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• Troubleshooting ASP .NET Application on Shared Hosting

  - by James

  Hi, My company has a CRM site hosted externally on a shared server and recently it has been very problematic. Users are being logged out randomly, sometimes only seconds after logging in. We are also getting viewstate validation errors at times. Both problems seem to occur more often when there are two or more people logged in at the same time, but I can't really see any particular pattern. I am using log4net to track the application state and from what I can tell it seems that the application is frequently restarting, causing all sorts of issues. I can see log messages from the Application_Start event handler but there is not always a corresponding message from the Application_End event handler. There is also logging code in the Application_Error event handler but it is not catching anything at the time of the restart. These errors started to occur soon after we moved our site to this shared server, although I don't remember it being this bad at first. Any advice on how to track down these problems would be appreciated. The server is running Windows Server 2003 and IIS 6.0. Sadly I don't have access to the server other than through Parallels Plesk and it doesn't seem to have any useful diagnostic information.

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• Java - Class type from inside static initialization block

  - by DutrowLLC

  Is it possible to get the class type from inside the static initialization block? This is a simplified version of what I currently have:: class Person extends SuperClass { String firstName; static{ // This function is on the "SuperClass": // I'd for this function to be able to get "Person.class" without me // having to explicitly type it in but "this.class" does not work in // a static context. doSomeReflectionStuff(Person.class); // IN "SuperClass" } } This is closer to what I am doing, which is to initialize a data structure that holds information about the object and its annotations, etc... Perhaps I am using the wrong pattern? public abstract SuperClass{ static void doSomeReflectionStuff( Class<?> classType, List<FieldData> fieldDataList ){ Field[] fields = classType.getDeclaredFields(); for( Field field : fields ){ // Initialize fieldDataList } } } public abstract class Person { @SomeAnnotation String firstName; // Holds information on each of the fields, I used a Map<String, FieldData> // in my actual implementation to map strings to the field information, but that // seemed a little wordy for this example static List<FieldData> fieldDataList = new List<FieldData>(); static{ // Again, it seems dangerous to have to type in the "Person.class" // (or Address.class, PhoneNumber.class, etc...) every time. // Ideally, I'd liken to eliminate all this code from the Sub class // since now I have to copy and paste it into each Sub class. doSomeReflectionStuff(Person.class, fieldDataList); } }

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• using indexer to retrieve Linq to SQL object from datastore

  - by fearofawhackplanet

  class UserDatastore : IUserDatastore { ... public IUser this[Guid userId] { get { User user = (from u in _dataContext.Users where u.Id == userId select u).FirstOrDefault(); return user; } } ... } One of the developers in our team is arguing that an indexer in the above situation is not appropriate and that a GetUser(Guid id) method should be prefered. The arguments being that: 1) We aren't indexing into an in-memory collection, the indexer is basically performing a hidden SQL query 2) Using a Guid in an indexer is bad (FxCop flagged this also) 3) Returning null from an indexer isn't normal behaviour 4) An API user generally wouldn't expect any of this behaviour I agree to an extent with (most of) these points. But I'm also inclined to argue that one of the characteristics of Linq is to abstract the database access to make it appear that you're simply working with a bunch of collections, even though the lazy evaluation paradigm means those collections aren't evaluated until you run a query over them. It doesn't seem inconsistent to me to access the datastore in the same manner as if it was a concrete in-memory collection here. Also bearing in mind this is an inherited codebase which uses this pattern extensively and consistently, is it worth the refactoring? I accept that it might have been better to use a Get method from the start, but I'm not yet convinced that it's completely incorrect to be using an indexer. I'd be interested to hear all opinions, thanks.

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• problem generating pgp keys?

  - by pavankumar

  I'm using RSACryptoServiceProvider I've generated public key and private key. The keys generated by it are in the following format: Public key: <RSAKeyValue> <Modulus>m9bAoh2...eGNKYs=</Modulus> <Exponent>AQAB</Exponent> </RSAKeyValue> Private key: <RSAKeyValue> <Modulus>m9bAo...ZAIeGNKYs=</Modulus> <Exponent>AQAB</Exponent> <P>xGj/UcXs...R1lmeVQ==</P> <Q>yx6e18aP...GXzXIXw==</Q> <DP>NyxvnJ...1xAsEyQ==</DP> <DQ>La17Jycd...FhApEqwznQ==</DQ> <InverseQ>JrG7WCT...Hp3OWA==</InverseQ> <D>RdWsOFn....KL699Vh6HK0=</D> </RSAKeyValue> but using PGP Desktop i've generated keys like this - Public key: mQCNBEoOlp8BBACi/3EvBZ83ZduvG6YHu5F0P7Z3xOnpIsaPvTk0q+dnjwDUa5sU lEFbUZgDXSz7ZRhyiNqUOy+IG3ghPxpiKGBtldVpi33qaFCCEBiqsxRRpVCLgTUK HP2kH5ysrlFWkxTo =a4t9 Private key: lQHgBEoOlp8BBACi/3EvBZ83ZduvG6YHu5F0P7Z3xOnpIsaPvTk0q+dnjwDUa5sU lEFbUZgDXSz7ZRhyiNqUOy+IG3ghPxpiKGBtldVpi33qaFCCEBiqsxRRpVCLgTUK waBnEitQti3XgUUEZnz/rnXcQVM0QFBe6H5x8fMDUw== =CVPD So when I'm passing the keys generated by PGP Desktop it is able to do encryption and decryption perfectly but when im passing the keys generated by RSACryptoServiceProvider I'm not able to encrypt and decrypt? Can anyone please tell me how to generate keys in the pattern generated by PGP?

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• model view controller question

  - by songBong

  Hi, I've been working on my iphone game recently and came across a forked road when deciding the design of my various classes. So far I've adhered to the MVC pattern but the following situation had me confused: I have 4 buttons displayed visually. Each button though consists of a container UIView (which I've subclassed) and 2 UIButtons (also subclassed) as subviews. When you press a button, it does the flip effect plus other stuff. The user input is using target-action from my container UIView to my controller. This part is ok, the following part is the debatable part: So I've subclassed the container view as well as the UIButtons and I need to add more data/methods (somewhere) to do more things. Putting data that needs to be serialized and non-rendering related code in the view classes seems to break the MVC design but at the moment, it makes the most sense to me to put it there. It's almost like my subclassed views are their own little MVC's and it seems neat. Separating out the data/methods from the view to my main controller in this case seems unnecessary and a more work. How should I be doing it? Thanks heaps.

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• Dependency Injection Question - ASP.NET

  - by Paul

  I'm starting a web application that contains the following projects: Booking.Web Booking.Services Booking.DataObjects Booking.Data I'm using the repository pattern in my data project only. All services will be the same, no matter what happens. However, if a customer wants to use Access, it will use a different data repository than if the customer wants to use SQL Server. I have StructureMap, and want to be able to do the following: Web project is unaffected. It's a web forms application that will only know about the services project and the dataobjects project. When a service is called, it will use StructureMap (by looking up the bootstrapper.cs file) to see which data repository to use. An example of a services class is the error logging class: public class ErrorLog : IErrorLog { ILogging logger; public ErrorLog() { } public ErrorLog(ILogging logger) { this.logger = logger; } public void AddToLog(string errorMessage) { try { AddToDatabaseLog(errorMessage); } catch (Exception ex) { AddToFileLog(ex.Message); } finally { AddToFileLog(errorMessage); } } private void AddToDatabaseLog(string errorMessage) { ErrorObject error = new ErrorObject { ErrorDateTime = DateTime.Now, ErrorMessage = errorMessage }; logger.Insert(error); } private void AddToFileLog(string errorMessage) { // TODO: Take this value from the web.config instead of hard coding it TextWriter writer = new StreamWriter(@"E:\Work\Booking\Booking\Booking.Web\Logs\ErrorLog.txt", true); writer.WriteLine(DateTime.Now.ToString() + " ---------- " + errorMessage); writer.Close(); } } I want to be able to call this service from my web project, without defining which repository to use for the data access. My boostrapper.cs file in the services project is defined as: public class Bootstrapper { public static void ConfigureStructureMap() { ObjectFactory.Initialize(x => { x.AddRegistry(new ServiceRegistry()); } ); } public class ServiceRegistry : Registry { protected override void configure() { ForRequestedType<IErrorLog>().TheDefaultIsConcreteType<Booking.Services.Logging.ErrorLog>(); ForRequestedType<ILogging>().TheDefaultIsConcreteType<SqlServerLoggingProvider>(); } } } What else do I need to get this to work? When I defined a test, the ILogger object was null. Thanks,

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• Problem calling web service from within JBOSS EJB Service

  - by Rob Goodwin

  I have a simple web service sitting on our internal network. I used SOAPUI to do a bit of testing, generated the service classes from the WSDL , and wrote some java code to access the service. All went as expected as I was able to create the service proxy classes and make calls. Pretty simple stuff. The only speed bump was getting java to trust the certificate from the machine providing the web service. That was not a technical problem, but rather my lack of experience with SSL based web services. Now onto my problem. I coded up a simple EJB service and deployed it into JBoss Application Server 4.3 and now get the following error in the code that previously worked. 12:21:50,235 WARN [ServiceDelegateImpl] Cannot access wsdlURL: https://WS-Test/TestService/v2/TestService?wsdl I can access the wsdl file from a web browser running on the same machine as the application server using the URL in the error message. I am at a loss as to where to go from here. I turned on the debug logs in JBOSS and got nothing more than what I showed above. I have done some searching on the net and found the same error in some questions, but those questions had no answers. The web services classes where generated with JAX-WS 2.2 using the wsimport ant task and placed in a jar that is included in the ejb package. JBoss is deployed in RHEL 5.4, where the standalone testing was done on Windows XP.

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• Is ASP.NET MVC is really MVC? Or how to separate model from controller?

  - by Andrey

  Hi all, This question is a bit rhetorical. At some point i got a feeling that ASP.NET MVC is not that authentic implementation of MVC pattern. Or i didn't understood it. Consider following domain: electric bulb, switch and motion detector. They are connected together and when you enter the room motion detector switches on the bulb. If i want to represent them as MVC: switch is model, because it holds the state and contains logic bulb is view, because it presents the state of model to human motion detector is controller, because it converts user actions to generic model commands Switch has one private field (On/Off) as a State and two methods (PressOn, PressOff). If you call PressOn when it is Off it goes to On, if you call it again state doesn't change. Bulb can be replaced with buzzer, motion detector with timer or button, but the model still represent the same logic. Eventually system will have same behavior. This is how i understand classical MVC decomposition, please correct me if i am wrong. Now let's decompose it in ASP.Net MVC way. Bulb is still a view Controller will be switch + motion detector Model is some object that will just pass state to bulb. So the logic that defines behavior moves to controller. Question 1: Is my understanding of MVC and ASP.NET MVC correct? Question 2: If yes, do you agree that ASP.NET MVC is not 100% accurate implementation? And back to life. The final question is how to separate model from controller in case of ASP.NET MVC. There can be two extremes. Controller does basic stuff and call model to do all the logic. Another is controller does all the logic and model is just something like class with properties that is mapped to DB. Question 3: Where should i draw the line between this extremes? How to balance? Thanks, Andrey

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• Most efficient way to check for DBNull and then assign to a variable?

  - by ilitirit

  This question comes up occasionally but I haven't seen a satisfactory answer. A typical pattern is (row is a DataRow): if (row["value"] != DBNull.Value) { someObject.Member = row["value"]; } My first question is which is more efficient (I've flipped the condition): row["value"] == DBNull.Value; // Or row["value"] is DBNull; // Or row["value"].GetType() == typeof(DBNull) // Or... any suggestions? This indicates that .GetType() should be faster, but maybe the compiler knows a few tricks I don't? Second question, is it worth caching the value of row["value"] or does the compiler optimize the indexer away anyway? eg. object valueHolder; if (DBNull.Value == (valueHolder = row["value"])) {} Disclaimers: row["value"] exists. I don't know the column index of the column (hence the column name lookup) I'm asking specifically about checking for DBNull and then assignment (not about premature optimization etc). Edit: I benchmarked a few scenarios (time in seconds, 10000000 trials): row["value"] == DBNull.Value: 00:00:01.5478995 row["value"] is DBNull: 00:00:01.6306578 row["value"].GetType() == typeof(DBNull): 00:00:02.0138757 Object.ReferenceEquals has the same performance as "==" The most interesting result? If you mismatch the name of the column by case (eg. "Value" instead of "value", it takes roughly ten times longer (for a string): row["Value"] == DBNull.Value: 00:00:12.2792374 The moral of the story seems to be that if you can't look up a column by it's index, then ensure that the column name you feed to the indexer matches the DataColumn's name exactly. Caching the value also appears to be nearly twice as fast: No Caching: 00:00:03.0996622 With Caching: 00:00:01.5659920 So the most efficient method seems to be: object temp; string variable; if (DBNull.Value != (temp = row["value"]) { variable = temp.ToString(); } This was a good learning experience.

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• Is it valid to use unsafe struct * as an opaque type instead of IntPtr in .NET Platform Invoke?

  - by David Jeske

  .NET Platform Invoke advocates declaring pointer types as IntPtr. For example, the following [DllImport("user32.dll")] static extern IntPtr SendMessage(IntPtr hWnd, UInt32 Msg, Int32 wParam, Int32 lParam); However, I find when interfacing with interesting native interfaces, that have many pointer types, flattening everything into IntPtr makes the code very hard to read and removes the typical typechecking that a compiler can do. I've been using a pattern where I declare an unsafe struct to be an opaque pointer type. I can store this pointer type in a managed object, and the compiler can typecheck it form me. For example: class Foo { unsafe struct FOO {}; // opaque type unsafe FOO *my_foo; class if { [DllImport("mydll")] extern static unsafe FOO* get_foo(); [DllImport("mydll")] extern static unsafe void do_something_foo(FOO *foo); } public unsafe Foo() { this.my_foo = if.get_foo(); } public unsafe do_something_foo() { if.do_something_foo(this.my_foo); } While this example may not seem different than using IntPtr, when there are several pointer types moving between managed and native code, using these opaque pointer types for typechecking is a godsend. I have not run into any trouble using this technique in practice. However, I also have not seen an examples of anyone using this technique, and I wonder why. Is there any reason that the above code is invalid in the eyes of the .NET runtime? My main question is about how the .NET GC system treats "unsafe FOO *my_foo". Is this pointer something the GC system is going to try to trace, or is it simply going to ignore it? My hope is that because the underlying type is a struct, and it's declared unsafe, that the GC would ignore it. However, I don't know for sure. Thoughts?

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• Mocking an object that uses jni using EasyMock

  - by Visage

  So my class under test has code that looks braodly like this public void doSomething(int param) { Report report = new Report() ...do some calculations report.someMethod(someData) } my intention was to extract the construction of report into a protected method and override it to use a mock object that I could then test to ensure that someMethod had been called with the right data. So far so good. But Report isnt under my control, and to mkae things worse it uses JNI to load a library at runtime. If I do Report report = EasyMock.createMock(Report.class) then EasyMock attempts to use reflection to find out the class members, but this causes an attempt to load the JNI library, which fails (the JNI libraries are only available on UNIX). Im considering two things: a) Introduce a ReportWrapper interface with two implementations, one of which will delegate calls to an real Report (so basically a Proxy), and a second which will basically use a mock object. or b) instead of calling someMethod, call a protected method which will in turn call someMethod that I can override in a testing subclass. Either way it seems nasty. Any better ways?

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• Django apache-wsgi configuration problem

  - by omat

  Hi, I am trying to get my Django project running on the production server. I setup the environment using pip, so it is identical to the development environment where everything is running fine. The only difference is that I don't use virtualenv on production, because this project is the only one that is going to run on production. Also on production, there is an Nginx reverse proxy to serve static content, and passes dynamic requests to Apache2. The Apache wsgi file is as follows: import sys, os sys.path.append('/home/project/src') os.environ['DJANGO_SETTINGS_MODULE'] = 'settings' import django.core.handlers.wsgi application = django.core.handlers.wsgi.WSGIHandler() When I access the server, I get an import error: ImproperlyConfigured: Error importing middleware middleware: "cannot import name UserProfile" Which refers to the middleware.py under src/ folder which is referred by the settings. But I can import both the middleware and the UserProfile class from within ./manage.py shell prompt. It seems like a problem with paths in wsgi file but I cannot see what. The directory structure is: /home/project /home/project/src (which contains the settings.py, middleware.py and app folders) /home/apache/apache.wsgi Any help is greatly appreciated. Thanks, oMat

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• Google Web Toolkit Asynchronous Call from a Service Implementation

  - by Thor Thurn

  I'm writing a simple Google Web Toolkit service which acts as a proxy, which will basically exist to allow the client to make a POST to a different server. The client essentially uses this service to request an HTTP call. The service has only one asynchronous method call, called ajax(), which should just forward the server response. My code for implementing the call looks like this: class ProxyServiceImpl extends RemoteServiceServlet implements ProxyService { @Override public Response ajax(String data) { RequestBuilder rb = /*make a request builder*/ RequestCallback rc = new RequestCallback() { @Override public void onResponseReceived(Response response) { /* Forward this response back to the client as the return value of the ajax method... somehow... */ } }; rb.sendRequest(data, requestCallback); return /* The response above... except I can't */; } } You can see the basic form of my problem, of course. The ajax() method is used asynchronously, but GWT decides to be smart and hide that from the dumb old developer, so they can just write normal Java code without callbacks. GWT services basically just do magic instead of accepting a callback parameter. The trouble arises, then, because GWT is hiding the callback object from me. I'm trying to make my own asynchronous call from the service implementation, but I can't, because GWT services assume that you behave synchronously in service implementations. How can I work around this and make an asynchronous call from my service method implementation?

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• How to instantiate spring bean without being referenced from aop:aspect

  - by XDeveloper

  Using Spring and Java; I have a pointcut which works OK. Now I want to remove the pointcut and AOP from the spring and just trigger the event with an event from inside the java code but I want "myAdvice" bean still called via Spring and its properties set. I want to get ridoff all advice things even in java code, no more advice or any trace of AOP, I already have a nice event system working. I just want to instantiate my bean via Spring. When I remove the second code block (one starting with "aop:config") then I noticed the bean "myAdvice" is not called and instantiated anymore. How can i stil call it set its properties without referencing it from the "aop:aspect" ? in my application context ; <bean id="myAdvice" class="com.myclass"> <property name="name1" ref="ref1" /> <property name="name2" ref="ref2" /> </bean> <aop:config proxy-target-class="true"> <aop:aspect id="myAspect" ref="myAdvice"> <aop:pointcut id="myPointcut" expression="execution(* com.myexcmethod" /> <aop:around pointcut-ref="myPointcut" method="invoke" /> </aop:aspect> </aop:config>

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• Resolving Circular References for Objects Implementing ISerializable

  - by Chris

  I'm writing my own IFormatter implementation and I cannot think of a way to resolve circular references between two types that both implement ISerializable. Here's the usual pattern: [Serializable] class Foo : ISerializable { private Bar m_bar; public Foo(Bar bar) { m_bar = bar; m_bar.Foo = this; } public Bar Bar { get { return m_bar; } } protected Foo(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { m_bar = (Bar)info.GetValue("1", typeof(Bar)); } public void GetObjectData(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { info.AddValue("1", m_bar); } } [Serializable] class Bar : ISerializable { private Foo m_foo; public Foo Foo { get { return m_foo; } set { m_foo = value; } } public Bar() { } protected Bar(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { m_foo = (Foo)info.GetValue("1", typeof(Foo)); } public void GetObjectData(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { info.AddValue("1", m_foo); } } I then do this: Bar b = new Bar(); Foo f = new Foo(b); bool equal = ReferenceEquals(b, b.Foo.Bar); // true // Serialise and deserialise b equal = ReferenceEquals(b, b.Foo.Bar); If I use an out-of-the-box BinaryFormatter to serialise and deserialise b, the above test for reference-equality returns true as one would expect. But I cannot conceive of a way to achieve this in my custom IFormatter. In a non-ISerializable situation I can simply revisit "pending" object fields using reflection once the target references have been resolved. But for objects implementing ISerializable it is not possible to inject new data using SerializationInfo. Can anyone point me in the right direction?

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• jQuery Tools alert works once (but only once)

  - by Jim Miller

  I'm trying to build a simple alert mechanism with jQuery Tools -- in response to a bit of Javascript code, pop up an overlay with a message and an OK button that, when clicked, makes the overlay go away. Trivial, or it should be. I've been slavishly following http://flowplayer.org/tools/demos/overlay/trigger.html, and have something that works fine the first time it's invoked, but only that time. If I repeat the JS action that should expose the overlay, it doesn't. My content/DIV: <div class='modal' id='the_alert'> <div id='modal_content' class='modal_content'> <h2>hi there</h2> this is the body <p> <button class='close'>OK</button> </p> </div> <div id='modal_background' class='modal_background'><img src='/images/overlay/f9f9f9-180.png' class='stretch' alt='' /></div> </div> and the Javascript: function showOverlayDialog() { $('#the_alert').overlay({ mask: {color: '#cccccc', loadSpeed: 200, opacity: 0.9}, closeOnClick: false, load: true }); } As I said: When showOverlayDialog() is invoked the first time, the overlay appears just like it should, and goes away when the "OK" button is clicked. But if I cause showOverlayDialog() to run again, without reloading the page, nothing happens. If I reload the page, then the pattern repeats -- the first invocation brings up the overlay, but the second one doesn't. I'm obviously missing something -- any advice out there? Thanks!

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• Java: Match tokens between two strings and return the number of matched tokens

  - by Cryssie

  Need some help to find the number of matched tokens between two strings. I have a list of string stored in ArrayList (example given below): Line 0 : WRB VBD NN VB IN CC RB VBP NNP Line 1 : WDT NNS VBD DT NN NNP NNP Line 2 : WRB MD PRP VB DT NN IN NNS POS JJ NNS Line 3 : WDT NN VBZ DT NN IN DT JJ NN IN DT NNP Line 4 : WP VBZ DT JJ NN IN NN Here, you can see each string consists of a bunch of tokens separated by spaces. So, there's three things I need to work with.. Compare the first token (WRB) in Line 0 to the tokens in Line 1 to see if they match. Move on to the next tokens in Line 0 until a match is found. If there's a match, mark the matched tokens in Line 1 so that it will not be matched again. Return the number of matched tokens between Line 0 and Line 1. Return the distance of the matched tokens. Example: token NN is found on position 3 on line 0 and position 5 on Line 1. Distance = |3-5| = 2 I've tried using split string and store it to String[] but String[] is fixed and doesn't allow shrinking or adding of new elements. Tried Pattern Matcher but with disasterous results. Tried a few other methods but there's some problems with my nested for loops..(will post part of my coding if it will help). Any advice or pointers on how to solve this problem this would be very much appreciated. Thank you very much.

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• GRID is not properly rendered in ExtJS 4 by using Store

  - by user548543

  Here is the Src code for HTML file <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4 /strict.dtd"> <html> <head> <title>MVC Architecture</title> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="/bh/extjs/resources/css/ext-all.css" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="extjs/ext-debug.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="Main.js"></script> </head> <body> </body> </html> File path: /bh/Main.js [Main File] Ext.require('Ext.container.Viewport'); Ext.application({ name: 'App', appFolder: 'app', controllers: ['UserController'], launch: function() { Ext.create('Ext.container.Viewport', { layout: 'border', items: [ { xtype: 'userList' } ] }); } }); File path: /app/controller/UserController.js [Controller] Ext.define('App.controller.UserController',{ extend: 'Ext.app.Controller', stores: ['UserStore'], models:['UserModel'], views:['user.UserList'], init: function() { this.getUserStoreStore().load(); } }); File path: /app/store/UserStore.js Ext.define('App.store.UserStore', { extend: 'Ext.data.Store', model: 'App.model.UserModel', proxy: { type: 'ajax', url: 'app/data/contact.json' } }); File path: /app/model/UserModel.js [Model] Ext.define('App.model.UserModel',{ extends:'Ext.data.Model', fields:[ {name: 'name', type: 'string'}, {name: 'age', type: 'string'}, {name: 'phone', type: 'string'}, {name: 'email', type: 'string'} ] }); File path: /app/view/UserList.js [View] Ext.define('App.view.user.UserList' ,{ extend: 'Ext.grid.Panel', alias:'widget.userList', title:'Contacts', region:'center', resizable:true, initComponent: function() { this.store = 'UserStore'; this.columns = [ {text: 'Name',flex:1,sortable: true,dataIndex: 'name'}, {text: 'Age',flex:1,sortable: true,dataIndex: 'age'}, {text: 'Phone',flex:1,sortable: true,dataIndex: 'phone'}, {text: 'Email',flex:1,sortable: true,dataIndex: 'email'} ]; this.callParent(arguments); } }); In fire bug it shows the JSON response as follows: [{ "name": "Aswini", "age": "32", "phone": "555-555-5555", "email": "[email protected]" }] Why the Data has not been displayed although I have a valid json response. Please help!!!

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• How should I implement lazy session creation in PHP?

  - by Adam Franco

  By default, PHP's session handling mechanisms set a session cookie header and store a session even if there is no data in the session. If no data is set in the session then I don't want a Set-Cookie header sent to the client in the response and I don't want an empty session record stored on the server. If data is added to $_SESSION, then the normal behavior should continue. My goal is to implement lazy session creation behavior of the sort that Drupal 7 and Pressflow where no session is stored (or session cookie header sent) unless data is added to the $_SESSION array during application execution. The point of this behavior is to allow reverse proxies such as Varnish to cache and serve anonymous traffic while letting authenticated requests pass through to Apache/PHP. Varnish (or another proxy-server) is configured to pass through any requests without cookies, assuming correctly that if a cookie exists then the request is for a particular client. I have ported the session handling code from Pressflow that uses session_set_save_handler() and overrides the implementation of session_write() to check for data in the $_SESSION array before saving and will write this up as library and add an answer here if this is the best/only route to take. My Question: While I can implement a fully custom session_set_save_handler() system, is there an easier way to get this lazy session creation behavior in a relatively generic way that would be transparent to most applications?

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• Strange Ruby String Selection

  - by Daniel

  The string in question (read from a file): if (true) then { _this = createVehicle ["Land_hut10", [6226.8901, 986.091, 4.5776367e-005], [], 0, "CAN_COLLIDE"]; _vehicle_10 = _this; _this setDir -2.109278; }; Retrieved from a large list of similar (all same file) strings via the following: get_stringR(string,"if","};") And the function code: def get_stringR(a,b,c) b = a.index(b) b ||= 0 c = a.rindex(c) c ||= b r = a[b,c] return r end As so far, this works fine, but what I wanted to do is select the array after "createVehicle", the following (I thought) should work. newstring = get_string(myString,"\[","\];") Note get_string is the same as get_stringR, except it uses the first occurrence of the pattern both times, rather then the first and last occurrence. The output should have been: ["Land_hut10", [6226.8901, 986.091, 4.5776367e-005], [], 0, "CAN_COLLIDE"]; Instead it was the below, given via 'puts': ["Land_hut10", [6226.8901, 986.091, 4.5776367e-005], [], 0, "CAN_COLLIDE"]; _vehicle_10 = _this; _this setDir Some 40 characters past the point it should have retrieve, which was very strange... Second note, using both get_string and get_stringR produced the exact same result with the parameters given. I then decided to add the following to my get_string code: b = a.index(b) b ||= 0 c = a.index(c) c ||= b if c 40 then c -= 40 end r = a[b,c] return r And it works as expected (for every 'block' in the file, even though the strings after that array are not identical in any way), but something obviously isn't right :).

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• Using multiple named outlets and a wrapper view with no content in Emberjs

  - by user1889776

  I'm trying to use multiple named outlets with Ember.js. Is my approach below correct? Markup: <script type="text/x-handlebars" data-template-name="application"> <div id="mainArea"> {{outlet main_area}} </div> </script> <script type="text/x-handlebars" data-template-name="home"> <ul id="sections"> {{outlet sections}} </ul> <ul id="categories"> {{outlet categories}} </ul> </script> <script type="text/x-handlebars" data-template-name="sections"> {{#each section in controller}} <li><img {{bindAttr src="section.image"}}></li> {{/each}} </script> <script type="text/x-handlebars" data-template-name="categories"> {{#each category in controller}} <img {{bindAttr src="category.image"}}> {{/each}} </script>? JS Code: Here I set the content of the various controllers to data grabbed from a server and connect outlets with their corresponding views. Since the HomeController has no content, set its content to an empty object - a hack to get the rid of this error message: Uncaught Error: assertion failed: Cannot delegate set('categories' ) to the 'content' property of object proxy : its 'content' is undefined. App.Router = Ember.Router.extend({ enableLogging: false, root: Ember.Route.extend({ index: Ember.Route.extend({ route: '/', connectOutlets: function(router){ router.get('sectionsController').set('content',App.Section.find()); router.get('categoriesController').set('content', App.Category.find()); router.get('applicationController').connectOutlet('main_area', 'home'); router.get('homeController').connectOutlet('home', {}); router.get('homeController').connectOutlet('categories', 'categories'); router.get('homeController').connectOutlet('sections', 'sections'); } }) }) });

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• Adding custom methods to a subclassed NSManagedObject

  - by CJ

  I have a Core Data model where I have an entity A, which is an abstract. Entities B, C, and D inherit from entity A. There are several properties defined in entity A which are used by B, C, and D. I would like to leverage this inheritance in my model code. In addition to properties, I am wondering if I can add methods to entity A, which are implemented in it's sub-entities. For example: I add a method to the interface for entity A which returns a value and takes one argument I add implementations of this method to A, B, C, D Then, I call executeFetchRequest: to retrieve all instances of B I call the method on the objects retrieved, which should call the implementation of the method contained in B's implementation I have tried this, but when calling the method, I receive: [NSManagedObject methodName:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance I presume this is because the objects returned by executeFetchRequest: are proxy objects of some sort. Is there any way to leverage inheritance using subclassed NSManagedObjects? I would really like to be able to do this, otherwise my model code would be responsible for determining what type of NSManagedObject it's dealing with and perform special logic according to the type, which is undesirable. Any help is appreciated, thanks in advance.

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• Delphi 6 OleServer.pas Invoke memory leak

  - by Mike Davis

  There's a bug in delphi 6 which you can find some reference online for when you import a tlb the order of the parameters in an event invocation is reversed. It is reversed once in the imported header and once in TServerEventDIspatch.Invoke. you can find more information about it here: http://cc.embarcadero.com/Item/16496 somewhat related to this issue there appears to be a memory leak in TServerEventDispatch.Invoke with a parameter of a Variant of type Var_Array (maybe others, but this is the more obvious one i could see). The invoke code copies the args into a VarArray to be passed to the event handler and then copies the VarArray back to the args after the call, relevant code pasted below: // Set our array to appropriate length SetLength(VarArray, ParamCount); // Copy over data for I := Low(VarArray) to High(VarArray) do VarArray[I] := OleVariant(TDispParams(Params).rgvarg^[I]); // Invoke Server proxy class if FServer <> nil then FServer.InvokeEvent(DispID, VarArray); // Copy data back for I := Low(VarArray) to High(VarArray) do OleVariant(TDispParams(Params).rgvarg^[I]) := VarArray[I]; // Clean array SetLength(VarArray, 0); There are some obvious work-arounds in my case: if i skip the copying back in case of a VarArray parameter it fixes the leak. to not change the functionality i thought i should copy the data in the array instead of the variant back to the params but that can get complicated since it can hold other variants and seems to me that would need to be done recursively. Since a change in OleServer will have a ripple effect i want to make sure my change here is strictly correct. can anyone shed some light on exactly why memory is being leaked here? I can't seem to look up the callstack any lower than TServerEventDIspatch.Invoke (why is that?) I imagine that in the process of copying the Variant holding the VarArray back to the param list it added a reference to the array thus not allowing it to be release as normal but that's just a rough guess and i can't track down the code to back it up. Maybe someone with a better understanding of all this could shed some light?

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• Perl WordPress::XMLRPC categories not being set.

  - by Jay

  The following code works fine to upload a new post to a WordPress blog but for the life of me I can't seem to get the categories to be set. The categories exist. I've tried all lower case, tried case-matching, tried the slug version. Nothing works. No matter how I try passing the categories, the post gets assigned only to the default category. I've scoured the web to find other pieces of sample code and none mention the actual code semantics of how to assign post to certain categories using the WordPress::XMLRPC module. use WordPress::XMLRPC; my $o = WordPress::XMLRPC-new; $o-username('username'); $o-password('password'); $o-proxy('http://blogdomain.com/xmlrpc.php'); $o-server() || die "$!"; my $hashref = { 'title' = 'Test New Post 999 555456782', 'categories' = ['Categorie1', 'Categorie2'], 'description' = '<pHere is the content</p', 'mt_keywords' = 'tag1, tag2, tag3', 'mt_allow_comments' = 1, }; my $ID = $o-newPost($hashref, 1);

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• Why put a DAO layer over a persistence layer (like JDO or Hibernate)

  - by Todd Owen

  Data Access Objects (DAOs) are a common design pattern, and recommended by Sun. But the earliest examples of Java DAOs interacted directly with relational databases -- they were, in essence, doing object-relational mapping (ORM). Nowadays, I see DAOs on top of mature ORM frameworks like JDO and Hibernate, and I wonder if that is really a good idea. I am developing a web service using JDO as the persistence layer, and am considering whether or not to introduce DAOs. I foresee a problem when dealing with a particular class which contains a map of other objects: public class Book { // Book description in various languages, indexed by ISO language codes private Map<String,BookDescription> descriptions; } JDO is clever enough to map this to a foreign key constraint between the "BOOKS" and "BOOKDESCRIPTIONS" tables. It transparently loads the BookDescription objects (using lazy loading, I believe), and persists them when the Book object is persisted. If I was to introduce a "data access layer" and write a class like BookDao, and encapsulate all the JDO code within this, then wouldn't this JDO's transparent loading of the child objects be circumventing the data access layer? For consistency, shouldn't all the BookDescription objects be loaded and persisted via some BookDescriptionDao object (or BookDao.loadDescription method)? Yet refactoring in that way would make manipulating the model needlessly complicated. So my question is, what's wrong with calling JDO (or Hibernate, or whatever ORM you fancy) directly in the business layer? Its syntax is already quite concise, and it is datastore-agnostic. What is the advantage, if any, of encapsulating it in Data Access Objects?

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