One</f:facet> <h:outputText value="#{m.teamOneName}"></h:outputText> </h:column> <h:column> <f:facet name="header">Match Score</f:facet> <h:inputText value="#{m.teamOneResult}" style="width: 20px; text-align: center" binding="#{input}"></h:inputText> - <h:inputText value="#{m.teamTwoResult}" style="width: 20px; text-align: center"></h:inputText> </h:column> <h:column> <f:facet name="header">Half Time</f:facet> <h:outputText value="#{m.haveHalfTime}"></h:outputText> </h:column> <h:column> <f:facet name="header">Team Two</f:facet> <h:outputText value="#{m.teamTwoName}"></h:outputText> </h:column> <h:column> <f:facet name="header">Match Date</f:facet> <h:outputText value="#{m.matchDate}"></h:outputText> </h:column> <h:column> <f:facet name="header">Control</f:facet> <h:commandButton action="#{managerManagedBean.update(m, input.value)}" value="Update Match"> </h:commandButton> </h:column> </h:dataTable>

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  • Validating a value for a DataColumn

    - by Richard Neil Ilagan
    Hello! I'm using a DataGrid with edit functionalities in my project. It's handy, compared to having to edit its source data manually, but sadly, that means that I'll have to deal with validating user input a bit more. And my problem is basically just that. When I set my DataGrid to EDIT mode, modify the values and then set it to UPDATE, what is the best way to check if a value that I've entered is, in fact, compatible with the corresponding column's data type? i.e. (simple example) // assuming DataTable dt = new DataTable(); dt.Columns.Add("aa",typeof(System.Int32)); DataGrid dg = new DataGrid(); dg.DataSource = dt; dg.DataBind(); dg.UpdateCommand += dg_Update; // this is the update handler protected void dg_Update(object src, DataGridCommandEventArgs e) { string newValue = (someValueIEnteredInTextBox); // HOW DO I CHECK IF [newValue] IS COMPATIBLE WITH COLUMN "aa" ABOVE? dt.LoadDataRow(newValue, true); } Thanks guys. Any leads would be so much help.

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  • Box2D in Flash runs quicker when drawing debug data than not

    - by bowdengm
    I've created a small game with Box2d for AS3 - I have sprites attached to the stage that take their position from the underlying Box2d world. These sprites are mostly PNGs. When the game runs with DrawDebugData() bening called every update, it runs nice and smoothly. However when I comment this out, it runs choppily. In both cases all my sprites are being rendered. So it seems that it's running faster when it's drawing the debug data additionaly (i.e. my sprites are on the screen in both cases!) What's going on? Does drawing the debug data flick some sort of 'render quick' switch? If so, what's the switch!? I can't see it in the Box2D code. function Update(e){ m_world.Step(m_timeStep, m_velocityIterations, m_positionIterations); // draw debug? m_world.DrawDebugData(); // with the above line in, I get 27fps, without it, I get 19fps. // that's the only change that's causing such a huge difference. doStuff(); } Interestingly, If i set the debug draw scale to something different to my world scale, it slows down to 19fps. So there's something happening when it draws the boxes under my sprites causing it to run quicker.. Cheers, Guy

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  • Loading Dimension Tables - Methodologies

    - by Nev_Rahd
    Hello, Recently I been working on project, where need to populated Dim Tables from EDW Tables. EDW Tables are of type II which does maintain historical data. When comes to load Dim Table, for which source may be multiple EDW Tables or would be single table with multi level pivoting (on attributes). Mean: There would be 10 records - one for each attribute which need to be pivoted on domain_code to make a single row in Dim. Out of these 10 records there would be some attributes with same domain_code but with different sub_domain_code, which needs further pivoting on subdomain code. Ex: if i got domain code: 01,02, 03 = which are straight pivot on domain code I would also have domain code: 10 with subdomain code / version as 2006,2007,2008,2009 That means I need to split my source table with above attributes into two = one for domain code and other for domain_code + version. so far so good. When it comes to load Dim Table: As per design specs for Dimensions (originally written by third party), what they want is: for every single change in EDW (attribute), it should assemble all the related records (for that NK) mean new one with other attribute values which are current = process them to create a new dim record and insert it. That mean if a single extract contains 100 records updated (one for each NK), it should assemble 100 + (100*9) records to insert / update dim table. How good is this approach. Other way I tried to do is just do a lookup into dim table for that NK get the value's of recent records (attributes which not changed) and insert it and update the current one. What would be the better approach assembling records at source side for one attribute change or looking into dim table's recent record and process it. If this doesn't make sense, would like to elaborate it further. Thanks

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  • How can I make an prototype ajax request with an array of values as a parameter?

    - by andresbravog
    i'm trying to make a ajax update in prototype with some values from a multirecordselect that sends a requests like. Parameters: {"action"=>"use_campaign", "campaigns"=> ["27929","27932"] , "advertiser_id"=>"", "controller"=>"admin/reporting", "ad_id"=>""} as you can see the request sends the "campaigns" elements as an array of values, i'm trying to do the same with this js code over prototype 7. // get the campaigns var campaign_ids = {}; var campaigns = $('filter_form').getInputs("hidden","report[campaigns][]"); campaigns.each( function(field) { campaign_ids.push(field.value); }); new Ajax.Updater('ad_filter', '/admin/reporting/use_campaign', { method : 'get', asynchronous : true, evalScripts : true, parameters : { 'advertiser_id' : $('filter_form')['report[advertiser_id]'].value, 'ad_id' : $('filter_form')['report[ad_id]'].value, 'campaigns' : campaign_ids } }); the campaigns_ids is getting the correct info as an array like: [ "27929", "27932" ] but seems that prototype ajax update is sending a request like: http://my_domain/admin/reporting/use_campaign?ad_id=&advertiser_id=&campaigns=27929&campaigns=27932 what sends parameters like: Parameters: {"action"=>"use_campaign", "campaigns"=> "27929" , "advertiser_id"=>"", "controller"=>"admin/reporting", "ad_id"=>""} I also tryed with Object.toJSON(campaign_ids) but i only get an escaped string like Parameters: {"action"=>"use_campaign", "campaigns"=>"[\"27929\",\"27932\"]" , "advertiser_id"=>"", "controller"=>"admin/reporting", "ad_id"=>""} There is anyway to do this as I wish? Thanks for all.

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  • SQL Server race condition issue with range lock

    - by Freek
    I'm implementing a queue in SQL Server (please no discussions about this) and am running into a race condition issue. The T-SQL of interest is the following: set transaction isolation level serializable begin tran declare @RecordId int declare @CurrentTS datetime2 set @CurrentTS=CURRENT_TIMESTAMP select top 1 @RecordId=Id from QueuedImportJobs with (updlock) where Status=@Status and (LeaseTimeout is null or @CurrentTS>LeaseTimeout) order by Id asc if @@ROWCOUNT> 0 begin update QueuedImportJobs set LeaseTimeout = DATEADD(mi,5,@CurrentTS), LeaseTicket=newid() where Id=@RecordId select * from QueuedImportJobs where Id = @RecordId end commit tran RecordId is the PK and there is also an index on Status,LeaseTimeout. What I'm basically doing is select a record of which the lease happens to be expired, while simultaneously updating the lease time with 5 minutes and setting a new lease ticket. So the problem is that I'm getting deadlocks when I run this code in parallel using a couple of threads. I've debugged it up to the point where I found out that the update statement sometimes gets executing twice for the same record. Now, I was under the impression that the with (updlock) should prevent this (it also happens with xlock btw, not with tablockx). So it actually look like there is a RangeS-U and a RangeX-X lock on the same range of records, which ought to be impossible. So what am I missing? I'm thinking it might have something to do with the top 1 clause or that SQL Server does not know that where Id=@RecordId is actually in the locked range? Deadlock graph: Table schema (simplified):

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  • entity framework insert bug

    - by tmfkmoney
    I found a previous question which seemed related but there's no resolution and it's 5 months old so I've opened my own version. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1545583/entity-framework-inserting-new-entity-via-objectcontext-does-not-use-existing-e When I insert records into my database with the following it works fine for a while and then eventually it starts inserting null values in the referenced field. This typically happens after I do an update on my model from the database although not always after I do an update. I'm using a MySQL database for this. I have debugged the code and the values are being set properly before the save event. They're just not getting inserted properly. I can always fix this issue by re-creating the model without touching any of my code. I have to recreate the entire model, though. I can't just dump the relevant tables and re-add them. This makes me think it doesn't have anything to do with my code but something with the entity framework. Does anyone else have this problem and/or solved it? using (var db = new MyModel()) { var stocks = from record in query let ticker = record.Ticker select new { company = db.Companies.FirstOrDefault(c => c.ticker == ticker), price = Convert.ToDecimal(record.Price), date_stamp = Convert.ToDateTime(record.DateTime) }; foreach (var stock in stocks) { if (stock.company != null) { var price = new StockPrice { Company = stock.company, price = stock.price, date_stamp = stock.date_stamp }; db.AddToStockPrices(price); } } db.SaveChanges(); }

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  • jQuery Accordion + Anchor Tag 'stuck as block' bug?

    - by DA
    Sample page: http://jsbin.com/ohuze/2 This is a simple jQuery UI Accordion. Each accordion panel has an UL (an OL works the same) with this markup: <ol> <li><a href="">Lorep ipsum dolor lorem ipsum dolor lorem ipsum dolor</a>?</li> <li><a href="">Lorep ipsum dolor lorem ipsum dolor lorem ipsum dolor</a>?</li> </ol> In IE6, you'll see that the <a> tag appears to be getting rendered as a block element, so the question mark ends up being pushed outside and not at the end of the line of text. In addition, the bullet and/or list item number is now bottom-aligned with the text rather than top-aligned. I've narrowed it down to the javascript that executes to make the accordion. It's not an issue with jQuery's CSS as disabling that, alone, doesn't resolve the issue. Anyone know what might be going on in IE6 to cause this rendering issue? UPDATE: Apparently, this is also an IE7 issue. UPDATE 2: After some more playing, I've narrowed things down a bit more: the bug has nothing to do with lists. The issue is any anchor tag within a jQuery Accordion will appear as display: block (even though it appears that the CSS still indicates display: inline) the bug has nothing to do with the actual CSS that jQuery UI uses to create the accordion. I created a test page that uses the fully rendered jQuery Accordion post-processed source code and the accompanying CSS. In that situation, the anchor tags remain inline. In conclusion: It appears that the process of rendering the accordion via javascript is messing up the display of the anchor tags. It may be a show/hide issue?

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  • how to get this value on method post using asp.net mvc

    - by kumar
    I have a lable in the view <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<CDC.ITT.Info.StudentBE>" %> <label for="FollowupDate"> Follow-up: <span><input type="text" id="exc-flwup" name="fdate" /></span> </label> $("input[id^='exc-flwup']").datepicker({ duration: '', showTime: true, constrainInput: true, stepMinutes: 30, stepHours: 1, altTimeField: '', time24h: true, minDate: 0 }); when I click on the input field I am getting popupcalender to select the date. My method post is <% using (Html.BeginForm("Update", "home", FormMethod.Post, new { @id = "exc-"})) { %> <%= Html.ValidationSummary(true)%> then Followupdate user is goign to select the perticular date he wants.. when this method post to the method.. public ActionResult Update(StudentBE e) { return View(); } this e should have the date value but I am not able to see the date selected there.. is there anything wrong I am doing here? thanks

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  • Inheritance and choose constructor from base class

    - by myle
    My question is rather simple, but I am stuck. How can I choose the desired constructor from base class? // node.h #ifndef NODE_H #define NODE_H #include <vector> // definition of an exception-class class WrongBoundsException { }; class Node { public: ... Node(double, double, std::vector<double>&) throw (WrongBoundsException); ... }; #endif // InternalNode.h #ifndef INTERNALNODE_H #define INTERNALNODE_H #include <vector> #include "Node.h" class InternalNode : public Node { public: // the position of the leftmost child (child left) int left_child; // the position of the parent int parent; InternalNode(double, double, std::vector<double>&, int parent, int left_child) throw (WrongBoundsException); private: int abcd; }; #endif // InternalNode.cpp #include "InternalNode.h" #define UNDEFINED_CHILD -1 #define ROOT -1 // Here is the problem InternalNode::InternalNode(double a, double b, std::vector<double> &v, int par, int lc) throw (WrongBoundsException) : Node(a, b, v), parent(par), left_child(lc) { std::cout << par << std::endl; } I get: $ g++ InternalNode.cpp InternalNode.cpp:16: error: declaration of ‘InternalNode::InternalNode(double, double, std::vector &, int, int) throw (WrongBoundsException)’ throws different exceptions InternalNode.h:17: error: from previous declaration ‘InternalNode::InternalNode(double, double, std::vector &, int, int)’ UPDATE 0: Fixed missing : UPDATE 1: Fixed throw exception

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