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  • C++ SQLDriverConnect API

    - by harshalkreddy
    Hi, I am using visual studio 2008 and sql server 2008 for developing application(SQL server is in my system). I need to fetch some fields from the database. I am using the SQLDriverConnect API to connect to the database. If I use the "SQL_DRIVER_PROMPT" I will get pop window to select the data source. I don't want this window to appear. As per my understanding this window will appear if we provide insufficient information in the connection string. I think I have provided all the information. I am trying to connect with windows authentication. I tried different options but still no luck. Please help me in solving this problem. Below is the code that I am using: //******************************************************************************** // SQLDriverConnect_ref.cpp // compile with: odbc32.lib user32.lib #include <windows.h> #include <sqlext.h> int main() { SQLHENV henv; SQLHDBC hdbc; SQLHSTMT hstmt; SQLRETURN retcode; SQLWCHAR OutConnStr[255]; SQLSMALLINT OutConnStrLen; SQLCHAR ConnStrIn[255] = "DRIVER={SQL Server};SERVER=(local);DSN=MyDSN;DATABASE=MyDatabase;Trusted_Connection=yes;"; //SQLWCHAR *ConntStr =(SQLWCHAR *) "DRIVER={SQL Server};DSN=MyDSN;"; HWND desktopHandle = GetDesktopWindow(); // desktop's window handle // Allocate environment handle retcode = SQLAllocHandle(SQL_HANDLE_ENV, SQL_NULL_HANDLE, &henv); // Set the ODBC version environment attribute if (retcode == SQL_SUCCESS || retcode == SQL_SUCCESS_WITH_INFO) { retcode = SQLSetEnvAttr(henv, SQL_ATTR_ODBC_VERSION, (SQLPOINTER*)SQL_OV_ODBC3, 0); // Allocate connection handle if (retcode == SQL_SUCCESS || retcode == SQL_SUCCESS_WITH_INFO) { retcode = SQLAllocHandle(SQL_HANDLE_DBC, henv, &hdbc); // Set login timeout to 5 seconds if (retcode == SQL_SUCCESS || retcode == SQL_SUCCESS_WITH_INFO) { SQLSetConnectAttr(hdbc, SQL_LOGIN_TIMEOUT, (SQLPOINTER)5, 0); retcode = SQLDriverConnect( // SQL_NULL_HDBC hdbc, desktopHandle, (SQLWCHAR *)ConnStrIn, SQL_NTS, OutConnStr, 255, &OutConnStrLen, SQL_DRIVER_NOPROMPT); // Allocate statement handle if (retcode == SQL_SUCCESS || retcode == SQL_SUCCESS_WITH_INFO) { retcode = SQLAllocHandle(SQL_HANDLE_STMT, hdbc, &hstmt); // Process data if (retcode == SQL_SUCCESS || retcode == SQL_SUCCESS_WITH_INFO) { SQLFreeHandle(SQL_HANDLE_STMT, hstmt); } SQLDisconnect(hdbc); } SQLFreeHandle(SQL_HANDLE_DBC, hdbc); } } SQLFreeHandle(SQL_HANDLE_ENV, henv); } } //******************************************************************************** Thanks in advance, Harsha

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  • Configuring a html page from an original demo page

    - by Wold
    I forked into rainyday.js through github, an awesome javascript program made by maroslaw at this link: https://github.com/maroslaw/rainyday.js. Basically I tried taking his demo page and my own photo city.jpg and changed the applicable fields so that I could run it on my own site, but only the picture loads and the script itself doesn't start to run. I'm pretty new to html and javascript so I'm probably omitting something very simple, but here is the script for the demo code: <script src="rainyday.js"></script> <script> function getURLParameter(name) { return decodeURIComponent((new RegExp('[?|&]' + name + '=' + '([^&;]+?)(&|#|;|$)').exec(location.search)||[,''])[1].replace(/\+/g, '%20'))||null; } function demo() { var image = document.getElementById('background'); image.onload = function () { var engine = null; var preset = getURLParameter('preset') || '1'; if (preset === '1') { engine = new RainyDay({ element: 'background', blur: 10, opacity: 1, fps: 30, speed: 30 }); engine.rain([ [1, 2, 8000] ]); engine.rain([ [3, 3, 0.88], [5, 5, 0.9], [6, 2, 1] ], 100); } else if (preset === '2') { engine = new RainyDay({ element: 'background', blur: 10, opacity: 1, fps: 30, speed: 30 }); engine.VARIABLE_GRAVITY_ANGLE = Math.PI / 8; engine.rain([ [0, 2, 0.5], [4, 4, 1] ], 50); } else if (preset === '3') { engine = new RainyDay({ element: 'background', blur: 10, opacity: 1, fps: 30, speed: 30 }); engine.trail = engine.TRAIL_SMUDGE; engine.rain([ [0, 2, 0.5], [4, 4, 1] ], 100); } }; image.crossOrigin = 'anonymous'; if (getURLParameter('imgur')) { image.src = 'http://i.imgur.com/' + getURLParameter('imgur') + '.jpg'; } else if (getURLParameter('img')) { image.src = getURLParameter('img') + '.jpg'; } var youtube = getURLParameter('youtube'); if (youtube) { var div = document.getElementById('sound'); var player = document.createElement('iframe'); player.frameborder = '0'; player.height = '1'; player.width = '1'; player.src = 'https://youtube.com/embed/' + youtube + '?autoplay=1&controls=0&showinfo=0&autohide=1&loop=1'; div.appendChild(player); } } </script> This is where I am naming my background and specifying the photo from within the directory. <body onload="demo();"> <div id="sound" style="z-index: -1;"></div> <div id="parent"> <img id='background' alt="background" src="city.jpg" /> </div> </body> The actual code for the whole entire rainyday.js script can be found here: https://github.com/maroslaw/rainyday.js/blob/master/rainyday.js Thanks in advance for any help and advice!

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  • Is it correct or incorrect for a Java JAR to contain its own dependencies?

    - by 4herpsand7derpsago
    I guess this is a two-part question. I am trying to write my own Ant task (MyFirstTask) that can be used in other project's build.xml buildfiles. To do this, I need to compile and package my Ant task inside its own JAR. Because this Ant task that I have written is fairly complicated, it has about 20 dependencies (other JAR files), such as using XStream for OX-mapping, Guice for DI, etc. I am currently writing the package task in the build.xml file inside the MyFirstTask project (the buildfile that will package myfirsttask.jar, which is the reusable Ant task). I am suddenly realizing that I don't fully understand the intention of a Java JAR. Is it that a JAR should not contain dependencies, and leave it to the runtime configuration (the app container, the runtime environment, etc.) to supply it with the dependencies it needs? I would assume if this is the case, an executable JAR is an exception to the rule, yes? Or, is it the intention for Java JARs to also include their dependencies? Either way, I don't want to be forcing my users to be copying-n-pasting 25+ JARs into their Ant libs; that's just cruel. I like the way WAR files are set up, where the classpath for dependencies is defined under the classes/ directory. I guess, ultimately, I'd like my JAR structure to look like: myfirsttask.jar/ com/ --> the root package of my compiled binaries config/ --> config files, XML, XSD, etc. classes/ --> all dependencies, guice-3.0.jar, xstream-1.4.3.jar, etc. META-INF/ MANIFEST.MF I assume that in order to accomplish this (and get the runtime classpath to also look into the classes/ directory), I'll need to modify the MANIFEST.MF somehow (I know there's a manifest attribute called ClassPath, I believe?). I'm just having a tough time putting everything together, and have a looming/lingering question about the very intent of JARs to begin with. Can someone please confirm whether Oracle intends for JARs to contain their dependencies or not? And, either way, what I would have to do in the manifest (or anywhere else) to make sure that, at runtime, the classpath can find the dependencies stored under the classes/ directory? Thanks in advance!

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  • How to infer the type of a derived class in base class?

    - by enzi
    I want to create a method that allows me to change arbitrary properties of classes that derive from my base class, the result should look like this: SetPropertyValue("size.height", 50); – where size is a property of my derived class and height is a property of size. I'm almost done with my implementation but there's one final obstacle that I want to solve before moving on, to describe this I will first have to explain my implementation a bit: Properties that can be modified are decorated with an attribute There's a method in my base class that searches for all derived classes and their decorated properties For each property I generate a "property modifier", a class that contains 2 delegates: one to set and one to get the value of the property. Property Modifiers are stored in a dictionary, with the name of the property as key In my base class, there is another dictionary that contains all property-modifier-dictionaries, with the Type of the respective class as key. What the SetPropertyValue method does is this: Get the correct property-modifier-dictionary, using the concrete type of the derived class (<- yet to solve) Get the property modifier of the property to change (e.g. of the property size) Use the get or set delegate to modify the property's value Some example code to clarify further: private static Dictionary<RuntimeTypeHandle, object> EditableTypes; //property-modifier-dictionary protected void SetPropertyValue<T>(EditablePropertyMap<T> map, string property, object value) { var property = map[property]; // get the property modifier property.Set((T)this, value); // use the set delegate (encapsulated in a method) } In the above code, T is the Type of the actual (derived) class. I need this type for the get/set delegates. The problem is how to get the EditablePropertyMap<T> when I don't know what T is. My current (ugly) solution is to pass the map in an overriden virtual method in the derived class: public override void SetPropertyValue(string property, object value) { base.SetPropertyValue((EditablePropertyMap<ExampleType>)EditableTypes[typeof(ExampleType)], property, value); } What this does is: get the correct dictionary containing the property modifiers of this class using the class's type, cast it to the appropiate type and pass it to the SetPropertyValue method. I want to get rid of the SetPropertyValue method in my derived class (since there are a lot of derived classes), but don't know yet how to accomplish that. I cannot just make a virtual GetEditablePropertyMap<T> method because I cannot infer a concrete type for T then. I also cannot acces my dictionary directly with a type and retrieve an EditablePropertyMap<T> from it because I cannot cast to it from object in the base class, since again I do not know T. I found some neat tricks to infere types (e.g. by adding a dummy T parameter), but cannot apply them to my specific problem. I'd highly appreciate any suggestions you may have for me.

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  • Dynamically loading modules in Python (+ threading question)

    - by morpheous
    I am writing a Python package which reads the list of modules (along with ancillary data) from a configuration file. I then want to iterate through each of the dynamically loaded modules and invoke a do_work() function in it which will spawn a new thread, so that the code runs in a separate thread. At the moment, I am importing the list of all known modules at the beginning of my main script - this is a nasty hack I feel, and is not very flexible, as well as being a maintenance pain. This is the function that spawns the threads. I will like to modify it to dynamically load the module when it is encountered. The key in the dictionary is the name of the module containing the code: def do_work(work_info): for (worker, dataset) in work_info.items(): #import the module defined by variable worker here... t = threading.Thread(target=worker.do_work, args=[dataset]) # I'll NOT dameonize since spawned children need to clean up on shutdown # Since the threads will be holding resources #t.daemon = True t.start() Question 1 When I call the function in my script (as written above), I get the following error: AttributeError: 'str' object has no attribute 'do_work' Which makes sense, since the dictionary key is a string (name of the module to be imported). When I add the statement: import worker before spawning the thread, I get the error: ImportError: No module named worker This is strange, since the variable name rather than the value it holds are being used - when I print the variable, I get the value (as I expect) whats going on? Question 2 As I mentioned in the comments section, I realize that the do_work() function written in the spawned children needs to cleanup after itself. My understanding is to write a clean_up function that is called when do_work() has completed successfully, or an unhandled exception is caught - is there anything more I need to do to ensure resources don't leak or leave the OS in an unstable state? Question 3 If I comment out the t.daemon flag statement, will the code stil run ASYNCHRONOUSLY?. The work carried out by the spawned children are pretty intensive, and I don't want to have to be waiting for one child to finish before spawning another child. BTW, I am aware that threading in Python is in reality, a kind of time sharing/slicing - thats ok Lastly is there a better (more Pythonic) way of doing what I'm trying to do?

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  • Using ImageMagick to create an image from a PDF...efficiently

    - by bigsweater
    I'm using ImageMagick to create a tiny JPG thumbnail image of an already-uploaded PDF. The code works fine. It's a WordPress widget, though this isn't necessarily WordPress specific. I'm unfamiliar with ImageMagick, so I was hoping somebody could tell me if this looks terrible or isn't following some best practices of some sort, or if I'm risking crashing the server. My questions, specifically, are: Is that image cached, or does the server have to re-generate the image every time somebody views the page? If it isn't cached, what's the best way to make sure the server doesn't have to regenerate the thumbnail? I tried to create a separate folder (/thumbs) for ImageMagick to put all the images in, instead of cluttering up the WP upload folders with images of PDFs. It kept throwing a permission error, despite 777 permissions on the folder in my testing environment. Why? Do the source/destination directories have to be the same? Am I doing anything incorrectly/inefficiently here that needs to be improved? The whole widget is on Pastebin: http://pastebin.com/WnSTEDm7 Relevant code: <?php if ( $url ) { $pdf = $url; $info = pathinfo($pdf); $filename = basename($pdf,'.'.$info['extension']); $uploads = wp_upload_dir(); $file_path = str_replace( $uploads['baseurl'], $uploads['basedir'], $url ); $dest_path = str_replace( '.pdf', '.jpg', $file_path ); $dest_url = str_replace( '.pdf', '.jpg', $pdf ); exec("convert \"{$file_path}[0]\" -colorspace RGB -geometry 60 $dest_path"); ?> <div class="entry"> <div class="widgetImg"> <p><a href="<?php echo $url; ?>" title="<?php echo $filename; ?>"><?php echo "<img src='".$dest_url."' alt='".$filename."' class='blueBorder' />"; ?></a></p> </div> <div class="widgetText"> <?php echo wpautop( $desc ); ?> <p><a class="downloadLink" href="<?php echo $url; ?>" title="<?php echo $filename; ?>">Download</a></p> </div> </div> <?php } ?> As you can see, the widget grabs whatever PDF is attached to the current page being viewed, creates an image of the first page of the PDF, stores it, then links to it in HTML. Thanks for any and all help!

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  • jquery load a specific #Div content from multiple html files

    - by Vikram
    Hello friends I am trying to make a Content Slider for my site. I have multiple HTML files and the structure of these files is like this: <div id="title"><h2>Title of the Slide</h2></div> <div id="image"><a href="http://mylink.com"><img src="image.jpg" width="600" height="300" alt="image"</a></div> <div id="content">Lorem Ipsum is simply dummy text of the printing and typesetting industry. Lorem Ipsum has been the industry's standard dummy text ever since the 1500s.</div> I have been trying to use the following script get content (but no success): <?php function render($position="") { ob_start(); foreach(glob("/slides/*.html") as $fileName) { $fname = basename( $fileName ); $curArr = file($fname); $slides[$fname ]['title'] = $curArr[0]; $slides[$fname ]['image'] = $curArr[1]; $slides[$fname ]['content'] = $curArr[2]; foreach($slides as $key => $value){ ?> <div id="slide-title"> <?php echo $value['title'] ?> </div> <div id="slide-content"> <?php echo $value['image'] ?> </div> <div id="slide-image"> <?php echo $value['content'] ?> </div> <?php }} ?> <?php return ob_get_clean(); } But then I came to know about a jQuery function.... (again no success) jQuery.noConflict(); (function($){ $(document).ready(function () { $('#slide-title').load('slides/slide1.html #title'); $('#slide-content').load('slides/slide1.html #content'); $('#slide-image').load('slides/slide1.html #image'); }); })(jQuery); Now My questions are..... Am I using the right syntax. How do I get the content from multiple files using jQuery. Please Note : My knowledge on Programming is almost '0'. I have just started learning it.

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  • Unit testing class in a web service in .net

    - by Dan Bailiff
    After some digging here, I took the advice in this thread: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/371961/how-to-unit-test-c-web-service-with-visual-studio-2008 I've created a separate class and my web service class is just a wrapper for that one. The problem is that when I try to create a unit test project in VS2008, it insists on creating a unit test that acts like I'm testing the web service calls instead of the class I specified. I can't get to the class I'm trying to test. I have a web service "subscription_api.asmx". The code behind is "subscription_api.cs" which contains the web method wrapper calls to the real code at "subscription.cs". I would expect to be able to do the following: [TestMethod()] public void GetSystemStatusTest() { subscription sub = new subscription(); XmlNode node = sub.GetSystemStatusTest(); Assert.IsNotNull(node); } But instead I get this mess which is autogenerated from VS'08: /// <summary> ///A test for GetSystemStatus ///</summary> // TODO: Ensure that the UrlToTest attribute specifies a URL to an ASP.NET page (for example, // http://.../Default.aspx). This is necessary for the unit test to be executed on the web server, // whether you are testing a page, web service, or a WCF service. [TestMethod()] [HostType("ASP.NET")] [AspNetDevelopmentServerHost("C:\\CVSROOT\\rnr\\pro\\product\\wms\\ss\\subscription_api", "/subscription_api")] [UrlToTest("http://localhost/subscription_api")] public void GetSystemStatusTest() { subscription_Accessor target = new subscription_Accessor(); // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value XmlNode expected = null; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value XmlNode actual; actual = target.GetSystemStatus(); Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); Assert.Inconclusive("Verify the correctness of this test method."); } Additionally, there is a "subscription_api.accessor" in the Test References folder. When I try this: [TestMethod()] public void GetSystemStatusTest2() { subscription_Accessor sub = new subscription_Accessor(); XmlNode node = sub.GetSystemStatus(); Assert.IsNotNull(node); } I get an error: Test method subscription_api.Test.subscriptionTest.GetSystemStatusTest2 threw exception: System.TypeInitializationException: The type initializer for 'subscription_Accessor' threw an exception. ---> System.ArgumentNullException: Value cannot be null. I'm really new to unit testing and feel lost. How can I create a unit test just for my subscription class in "subscription.cs" without testing the web service? Am I limited to testing within the same project (I hope not)? Do I have to put the target class in its own project outside of the web service project?

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  • I'm having trouble traversing a newly appended DOM element with jQuery

    - by culov
    I have a form that I want to be used to add entries. Once an entry is added, the original form should be reset to prepare it for the next entry, and the saved form should be duplicated prior to resetting and appended onto a div for 'storedEntries.' This much is working (for the most part), but Im having trouble accessing the newly created form... I need to change the value attribute of the submit button from 'add' to 'edit' so properly communicate what clicking that button should do. heres my form: <div class="newTruck"> <form id="addNewTruck" class='updateschedule' action="javascript:sub(sTime.value, eTime.value, lat.value, lng.value, street.value);"> <b style="color:green;">Opening at: </b> <input id="sTime" name="sTime" title="Opening time" value="Click to set opening time" class="datetimepicker"/> <b style="color:red;">Closing at: </b> <input id="eTime" name= "eTime" title="Closing time" value="Click to set closing time" class="datetimepicker"/> <label for='street'>Address</label> <input type='text' name='street' id='street' class='text' autocomplete='off'/> <input id='submit' class='submit' style="cursor: pointer; cursor: hand;" type="submit" value='Add new stop'/> <div id='suggests' class='auto_complete' style='display:none'></div> <input type='hidden' name='lat' id='lat'/> <input type='hidden' name='lng' id='lng'/> ive tried using a hundred different selectors with jquery to no avail... heres my script as it stands: function cloneAndClear(){ var id = name+now; $j("#addNewTruck").clone(true).attr("id",id).appendTo(".scheduledTrucks"); $j('#'+id).filter('#submit').attr('value', 'Edit'); $j("#addNewTruck")[0].reset(); createPickers(); } the element is properly cloned and inserted into the div, but i cant find a way to access this element... the third line in the script never works. Another problem i am having is that the 'values' in the cloned form revert back to the value in the source of the html rather than what the user inputs. advice on how to solve either of these issues is greatly appreciated!

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  • Jscrollpane causese text to disappear on internet explorer

    - by Crippletoe
    Hello all, in my current site, i am using the new Jscrollpane in order to generate a scrollbar for a menu (not my descision but the designer's descision so i dont wanna get into how 90's that all looks like..). my menu is based on a <UL> the <li> elements inside it have the attribute "text-align: right;". my problem that on IE alone the menu text doesnt show when i apply the ScrollPane to the menu. when i delete the ScrollPane function from my code- the menu re-appears. i checked the page with "microsoft Expression" DOM inspector in order to examine how IE sees my code and i can see the <li> elements there, only the text inside them is missing. when i disable the "text-align: right;" for the <li> in my CSS, the text shows again. i suspect this has something to do with the jScrollPane's containing which is relatively aligned but i cannot be sure.. can anyone suggest some fix for this problem? a link to a page where you can see the problem is here: http://kaplanoland.com/index.php?option=com_content&view=article&id=2&Itemid=12 the problematic menu is on the right side of the page. on every browser but IE you can see the text. only on IE not. my CSS code for that menu (not including the jScrollPane CSS) is here: div#menu2{ position: absolute; top: 123px; right: 36px; width: 330px; height: 150px; } div#menu2_scroll{ /*the actual scroller*/ height: 150px; } div#menu2 div#menu2_contain{ } div#menu2 li{ text-align: right; } div#menu2 li span{ line-height: 18px; } div#menu2 a:link, div#menu2 a:visited{ color: #808285 ; font-family: Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif ; font-size: 12px ; } div#menu2 a:hover, div#menu2 li#current a{ color: #000000 ; font-family: Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif ; font-size: 12px ; } div#menu2 span.separator{ display: block; padding-top: 12px; padding-bottom: 40px; font-family: Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif; font-size: 12px; font-weight: bold; color: #000000; } div#menu2 span.separator span { padding-top: 12px; border-top-width: 1px; border-top-style: solid; border-top-color: #808285; } thank you all so much.

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  • XSD: xs:sequence & xs:choice combination for xs:extension elements of a common base type?

    - by bguiz
    Hi, My question is about defining an XML schema that will validate the following XML: <rules> <other>...</other> <bool>...</bool> <other>...</other> <string>...</string> <other>...</other> </rules> The order of the child nodes does not matter. The cardinality of the child nodes is 0..unbounded. All the child elements of the rules node have a common base type, rule, like so: <xs:complexType name="booleanRule"> <xs:complexContent> <xs:extension base="rule"> ... </xs:extension> </xs:complexContent> </xs:complexType> <xs:complexType name="stringFilterRule"> <xs:complexContent> <xs:extension base="filterRule"> ... </xs:extension> </xs:complexContent> </xs:complexType> My current (feeble) attempt at defining the schema for the rules node is below. However, Can I nest xs:choice within xs:sequence? If, where do I specify the maxOccurs="unbounded" attribute? Is there a better way to do this, such as an xs:sequence which specifies only the base type of its child elements? <xs:element name="rules"> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <xs:choice> <xs:element name="bool" type="booleanRule" /> <xs:element name="string" type="stringRule" /> <xs:element name="other" type="someOtherRule" /> </xs:choice> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType> </xs:element>

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  • How to know there is something in the cell or not ?

    - by Harikrishna
    I have table like below in the html file: <table border="1"> <tr> <td>BuyQuantity</td><td>SellQuantity</td> </tr> <tr> <td>15D</td><td>&nbsp;<span style="font-family: &quot;Arial Unicode MS&quot;;"><o:p></o:p></span></p></td> </tr> <tr> <td>&nbsp;<span style="font-family: &quot;Arial Unicode MS&quot;;"><o:p></o:p></span></td><td>38D</td> </tr> <tr> <td>&nbsp;<span style="font-family: &quot;Arial Unicode MS&quot;;"><o:p></o:p></span></td><td>99D</td> </tr> <tr> <td>38D</td><td>&nbsp;<span style="font-family: &quot;Arial Unicode MS&quot;;"><o:p></o:p></span></td> </tr> </table> There are two columns: buy-quantity and sell-quantity.(It is only example but in each html file there is different content in the table.) Now with the content of these two columns I want to decide there is items bought or items sold.Like in the first row there is 15d buy-qauntity then items were bought and in the second row there is 38d sell-qauntity then items were sold and so on. And after deciding there is items-bought or items-sold I want to build one column named buy/sell for this table like below: ![alt text][1] [1]: http://C:\Documents and Settings\Administrator\My Documents\My Pictures\untitled.png How can I do this ?

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  • jQuery multiple class selection

    - by morpheous
    I am a bit confused with this: I have a page with a set of buttons (i.e. elements with class attribute 'button'. The buttons belong to one of two classes (grp1 and grp2). These are my requirements For buttons with class enabled, when the mouse hovers over them, a 'button-hover' class is added to them (i.e. the element the mouse is hovering over). Otherwise, the hover event is ignored When one of the buttons with class grp2 is clicked on (it has to be 'enabled' first), then I disable (i.e. remove the 'enabled' class for all elements with class 'enabled' (should probably selecting for elements with class 'button' AND 'enabled' - but I am having enough problems as it is, so I need to keep things simple for now). This is what my page looks like: <html> <head> <title>Demo</title> <style type="text/css" .button {border: 1px solid gray; color: gray} .enabled {border: 1px solid red; color: red} .button-hover {background-color: blue; } </style> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> </head> <body> <div class="btn-cntnr"> <span class="grp1 button enabled">button 1</span> <span class="grp2 button enabled">button 2</span> <span class="grp2 button enabled">button 3</span> <span class="grp2 button enabled">button 4</span> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> /* <![CDATA[ */ $(document).ready(function(){ $(".button.enabled").hover(function(){ $(this).toggleClass('button-hover'); }, function() { $(this).toggleClass('button-hover'); }); $('.grp2.enabled').click(function(){ $(".grp2").removeClass('enabled');} }); /* ]]> */ </script> </body> </html> Currently, when a button with class 'grp2' is clicked on, the other elements with class 'grp2' have the 'enabled' class removed (works correctly). HOWEVER, I notice that even though the class no longer have a 'enabled' class, SOMEHOW, the hover behaviour is still applied to these elemets (WRONG). Once an element has been 'disabled', I no longer want it to respond to the hover() event. How may I implement this behavior, and what is wrong with the code above (i.e. why is it not working? (I am still learning jQuery)

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  • Elements added with appendTo() not immediately available

    - by Zip Gun Jim
    I'm having a problem with elements added with appendTo() not being immediately available in the DOM. First, I'm reading some data from a JSON file and then appending some html to a div. jsonUrl = "js/performers.json"; $.getJSON(jsonUrl, function(json) { $.each(json.performers, function(i, performer) { var html = '<div class="performer_mini">'; html += '<img src="' + performer.thumbnail + '" alt="' + performer.name + '" /><br />'; html += performer.name + '<br /></div>'; $(html).appendTo("div#performer_spotlight"); }); }); Then I'm calling a random shuffler plugin to show one of the added divs at a time. $("#performer_spotlight").randomShuffler(".performer_mini", 3000, 3000, 9000); The random shuffler does the following: (function($) { $.fn.randomShuffler = function(shuffledElements, fadeInTime, fadeOutTime, timeout) { fadeInTime = fadeInTime || 3000; fadeOutTime = fadeOutTime || 3000; timeout = timeout || 9000; $(shuffledElements).hide(); var $old_element; var $new_element; var old_index = 0; var new_index = 0; function shuffleElement() { $old_element = $new_element; old_index = new_index; while ($(shuffledElements).length > 0 && old_index == new_index) { // don't display the same element twice in a row new_index = Math.floor(Math.random()*$(shuffledElements).length); } $new_element = $(shuffledElements + ":eq(" + new_index + ")"); if ($old_element != undefined) { $old_element.fadeOut(fadeOutTime, function() { $new_element.fadeIn(fadeInTime); }); } else { $new_element.fadeIn(fadeInTime); } setTimeout(shuffleElement, timeout); } $(this).show(); shuffleElement(); } })(jQuery); The first time the shuffleElement() function is called $(shuffledElements).length equals 0, so no element is displayed. On the next call to shuffleElement(), the elements added with appendTo() are available and one is selected at random as expected. Everything works correctly after that. Is there some way to refresh the DOM or make these elements available to jQuery immediately after I add them with appendTo()? Any other suggestions for how to accomplish this?

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  • php database image show problem

    - by Termedi
    here is the code <?php session_start(); if(!isset($_SESSION['user_name'])) { header('Location: login.php'); } $conn = mysql_connect("localhost", "root", "") or die("Can no connect to Database Server"); ?> <html> <head> </head> <body> <center> <div id="ser"> <form action="" method="post"> <label for="file">Card No:</label> <input type="text" name="card_no" id="card_no" class="fil" onKeyUp="CardNoLength()" onKeyDown="CardNoLength()" onKeyPress="CardNoLength()"/> <input type="submit" name="search" value="Search" class="btn" onClick="return CardNoLengthMIN()"/> </form> </div> </center> <br/><hr style="border: 1px solid #606060 ;" /> <center><a href="index.php">Home</a></center> <br/> <center> <?php if(isset($_POST['card_no'])) { if($conn) { if(mysql_select_db("img_mgmt", $conn)) { $sql = "select * from temp_images where card_no='".trim($_POST['card_no'])."'"; $result = mysql_query($sql); $image = mysql_fetch_array($result); if(isset($image['card_no'])) { //echo "<img src=\"".$image['file_path']."\" alt=\"".$image['card_no']."\" width=\"250\" height=\"280\"/>"; header("Content-type: image/jpeg"); echo $image['img_content']; } else { echo "<p style=\"color:red;\">Sorry, Your search came with no results ! <br/> Try with different card number"; } } else { echo "Database selection error: ".mysql_error(); } } else { echo "Could not connect: ".mysql_error(); } } ?> </center> </body> </html> But it after executing the script it shows: Cannot modify header information - headers already sent by (output started at C:\xampp\htdocs\img\search.php:61) in C:\xampp\htdocs\img\search.php on line 77

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  • Showing div based on filled form field

    - by Fabio
    I have this script where I use a slider to show some elements of a form. So far so good. The way I'm doing it is by having a slider (can't use a multistep form since it uses a plugin not allowing multistep forms, plus some graphic behaviors) and a button that goes to the next slider. So now I need that button (not part of the form) to show only if a certain field is filled. I tried teh following, but it's not working, I assume some error but can't figure what. My code is as follows: $('#clientname').change(function() { var clientVal = $("input").val() == ''; $(".next").hide(); if ($('#clientname').val() != '').show(); else $('.next').hide(); }); and the html as follows: <div class="b40-right"> <h3>The Basics</h3> <div class="label"> Your Name (required)</div> <div class="inputes"> <span class="wpcf7-form-control-wrap your-name"><input id="clientname" type="text" name="your-name" value="" class="wpcf7-form-control wpcf7-text wpcf7-validates-as-required" size="40" /></span> </div> <div class="label">Your Email (required)</div> <div class="inputes"> <span class="wpcf7-form-control-wrap your-email"><input type="text" name="your-email" value="" class="wpcf7-form-control wpcf7-text wpcf7-email wpcf7-validates-as-required wpcf7-validates-as-email" size="40" /></span> </div> <div class="label">Type of Business</div> <div class="inputes"> <span class="wpcf7-form-control-wrap type-of-business"><textarea name="type-of-business" class="wpcf7-form-control wpcf7-textarea" cols="40" rows="10"></textarea></span> </div> </div> <a class="next" href="javascript:stepcarousel.stepBy('mygallery2', 1)"><img id="nextbut1" src="<?php bloginfo('template_directory'); ?>/images/next.png" alt="" /></a> any help on what am I doing wrong? Is there a better approach/solution? (I'm not a programmer as you may figure) Thank you in advance!

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  • Searching in XML using Xpath

    - by Sathish
    I have an XML file like below , using xpath and xnavigator how can get the Value of the supplied Tag Attribute for example if i supply RangeName i should get AssumptClient <Validations> <FieldInfo id="1"> <Name>OMID</Name> <Mandatory>Yes</Mandatory> <RangeName>AssumptOMID</RangeName> <DataType>int</DataType> <MaxLength>10</MaxLength> </FieldInfo> <FieldInfo id="2"> <Name>ClientName</Name> <Mandatory>Yes</Mandatory> <RangeName>AssumptClient</RangeName> <DataType>string</DataType> <MaxLength>50</MaxLength> </FieldInfo> <FieldInfo id="3"> <Name>OppName</Name> <Mandatory>Yes</Mandatory> <RangeName>AssumptProjectName</RangeName> <DataType>string</DataType> <MaxLength>50</MaxLength> </FieldInfo> <FieldInfo id="4"> <Name>OperatingGroup</Name> <Mandatory>Yes</Mandatory> <RangeName>AssumptOperatingGroup</RangeName> <DataType>string</DataType> <MaxLength>50</MaxLength> </FieldInfo> </Validations> for now i am using the below code XPathDocument doc; XPathNavigator nav; XPathExpression expr; XPathNodeIterator iterator; doc = new XPathDocument(strConfigFile); nav = doc.CreateNavigator(); expr = nav.Compile("/configuration/Validations/FieldInfo[RangeName='AssumptClient']"); iterator = nav.Select(expr); if (iterator.MoveNext()) { XPathNavigator nav2 = iterator.Current.Clone(); textBox1.Text = nav2.GetAttribute("RangeName", ""); }

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  • C# Getting a node with attributes from SelectSingleNode

    - by bdefreese
    Hi folks, I am quite the n00b but lately I have been playing with parsing some XML data. I actually found a nice feature on this site where I can get to a specific node with a specific attribute by doing: docFoo.SelectSingleNode("foo/bar/baz[@name='qux']); However, the data looks like this: <saving-throws> <saving-throw> <name>Fortitude</name> <abbr>Fort</abbr> <ability>Con</ability> <modifiers> <modifier name="base" value="2"/> <modifier name="ability" value="5"/> <modifier name="magic" value="0"/> <modifier name="feat" value="0"/> <modifier name="race" value="0"/> <modifier name="familar" value="0"/> <modifier name="feature" value="0"/> <modifier name="user" value="0"/> <modifier name="misc" value="0"/> </modifiers> </saving-throw> <saving-throw> <name>Reflex</name> <abbr>Ref</abbr> <ability>Dex</ability> <modifiers> <modifier name="base" value="6"/> <modifier name="ability" value="1"/> <modifier name="magic" value="0"/> <modifier name="feat" value="0"/> <modifier name="race" value="0"/> <modifier name="familar" value="0"/> <modifier name="feature" value="0"/> <modifier name="user" value="0"/> <modifier name="misc" value="0"/> </modifiers> </saving-throw> And I want to be able to get the node with name=base but for each saving-throw node where childnode "abbr" = xx. Can I somehow do that in a single SelectSingleNode or am I going to have to stop at saving throw and walk through the rest of the tree? Thanks!

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  • Multiple column subselect in mysql 5 (5.1.42)

    - by rubber boots
    This one seems to be a simple problem, but I can't make it work in a single select or nested select. Retrieve the authors and (if any) advisers of a paper (article) into one row. I order to explain the problem, here are the two data tables (pseudo) papers (id, title, c_year) persons (id, firstname, lastname) plus a link table w/one extra attribute (pseudo): paper_person_roles( paper_id person_id act_role ENUM ('AUTHOR', 'ADVISER') ) This is basically a list of written papers (table: papers) and a list of staff and/or students (table: persons) An article my have (1,N) authors. An article may have (0,N) advisers. A person can be in 'AUTHOR' or 'ADVISER' role (but not at the same time). The application eventually puts out table rows containing the following entries: TH: || Paper_ID | Author(s) | Title | Adviser(s) | TD: || 21334 |John Doe, Jeff Tucker|Why the moon looks yellow|Brown, Rayleigh| ... My first approach was like: select/extract a full list of articles into the application, eg.SELECT q.id, q.title FROM papers AS q ORDER BY q.c_year and save the results of the query into an array (in the application). After this step, loop over the array of the returned information and retrieve authors and advisers (if any), via prepared statement (? is the paper's id) from the link table like:APPLICATION_LOOP(paper_ids in array) SELECT p.lastname, p.firstname, r.act_role FROM persons AS p, paper_person_roles AS r WHERE p.id=r.person_id AND r.paper_id = ? # The application does further processing from here (pseudo): foreach record from resulting records if record.act_role eq 'AUTHOR' then join to author_column if record.act_role eq 'ADVISER' then join to avdiser_column end print id, author_column, title, adviser_column APPLICATION_LOOP This works so far and gives the desired output. Would it make sense to put the computation back into the DB? I'm not very proficient in nontrivial SQL and can't find a solution with a single (combined or nested) select call. I tried sth. like SELECT q.title (CONCAT_WS(' ', (SELECT p.firstname, p.lastname AS aunames FROM persons AS p, paper_person_roles AS r WHERE q.id=r.paper_id AND r.act_role='AUTHOR') ) ) AS aulist FROM papers AS q, persons AS p, paper_person_roles AS r in several variations, but no luck ... Maybe there is some chance? Thanks in advance r.b.

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  • Navbar Menu Trouble shoot

    - by Nabeel M
    So I wanted to create the fixed nav bar on top of the page. Instead of creating nav bar with ordered list, I used the following approach: <header> <div class="nav"> <img src="images/logo_ab.png" alt="AurinBioTech Logo"/> <a href="index.html">Home</a> <a href="#">About</a> <a href="#">Team</a> <a href="#">Science</a> <a href="#">Need</a> <a href="#">Pipeline</a> <a href="#">Contact</a> </div> </header> CSS: header .nav { margin-top:100px; width:100%; height:10%; text-align:center; padding-top:2%; margin:0 auto; position:fixed; top:0; } header .nav a { font-size: 2em; padding-left: 15px; padding-right: 15px; color:rgb(1, 1, 1); text-decoration: none; font-family: 'Bebas'; } header .nav a:hover { color:white; background-color: #404040; border-radius:5px; padding:0 auto; } header .nav a:active{ background-color: #404040; border-radius:5px; text-decoration:overline; } header .nav img { width:260px; height:65px; padding-right:4em; } The reason I used this approach is because I wanted to use logo image next to the nav bar so it would align properly in the same line. Now the problem is that I need to add sub-menus under Science and Pipeline heading. Since I didn't use UL or LI, how can I add sub-menus under those heading. OR, can you tell me any other way to create a NAV bar that shows the logo as well. so it would be LOGO and MENUS on the same line. Great thanks in advance.

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  • How can I run an android frame animation without it skewing?

    - by GameDev123
    I have a small state machine that runs a series of frame by frame animations in an ImageView, in a nested hierarchy of layouts. There is more than adequate space to display each frame of the animation. Each frame of the animation is cropped to fit the minimum amount of area, in order to save memory. If a frame only contains 50x50 worth of pixels then the png is 50x50. There is no transparent padding to keep them the same size. The ImageView is directly within a RelativeLayout, and is anchored to the bottom left with some padding. The general idea being that the character in the animation performs some action, which results in individual frames of the animation growing or shrinking. The issue is that individual frames of animation are skewed, and there does not appear to be any way of preventing this. If I set the source of the imageview directly to one of the frames of animation, it displays fine in the layout manager. I have tried this with Adjust View Bounds set to true, false, and undefined. I have tried using the background and the src attribute of imageview to set the animation drawable, I have tried every configuration of layout manager and setting minimum/maximum size that I can think of, and it still stretches the character on various frames depending on the size of the source png. In essence, all I want to do is say "I want this ImageView to anchor in the bottom left and then display any frame that happens to be in it without stretching or skewing it in any way aside from that which occurred when the frame png's were loaded." Seems simple, but I have yet to come across any way of doing it. Here is the layout of the imageview as of my last test, I had to remove bits of the XML to get it to display but nothing pertinent: RelativeLayout android:orientation="horizontal" android:layout_above="@+id/MenuOptions" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:id="@+id/AnimationLayout" android:clipChildren="false" android:minHeight="180dp" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:layout_below="@+id/GameBarLayout" ImageView android:id="@+id/animatedImg" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:visibility="visible" android:baselineAlignBottom="true" android:minHeight="180dp" android:minWidth="200dp" android:adjustViewBounds="true" android:layout_alignParentBottom="true" android:paddingLeft="30dp" android:paddingBottom="10dp" android:src="@drawable/idle01"/ImageView /RelativeLayout Here is how an animation is set up: animationDrawable = new AnimationDrawable(); animationDrawable.addFrame(res.getDrawable(R.drawable.idle01), 16); animationDrawable.addFrame(res.getDrawable(R.drawable.idle02), 16); animationDrawable.addFrame(res.getDrawable(R.drawable.idle03), 16);

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  • position:absolute within border-radius and overflow:hidden

    - by JaNightmare
    I had a problem with border-radius in webkit browsers and found the solution at the following URL: How to make CSS3 rounded corners hide overflow in Chrome/Opera but iam using a another element with position: absolute; inside this now I need to make the caption with rounded border too, but do not know how note: i can't use another border-radius in caption, because this will have an animation see the code with: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8"> <title>Problem</title> <style type="text/css"> img { border: 0; } a { text-decoration: none; } .wrap-events { float: left; position: relative; width: 500px; height: 250px; } .events { overflow: hidden; -webkit-border-radius: 50px; -moz-border-radius: 50px; border-radius: 50px; } .caption { position: absolute; width: 100%; bottom: 0; color: #FFFFFF; background-color: #151515; font: 12px "Arial", Helvetica, sans-serif; opacity: 0.6; border-radius: 0 0 50px 50px; /* add border-radius to caption */ } .caption p { padding: 10px; } </style> </head> <body> <div class="wrap-events"> <div class="events"> <a href="#"> <img src="http://www.cg-auto.com.br/forum/imagens/imagens_news/26c4dc4359edcfd4c6871ee1fa958539.jpg" alt="image"> </a> <div class="caption"> <p>This is a caption</p> </div> </div> </div> <button id="slide">Slide It!</button> <script type="text/javascript" src="https://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.7.1/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $('#slide').click(function(){ $('.caption').hide().slideDown(2000); }); </script> </body> </html> cheers

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  • How to display image from server (newest-oldest) to a new php page?

    - by Jben Kaye
    i have a form that create images and save it on a folder in the server. What i need to do is to display ALL created images to another page, the newest on the top and so that the oldest is at the bottom. i have a form called formdisplay.php but it's just displaying a broken image and not newest to oldest. hope you can help me with this. really need to get this working. thanks in advance for your help. i have read the posts but none of those worked for me. Pull dedicated images from folder - show image + filename (strip part of filename + file-extension) How can I display latest uploaded image first? (PHP+CSS) getting images from the server and display them Displaying images from folder in php display image from server embedding php in html formcreatesave.php imagecopymerge($im, $img2, 10, 350, 0, 0, imagesx($img2), imagesy($img2), 100); $date_created = date("YmdHis");//get date created $img_name = "-img_entry.jpg"; //the file name of the generated image $img_newname = $date_created . $img_name; //datecreated+name $img_dir =dirname($_SERVER['SCRIPT_FILENAME']) ."/". $img_newname; //the location to save imagejpeg($im, $img_dir , 80); //function to save the image with the name and quality imagedestroy($im); formdisplay.php $dir = '/home3/birdieon/public_html/Amadeus/uploader/uploader'; $base_url = 'http://birdieonawire.com/Amadeus/uploader/uploader/20131027024705-img_entry.jpg'; $newest_mtime = 0; $show_file = 'BROKEN'; if ($handle = opendir($dir)) { while (false !== ($file = readdir($handle))) { if (($file != '.') && ($file != '..')) { $mtime = filemtime("$dir/$file"); if ($mtime > $newest_mtime) { $newest_mtime = $mtime; $show_file = "$base_url/$file"; } } } } print '<img src="' .$show_file. '" alt="Image Title Here">'; please feel free to edit my code. thanks :)

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  • Why jQuery selector can't work but getElementById works in this scenario?

    - by Stallman
    Here is the HTML: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery-1.7.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8" src="jquery-1.7.2.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="access.js"></script> </head> <body> <button id="trigger"></button> <img id= "testElement" style= "position: absolute; border-color: white; top:340px; left:615px;" width="34px" height= "34px" /> </body> </html> And the access.js file is: $(document).ready( function(){ $('#trigger').click(function(){ $('#testElement').src="success.png"; //THIS WON'T WORK. document.getElementById('testElement').src= "success.png"; //BUT THIS WORKS. }); }); I know that if I use $, the return object is a jQuery object. It's not the same as getElementById. But why the jQuery selector can't work here? I need the jQuery object to make more operations like "append/style"... Thanks. UPDATE Too much correct answers appear at almost the same time... Please give more explanations to let me decide who I should give the credit, thanks!!! Sorry for my poor understanding of your correct answer... I just want more detail. Are all the attribute nodes(src/width/height...) not the property of jQuery object? So does the jQuery selector only select DOM Element Node like ? Thank you! 3. List item

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  • NHibernate does not update entity when repository is passed by constructor

    - by Alex
    Hi everybody, I am developing with NHibernate for the first time in conjunction with ASP.NET MVC and StructureMap. The CodeCampServer serves as a great example for me. I really like the different concepts which were implemented there and I can learn a lot from it. In my controllers I use Constructur Dependency Injection to get an instance of the specific repository needed. My problem is: If I change an attribute of the customer the customer's data is not updated in the database, although Commit() is called on the transaction object (by a HttpModule). public class AccountsController : Controller { private readonly ICustomerRepository repository; public AccountsController(ICustomerRepository repository) { this.repository = repository; } public ActionResult Save(Customer customer) { Customer customerToUpdate = repository .GetById(customer.Id); customerToUpdate.GivenName = "test"; //<-- customer does not get updated in database return View(); } } On the other hand this is working: public class AccountsController : Controller { [LoadCurrentCustomer] public ActionResult Save(Customer customer) { customer.GivenName = "test"; //<-- Customer gets updated return View(); } } public class LoadCurrentCustomer : ActionFilterAttribute { public override void OnActionExecuting(ActionExecutingContext filterContext) { const string parameterName = "Customer"; if (filterContext.ActionParameters.ContainsKey(parameterName)) { if (filterContext.HttpContext.User.Identity.IsAuthenticated) { Customer CurrentCustomer = DependencyResolverFactory .GetDefault() .Resolve<IUserSession>() .GetCurrentUser(); filterContext.ActionParameters[parameterName] = CurrentCustomer; } } base.OnActionExecuting(filterContext); } } public class UserSession : IUserSession { private readonly ICustomerRepository repository; public UserSession(ICustomerRepository customerRepository) { repository = customerRepository; } public Customer GetCurrentUser() { var identity = HttpContext.Current.User.Identity; if (!identity.IsAuthenticated) { return null; } Customer customer = repository.GetByEmailAddress(identity.Name); return customer; } } I also tried to call update on the repository like the following code shows. But this leads to an NHibernateException which says "Illegal attempt to associate a collection with two open sessions". Actually there is only one. public ActionResult Save(Customer customer) { Customer customerToUpdate = repository .GetById(customer.Id); customer.GivenName = "test"; repository.Update(customerToUpdate); return View(); } Does somebody have an idea why the customer is not updated in the first example but is updated in the second example? Why does NHibernate say that there are two open sessions?

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