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• Python 3.0 IDE - Komodo and Eclipse both flaky?

  - by victorhooi

  heya, I'm trying to find a decent IDE that supports Python 3.x, and offers code completion/in-built Pydocs viewer, Mercurial integration, and SSH/SFTP support. Anyhow, I'm trying Pydev, and I open up a .py file, it's in the Pydev perspective and the Run As doesn't offer any options. It does when you start a Pydev project, but I don't want to start a project just to edit one single Python script, lol, I want to just open a .py file and have It Just Work... Plan 2, I try Komodo 6 Alpha 2. I actually quite like Komodo, and it's nice and snappy, offers in-built Mercurial support, as well as in-built SSH support (although it lacks SSH HTTP Proxy support, which is slightly annoying). However, for some reason, this refuses to pick up Python 3. In Edit-Preferences-Languages, there's two option, one for Python and Python3, but the Python3 one refuses to work, with either the official Python.org binaries, or ActiveState's own ActivePython 3. Of course, I can set the "Python" interpreter to the 3.1 binary, but that's an ugly hack and breaks Python 2.x support. So, does anybody who uses an IDE for Python have any suggestions on either of these accounts, or can you recommend an alternate IDE for Python 3.0 development? Cheers, Victor

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• Strange Problem with Webservice and IIS

  - by Rene

  Hello there, I have a Problem which confuses me a little bit, resp. where I don't have any Idea about what it could be. The System I'm using is Windows Vista, IIS 7.0, VS2008, Windows Software Factory, Entity Framework, WCF. The Binding for all Webservices is wshttpbinding. I'm using a Webservice hosted in IIS. This Webservice uses/calls another Webservice (also installed in the IIS). If I use a client calling the first Webservice (which calls the second Webservice) it works fine for about 4-10 Times. And then (it is repeatable to get this Problem, but sometimes it happens after 4, sometimes after 10 Time, but it always will happen), the Service and the IIS gets stuck. Stuck means, that this Webservice isn't callable anymore and generates an timeout after 1 minute. Even increasing Timeout doesn't change anything. If i try to restart the IIS I get an timeout error. So the IIS is also "stuck" (it is not really stuck, but I can't restart it). Only if I kill the w3wp.exe IIS is restartable and the Webservice will work again (until i again call this service several times). The logfiles (i'm no expert in things like logging or where to find/enable such logs, so to say : i'm a newbie) like http-logging, Event Viewer or WCF-Message Logging don't show any hints upon the source of the problem. I don't have this problem when I'm using a Webservice which doesn't call another Service. Calling a Webservice is done by Service Reference (I'm using no Proxy-Classes), but I think this should be no Problem. I have no idea of what is happening, nor how to solve this Problem. Regards Rene

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• Is F# a good language for card game AI?

  - by Anthony Brien

  I'm writing a Mahjong Game in C# (the Chinese traditional game, not the solitaire kind). While writing the code for the bot player's AI, I'm wondering if a functional language like F# would be a more suitable language than what I currently use which is C# with a lot of Linq. I don't know much about F# which is why I ask here. To illustrate what I try to solve, here's a quick summary of Mahjong: Mahjong plays a bit like Gin Rummy. You have 13 tiles in your hand, and each turn, you draw a tile and discard another one, trying to improve your hand towards a winning Mahjong hand, which consists or 4 sets and a pair. Sets can be a 3 of a kind (pungs), 4 of a kind (kongs) or a sequence of 3 consecutive tiles (chows). You can also steal another player's discard, if it can complete one of your sets. The code I had to write to detect if the bot can declare 3 consecutive tiles set (chow) is pretty tedious. I have to find all the unique tiles in the hand, and then start checking if there's a sequence of 3 tiles that contain that one in the hand. Detecting if the bot can go Mahjong is even more complicated since it's a combination of detecting if there's 4 sets and a pair in his hand. And that's just a standard Mahjong hand. There's also numerous "special" hands that break those rules but are still a Mahjong hand. For example, "13 unique wonders" consists of 13 specific tiles, "Jade Empire" consists of only tiles colored green, etc. In a perfect world, I'd love to be able to just state the 'rules' of Mahjong, and have the language be able to match a set of 13 tiles against those rules to retrieve which rules it fulfills, for example, checking if it's a Mahjong hand or if it includes a 4 of a kind. Is this something F#'s pattern matching feature can help solve?

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• Can't block capslock with CGEventTap

  - by Thor Frølich

  I'm using Quartz CGEventTap in an attempt to globally intercept capslock presses and block them (to have them do something useful instead). I succesfully detect capslock presses but have so far been unable to block them. My code (originating from this stackoverflow answer) is something like this: eventTap = CGEventTapCreate(kCGHIDEventTap, kCGTailAppendEventTap, kCGEventTapOptionDefault, eventMask, myCGEventCallback, &oldFlags); runLoopSource = CFMachPortCreateRunLoopSource(kCFAllocatorDefault, eventTap, 0); CFRunLoopAddSource(CFRunLoopGetCurrent(), runLoopSource, kCFRunLoopCommonModes); CGEventTapEnable(eventTap, true); CGEventRef myCGEventCallback(CGEventTapProxy proxy, CGEventType type, CGEventRef theEvent, void *refcon) { CGEventFlags *oldFlags = (CGEventFlags *)refcon; switch (type) { case kCGEventFlagsChanged: { CGEventFlags newFlags = CGEventGetFlags(theEvent); CGEventFlags changedFlags = *oldFlags ^ newFlags; *oldFlags = newFlags; if (changedFlags == 65536) { NSLog(@"Capslock pressed. Let's not return the event"); return NULL; } break; } default: break; } NSLog(@"Different modifier than capslock. Returning the event"); return theEvent; } If I understand correctly returning NULL should effectively block the keypress from propagating. Indeed it also does for "normal" keyup and -down events. However capslock toggles regardless. Any ideas why that is? Am I making incorrect assumptions? And/or how can I do things differently to achieve my goal? Thanks, Thor

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• Automatic .NET code, nhibernate session, and LINQ datacontext clean-up?

  - by AverageJoe719

  Hi all, in my goal to adopt better coding practices I have a few questions in general about automatic handling of code. I have heard different answers both from online and talking with other developers/programmers at my work. I am not sure if I should have split them into 3 questions, but they all seem sort of related: 1) How does .NET handle instances of classes and other code things that take up memory? I recently found out about using the factory pattern for certain things like service classes so that they are only instantiated once in the entire application, but then I was told that '.NET handles a lot of that stuff automatically when mentioning it.' 2) How does Nhibernate's session handle automatic clean-up of un-used things? I've seen some say that it is great at handling things automatically and you should just use a session factory and that's it, no need to close it. But I have also read and seem many examples where people close the hibernate session. 3) How does LINQ's datacontext handle this? Most of the time I never .disposed my datacontext's and the app didn't see to take a performance hit (though I am not running anything super intensively), but it seems like most people recommend disposing of your datacontext after you are done with it. However, I have seen many many code examples where the dispose method is never called. Also in general I found it kind of annoying that you couldn't access even one-deep child related objects after disposing of the datacontext unless you explicity also grabbed them in the query. Thanks all. I am loving this site so far, I kind of get lost and spend hours just reading things on here. =)

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• Registry remotley hacked win 7 need help tracking the perp

  - by user577229

  I was writing some .VBS code at thhe office that would allow certain file extensions to be downloaded without a warning dialog on a w7x32 system. The system I was writing this on is in a lab on a segmented subnet. All web access is via a proxy server. The only means of accessing my machine is via the internet or from within the labs MSFT AD domain. While writing and testing my code I found a message of sorts. Upon refresing the registry to verify my code changed a dword, instead the message HELLO was written and visible in regedit where the dword value wass called for. I took a screen shot and proceeded to edit my code. This same weird behavior occurred last time I was writing registry code except on another internal server. I understand that remote registry access exists for windows systems. I will block this immediately once I return to the office. What I want to know is, can I trace who made this connection? How would I do this? I suspect the cause of this is the cause of other "odd" behaviors I'm experiencing at work such as losing control of my input director master control for over an hour and unchanged code that all of a sudden fails for no logical region. These failures occur at funny times, whenver I'm about to give a demonstration of my test code. I know this sounds crazy however knowledge of the registry component makes this believable. Once the registry can be accessed, the entire system is compromised. Any help or sanity checking is appreciated.

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• A way to specify a different host in an SSH tunnel from the host in use

  - by Tom

  I am trying to setup an SSH tunnel to access Beanstalk (to bypass an annoying proxy server). I can get this to work, but with one caveat: I have to map my Beanstalk host URL (username.svn.beanstalkapp.com) in my hosts file to 127.0.0.1 (and use the ip in place of the domain when setting up the tunnel). The reason (I think) is that I am creating the tunnel using the local SSH instance (on Snow Leopard) and if I use localhost or 127.0.0.1 when talking to Beanstalk, it rejects the authorisation credentials. I believe this is because Beanstalk use the hostname specified in a request to determine which account the username / password combination should be checked against. If localhost is used, I think this information is missing (in some manner which Beanstalk requires) from the requests. At the moment I dig the IP for username.svn.beanstalkapp.com, map username.svn.beanstalkapp.com to 127.0.0.1 in my hosts file, then for the tunnel I use the command: ssh -L 8080:ip:443 -p 22 -l tom -N 127.0.0.1 I can tell Subversion that the repo. is located at: https://username.svn.beanstalkapp.com:8080/repo-name This uses my tunnel and the username and password are accepted. So, my question is if there is an option when setting up the SSH tunnel which would mean I wouldn't have to use my hosts file workaround?

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• Disposing underlying object from finalizer in an immutable object

  - by Juan Luis Soldi

  I'm trying to wrap around Awesomium and make it look to the rest of my code as close as possible to NET's WebBrowser since this is for an existing application that already uses the WebBrowser. In this library, there is a class called JSObject which represents a javascript object. You can get one of this, for instance, by calling the ExecuteJavascriptWithResult method of the WebView class. If you'd call it like myWebView.ExecuteJavascriptWithResult("document", string.Empty).ToObject(), then you'd get a JSObject that represents the document. I'm writing an immutable class (it's only field is a readonly JSObject object) called JSObjectWrap that wraps around JSObject which I want to use as base class for other classes that would emulate .NET classes such as HtmlElement and HtmlDocument. Now, these classes don't implement Dispose, but JSObject does. What I first thought was to call the underlying JSObject's Dispose method in my JSObjectWrap's finalizer (instead of having JSObjectWrap implement Dispose) so that the rest of my code can stay the way it is (instead of having to add using's everywhere and make sure every JSObjectWrap is being properly disposed). But I just realized if more than two JSObjectWrap's have the same underlying JSObject and one of them gets finalized this will mess up the other JSObjectWrap. So now I'm thinking maybe I should keep a static Dictionary of JSObjects and keep count of how many of each of them are being referenced by a JSObjectWrap but this sounds messy and I think could cause major performance issues. Since this sounds to me like a common pattern I wonder if anyone else has a better idea.

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• a selective dual command binding converter in WPF?

  - by Jippers

  I'll start off and say I am not using the MVVM pattern for my WPF app. Please forgive me. Right now I have a data template with two buttons, each binds to a different command on the CLR object this data template represents. Both use the same command parameter. Here's an example of the buttons. <Button x:Name="Button1" Command="{Binding Path=Command1}" CommandParameter="{Binding Path=Text, ElementName=TextBox1}" /> <Button x:Name="Button2" Command="{Binding Path=Command2}" CommandParameter="{Binding Path=Text, ElementName=TextBox1}" /> I would like to refactor this into a single button that can perform either command based on a user setting like a boolean in Settings.settings. I don't have access to refactoring the CLR object itself. Also this is a Data Template there isn't codebehind for me to work with. My take is that a converter would be the best bet, but I don't know how I would put that together. The converter would need to take in the CommandParameter, as well as the DataContext so it knows which object to execute the Commands on. Can someone lend me a hand with this? Thanks in advance.

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• Wpf binding with nested properties

  - by byte

  ViewModel I have a property of type Member called KeyMember. The 'Member' type has an ObservableCollection called Addresses. The Address is composed of two strings - street and postcode . View I have a ListBox whose item source need to be set to ViewModels's KeyMember property and it should display the Street of all the Past Addresses in the collection. Question My ViewModel and View relationship is established properly. I am able to write a data template for the above simple case as below <ListBox ItemsSource="{Binding KeyMember.Addresses}"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate DataType="Address"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Street}"/> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> How would I write the DataTemplate if I change KeyMember from type Member to ObservableCollection< Member assuming that the collection has only one element. PS: I know that for multiple elements in collection, I will have to implement the Master-Detail pattern/scenario.

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• Entity Framework and differences between Contains between SQL and objects using ToLower

  - by John Ptacek

  I have run into an "issue" I am not quite sure I understand with Entity Framework. I am using Entity Framework 4 and have tried to utilize a TDD approach. As a result, I recently implemented a search feature using a Repository pattern. For my test project, I am implementing my repository interface and have a set of "fake" object data I am using for test purposes. I ran into an issue trying to get the Contains clause to work for case invariant search. My code snippet for both my test and the repository class used against the database is as follows: if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(Description)) { items = items.Where(r => r.Description.ToLower().Contains(Description.ToLower())); } However, when I ran my test cases the results where not populated if my case did not match the underlying data. I tried looking into what I thought was an issue for a while. To clear my mind, I went for a run and wondered if the same code with EF would work against a SQL back end database, since SQL will explicitly support the like command and it executed as I expected, using the same logic. I understand why EF against the database back end supports the Contains clause. However, I was surprised that my unit tests did not. Any ideas why other than the SQL server support of the like clause when I use objects I populate in a collection instead of against the database server? Thanks! John

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• retrieving object information with Doctrine

  - by ajsie

  i want to fetch information from the database using objects. i really like this approach cause this is more OOP: $user = Doctrine_Core::getTable('User')->find(1); echo $user->Email['address']; echo $user->Phonenumbers[0]->phonenumber; rather than: $q = Doctrine_Query::create() ->from('User u') ->leftJoin('u.Email e') ->leftJoin('u.Phonenumbers p') ->where('u.id = ?', 1); $user = $q->fetchOne(); echo $user->Email['address']; echo $user->Phonenumbers[0]['phonenumber']; the problem is that the first one uses 3 queries (3 different tables), while the second one uses only 1 (and is therefore recommended technique). but i feel that it destroys the object oriented design. cause ORM is meant to give us an OOP approach so that we could focus on objects and not the relational database. but now they want us to go back to use SQL like pattern. there isn't a way to get information form multiple tables not using DQL? the above examples are taken from the documentation: doctrine

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• restrict script inside iframe to run only within pages of same top-level domain?

  - by Justin Grant

  I'd like to enforce a requirement that client script inside a page (which in turn is loaded inside an iframe of another page) will only run when the parent page is on the same top-level domain as the framed page (although it may be on another hostname in that domain). Is this do-able? I assume that the easy solution of looking at top.location.host won't be available due to cross-site scripting limitations, but I'm wondering if other javascript hackery could suffice. Constraints on any potential solution inculde: I need to be able to run XmlHttpRequest calls inside the child page, and I need to validate that the hostname is in the same domain before I make those calls. (this makes a document.domain solution challenging because AFAIK setting document.domain disables the ability to make XmlHttpRequest calls. I can control client-side script and HTML on both parent or child (and I can create new pages if needed), but I can't make any server-side code changes. I can't simulate the above via server-side calls or proxies, because the child page's hostname uses a forms auth system with hostname-scoped cookies that I can't get access to from the parent page since it's on a different hostname. I don't have enough control over the child-frame site to be able to put both sites behind the same reverse-proxy or load-balancer (which would enable me to put both sites on the same hostname). I don't actually need to access any UI inside the IFrame-- the iframe is invisible and I'm only using it to run javascript within the security context of a site on a different hostname from the parent page. So at this point I'm stumped. Got any ideas? I want to make sure I'm not overlooking an easy solution before giving up.

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• Should frontend and backend handled by different controllers?

  - by DR

  In my previous learning projects I always used a single controller, but know I wonder if that is good practice or even always possible. In all RESTful Rails tutorials the controllers have a show, an edit and an index view. If an authorized user is logged on, the edit view becomes available and the index view shows additional data manipulation controls, like a delete button or a link to the edit view. Now I have a Rails application which falls exactly into this pattern, but the index view is not reusable: The normal user sees a flashy index page with lots of pictures, complex layout, no Javascript requirement, ... The Admin user index has a completly different minimalistic design, jQuery table and lots of additional data, ... Now I'm not sure how to handle this case. I can think of the following: Single controller, single view: The view is split into two large blocks/partials using an if statement. Single controller, two views: index and index_admin. Two different controllers: BookController and BookAdminController None of this solutions seems perfect, but for now I'm inclined to use the 3rd option. What's the preferred way to do this?

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• spring - constructor injection and overriding parent definition of nested bean

  - by mdma

  I've read the Spring 3 reference on inheriting bean definitions, but I'm confused about what is possible and not possible. For example, a bean that takes a collaborator bean, configured with the value 12 <bean name="beanService12" class="SomeSevice"> <constructor-arg index="0"> <bean name="beanBaseNested" class="SomeCollaborator"> <constructor-arg index="0" value="12"/> </bean> </constructor-arg> </bean> I'd then like to be able to create similar beans, with slightly different configured collaborators. Can I do something like <bean name="beanService13" parent="beanService12"> <constructor-arg index="0"> <bean> <constructor-arg index="0" value="13"/> </bean> </constructor> </bean> I'm not sure this is possible and, if it were, it feels a bit clunky. Is there a nicer way to override small parts of a large nested bean definition? It seems the child bean has to know quite a lot about the parent, e.g. constructor index. I'd prefer not to change the structure - the parent beans use collaborators to perform their function, but I can add properties and use property injection if that helps. This is a repeated pattern, would creating a custom schema help? Thanks for any advice!

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• JSF Float Conversion

  - by Phill Sacre

  I'm using JSF 1.2 with IceFaces 1.8 in a project here. I have a page which is basically a big edit grid for a whole bunch of floating-point number fields. This is implemented with inputText fields on the page pointing at a value object with primitive float types Now, as a new requirement sees some of the fields be nullable, I wanted to change the value object to use Float objects rather than primitive types. I didn't think I'd need to do anything to the page to accomodate this. However, when I make the change I get the following error: /pages/page.xhtml @79,14 value="#{row.targetValue}": java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: argument type mismatch And /pages/page.xhtml @79,14 value="#{row.targetValue}": java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: java.lang.ClassCastException@1449aa1 The page looks like this: <ice:inputText value="#{row.targetValue}" size="4"> <f:convertNumber pattern="###.#" /> </ice:inputText> I've also tried adding in <f:convert convertId="javax.faces.Float" /> in there as well but that doesn't seem to work either! Neither does changing the value object types to Double. I'm sure I'm probably missing something really simple but I've been staring at this for a while now and no answers are immediately obvious!

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• How to intercept, parse and compile?

  - by epitka

  This is a problem I've been struggling to solve for a while. I need a way to either replace code in the method with a parsed code from the template at compile time (PostSharp comes to mind) or to create a dynamic proxy (Linfu or Castle). So given a source code like this [Template] private string GetSomething() { var template = [%=Customer.Name%] } I need it to be compiled into this private string GetSomething() { MemoryStream mStream = new MemoryStream(); StreamWriter writer = new StreamWriter(mStream,System.Text.Encoding.UTF8); writer.Write(@"" ); writer.Write(Customer.Name); StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(mStream); writer.Flush(); mStream.Position = 0; return sr.ReadToEnd(); } It is not important what technology is used. I tried with PostSharp's ImplementMethodAspect but got nowhere (due to lack of experience with it). I also looked into Linfu framework. Can somebody suggest some other approach or way to do this, I would really appreciate. My whole project depends on this.

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• Can I specify the files to commit in subversion in a file rather than on the command line?

  - by René Nyffenegger

  I have renamed (with svn move) a lot of files in a subversion project. Now, I am trying to commit these on Window's cmd.exe. It seems that I hit a limit (probably by cmd.exe) in that the number of files is too long for the command line to swallow. Now, I thought and hoped that I could list the files to commit in a seperate file that I could specify with the commit command (something like svn ci --files-to-commit=renamed-files.txt -m "Renamed a lot of files" Yet, either such an option does not exist or I am unable to find this. Unfortunately, I cannot do a svn ci . as I have done other changes in the project as well. Neither can I do a svn ci *pattern-of-renamed-files* since this would only check in the added files, not the deleted ones. Before I start checking in the files with smaller chunks of files to check in (and thus increase the revision number uneccesserily without giving a hint as to the 'atomicity' of the operation) I thought I ask if this is indeed impossible to do.

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• C# webservice async callback not getting called on HTTP 407 error.

  - by Ben

  Hi, I am trying to test the use-case of a customer having a proxy with login credentials, trying to use our webservice from our client. If the request is synchronous, my job is easy. Catch the WebException, check for the 407 code, and prompt the user for the login credentials. However, for async requests, I seem to be running into a problem: the callback is never getting called! I ran a wireshark trace and did indeed see that the HTTP 407 error was being passed back, so I am bewildered as to what to do. Here is the code that sets up the callback and starts the request: TravelService.TravelServiceImplService svc = new TravelService.TravelServiceImplService(); svc.Url = svcUrl; svc.CreateEventCompleted += CbkCreateEventCompleted; svc.CreateEventAsync(crReq, req); And the code that was generated when I consumed the WSDL: public void CreateEventAsync(TravelServiceCreateEventRequest CreateEventRequest, object userState) { if ((this.CreateEventOperationCompleted == null)) { this.CreateEventOperationCompleted = new System.Threading.SendOrPostCallback(this.OnCreateEventOperationCompleted); } this.InvokeAsync("CreateEvent", new object[] { CreateEventRequest}, this.CreateEventOperationCompleted, userState); } private void OnCreateEventOperationCompleted(object arg) { if ((this.CreateEventCompleted != null)) { System.Web.Services.Protocols.InvokeCompletedEventArgs invokeArgs = ((System.Web.Services.Protocols.InvokeCompletedEventArgs)(arg)); this.CreateEventCompleted(this, new CreateEventCompletedEventArgs(invokeArgs.Results, invokeArgs.Error, invokeArgs.Cancelled, invokeArgs.UserState)); } } Debugging the WS code, I found that even the SoapHttpClientProtocol.InvokeAsync method was not calling its callback as well. Am I missing some sort of configuration?

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• How do I use the sed command to remove all lines between 2 phrases (including the phrases themselves

  - by fzkl

  I am generating a log from which I want to remove X startup output which looks like this: X.Org X Server 1.7.6 Release Date: 2010-03-17 X Protocol Version 11, Revision 0 Build Operating System: Linux 2.6.31-607-imx51 armv7l Ubuntu Current Operating System: Linux nvidia 2.6.33.2 #1 SMP PREEMPT Mon May 31 21:38:29 PDT 2010 armv7l Kernel command line: mem=448M@0M nvmem=64M@448M mem=512M@512M chipuid=097c81c6425f70d7 vmalloc=320M video=tegrafb console=ttyS0,57600n8 usbcore.old_scheme_first=1 tegraboot=nand root=/dev/nfs ip=:::::usb0:on rw tegra_ehci_probe_delay=5000 smp dvfs tegrapart=recovery:1b80:a00:800,boot:2680:1000:800,environment:3780:40:800,system:38c0:2bc00:800,cache:2f5c0:4000:800,userdata:336c0:c840:800 envsector=3080 Build Date: 23 April 2010 05:19:26PM xorg-server 2:1.7.6-2ubuntu7 (Bryce Harrington <[email protected]>) Current version of pixman: 0.16.4 Before reporting problems, check http://wiki.x.org to make sure that you have the latest version. Markers: (--) probed, (**) from config file, (==) default setting, (++) from command line, (!!) notice, (II) informational, (WW) warning, (EE) error, (NI) not implemented, (??) unknown. (==) Log file: "/var/log/Xorg.0.log", Time: Wed Jun 16 19:52:00 2010 (==) Using config file: "/etc/X11/xorg.conf" (==) Using config directory: "/usr/lib/X11/xorg.conf.d" Is there any way to do this without manually checking pattern for each line?

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• What do I name this class whose sole purpose is to report failure?

  - by Blair Holloway

  In our system, we have a number of classes whose construction must happen asynchronously. We wrap the construction process in another class that derives from an IConstructor class: class IConstructor { public: virtual void Update() = 0; virtual Status GetStatus() = 0; virtual int GetLastError() = 0; }; There's an issue with the design of the current system - the functions that create the IConstructor-derived classes are often doing additional work which can also fail. At that point, instead of getting a constructor which can be queried for an error, a NULL pointer is returned. Restructuring the code to avoid this is possible, but time-consuming. In the meantime, I decided to create a constructor class which we create and return in case of error, instead of a NULL pointer: class FailedConstructor : public IConstructor public: virtual void Update() {} virtual Status GetStatus() { return STATUS_ERROR; } virtual int GetLastError() { return m_errorCode; } private: int m_errorCode; }; All of the above this the setup for a mundane question: what do I name the FailedConstructor class? In our current system, FailedConstructor would indicate "a class which constructs an instance of Failed", not "a class which represents a failed attempt to construct another class". I feel like it should be named for one of the design patterns, like Proxy or Adapter, but I'm not sure which.

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• Nhibernate join on a table twice

  - by Zuber

  Consider the following Class structure... public class ListViewControl { public int SystemId {get; set;} public List<ControlAction> Actions {get; set;} public List<ControlAction> ListViewActions {get; set;} } public class ControlAction { public string blahBlah {get; set;} } I want to load class ListViewControl eagerly using NHibernate. The mapping using Fluent is as shown below public UIControlMap() { Id(x => x.SystemId); HasMany(x => x.Actions) .KeyColumn("ActionId") .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan() .AsBag() .Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); HasMany(x => x.ListViewActions) .KeyColumn("ListViewActionId") .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan() .AsBag() .Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); } This is how I am trying to load it eagerly var baseActions = DetachedCriteria.For<ListViewControl>() .CreateCriteria("Actions", JoinType.InnerJoin) .SetFetchMode("BlahBlah", FetchMode.Eager) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()); var listViewActions = DetachedCriteria.For<ListViewControl>() .CreateCriteria("ListViewActions", JoinType.InnerJoin) .SetFetchMode("BlahBlah", FetchMode.Eager) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()); var listViews = DetachedCriteria.For<ListViewControl>() .SetFetchMode("Actions", FetchMode.Eager) .SetFetchMode("ListViewActions",FetchMode.Eager) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()); var result = _session.CreateMultiCriteria() .Add("listViewActions", listViewActions) .Add("baseActions", baseActions) .Add("listViews", listViews) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()) .GetResult("listViews"); Now, my problem is that the class ListViewControl get the correct records in both Actions and ListViewActions, but there are multiple entries of the same record. The number of records is equal to the number of joins made to the ControlAction table, in this case two. How can I avoid this? If I remove the SetFetchMode from the listViews query, the actions are loaded lazily through a proxy which I don't want.

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• Using clases in PHP to store function

  - by Artur

  Hello! I need some advise on my PHP code organisation. I need classes where I can store different functions, and I need access to those classes in different parts of my project. Making an object of this classes each time is too sadly, so I've found a two ways have to solve it. First is to use static methods, like class car { public static $wheels_count = 4; public static function change_wheels_count($new_count) { car::$wheels_count = $new_count; } } Second is to use singleton pattern: class Example { // Hold an instance of the class private static $instance; // The singleton method public static function singleton() { if (!isset(self::$instance)) { $c = __CLASS__; self::$instance = new $c; } return self::$instance; } } But author of the article about singletons said, that if I have too much singletons in my code I should reconstruct it. But I need a lot of such classes. Can anybody explain prons and cons of each way? Which is mostly used? Are there more beautiful ways?

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• Problem with load testing Web Service - VSTS 2008

  - by Carlos

  Hello, I have a webtest with makes a simple call to a WebService which looks like that: MyWebService webService = new MyWebService(); webService.Timeout = 180000; webService.myMethod(); I am not using ThinkTimes, also the Run Duration is set to 5 minutes. When I ran this test simulating only 1 user, I check the counters and I found something like that: Tests Total: 4500 Network Interface\Bytes sent (agent machine): 35,500 Then I ran the same tests, but this time simulating 2 users and I got something like that: Tests Total: 2225 Network Interface\Bytes sent (agent machine): 30,500 So when I increased the numbers of users the tests/sec was half than when I use only 1 user and the bytes sent by the agent was also lower. I think it is strange, because it doesn't seems I have a bottleneck in my agent machine since CPU is never higher than 30% and I have over 1.5GB of RAM free, also my network utilization is like 0.5% of its capacity. In order to troubleshot this I ran a test using Step Pattern, the simulated users went from 20 to 800 users. When I check the requests/sec it is practically constant through the whole test, so it is clear there is something in my test or my environment which is preventing the number of requests from gets higher. It would be a expected behavior if the "response time" was getting higher because it would tell me the requests wasn't been processed properly, but the strange thing is the response time is practically constant all the time and it is pretty low actually. I have no idea why my agent can't send more requests when I increase the numbers of users, any help/tip/guess would be really appreciate.

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• Hibernate database integrity with multiple java applications

  - by Austen

  We have 2 java web apps both are read/write and 3 standalone java read/write applications (one loads questions via email, one processes an xml feed, one sends email to subscribers) all use hibernate and share a common code base. The problem we have recently come across is that questions loaded via email sometimes overwrite questions created in one of the web apps. We originally thought this to be a caching issue. We've tried turning off the second level cache, but this doesn't make a difference. We are not explicitly opening and closing sessions, but rather let hibernate manage them via Util.getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession(), which thinking about it, may actually be the issue. We'd rather not setup a clustered 2nd level cache at this stage as this creates another layer of complexity and we're more than happy with the level of performance we get from the app as a whole. So does implementing a open-session-in-view pattern in the web apps and manually managing the sessions in the standalone apps sound like it would fix this? Or any other suggestions/ideas please? <property name="hibernate.transaction.factory_class">org.hibernate.transaction.JDBCTransactionFactory</property> <property name="hibernate.current_session_context_class">thread</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.use_second_level_cache">false</property>

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