Search Results

Search found 23603 results on 945 pages for 'non technical manager'.

Page 340/945 | < Previous Page | 336 337 338 339 340 341 342 343 344 345 346 347  | Next Page >

• SVM Classification - minimum number of input sets for each class

  - by Amol Joshi

  Im trying to build an app to detect images which are advertisements from the webpages. Once I detect those Ill not be allowing those to be displayed on the client side. From the help that I got here in stackoverflow, I thought SVM is the best approach to my aim. So, I have coded SVM and an SMO myself. The dataset which I have got from UCI data repository has 3280 instances ( Link to Dataset- http://archive.ics.uci.edu/ml/datasets/Internet+Advertisements )where around 400 of them are from class representing Advertisement images and rest of them representing non-advertisement images. Right now Im taking the first 2800 input sets and training the SVM. But after looking at the accuracy rate I realised that most of those 2800 input sets are from non-advertisement image class. So Im getting very good accuracy for that class. So what can I do here? About how many input set shall I give to SVM to train and how many of them for each class? Thanks. Cheers. ( Basically made a new question because the context was different from my previous question. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1991113/optimization-of-neural-network-input-data )

  Read the article

• ejb testing issues with netbeans and openejb

  - by SibzTer

  I have created a netbeans 6.7 EnterpriseApplication project with ejb and war modules with a test stateless session ejb with a simple sayHello() method. I also added the openEjb library in order to unit test the ejb. Everything runs fine except that I keep getting the following error: Testsuite: com.myapp.test.NewEmptyJUnitTest Apache OpenEJB 3.1.1 build: 20090530-06:18 http://openejb.apache.org/ INFO - openejb.home = C:\Users\me\Documents\NetBeansProjects\TestEnterpriseApp\TestEnterpriseApp-ejb INFO - openejb.base = C:\Users\me\Documents\NetBeansProjects\TestEnterpriseApp\TestEnterpriseApp-ejb INFO - Configuring Service(id=Default Security Service, type=SecurityService, provider-id=Default Security Service) INFO - Configuring Service(id=Default Transaction Manager, type=TransactionManager, provider-id=Default Transaction Manager) INFO - Found ClientModule in classpath: C:\Program Files\NetBeans 6.7.1\java2\ant\lib\ant.jar INFO - Found ClientModule in classpath: C:\Program Files\NetBeans 6.7.1\java2\ant\lib\ant-launcher.jar INFO - Found EjbModule in classpath: C:\Users\me\Documents\NetBeansProjects\TestEnterpriseApp\TestEnterpriseApp-ejb\build\jar INFO - Found ClientModule in classpath: C:\Users\me\Documents\NetBeansProjects\TestEnterpriseApp\lib\OpenEJB\xml-resolver-1.2.jar INFO - Found ClientModule in classpath: C:\Users\me\Documents\Downloads\glassfish\lib\webservices-tools.jar INFO - Beginning load: C:\Program Files\NetBeans 6.7.1\java2\ant\lib\ant.jar INFO - Beginning load: C:\Program Files\NetBeans 6.7.1\java2\ant\lib\ant-launcher.jar INFO - Beginning load: C:\Users\me\Documents\NetBeansProjects\TestEnterpriseApp\TestEnterpriseApp-ejb\build\jar INFO - Beginning load: C:\Users\me\Documents\NetBeansProjects\TestEnterpriseApp\lib\OpenEJB\xml-resolver-1.2.jar INFO - Beginning load: C:\Users\me\Documents\Downloads\glassfish\lib\webservices-tools.jar INFO - Configuring enterprise application: classpath.ear WARN - No application-client.xml found assuming annotations present: classpath.ear, module: ant.jar WARN - No application-client.xml found assuming annotations present: classpath.ear, module: ant-launcher.jar WARN - No application-client.xml found assuming annotations present: classpath.ear, module: xml-resolver-1.2.jar WARN - No application-client.xml found assuming annotations present: classpath.ear, module: webservices-tools.jar java.lang.Exception: Could not load 1/0/com/sun/codemodel/CodeWriter.class at org.apache.xbean.finder.ClassFinder.readClassDef(ClassFinder.java:730) .... Turns out that I am getting the glassfish library webservices-tools.jar from somewhere somehow and I cant find out how to get rid of it so that I dont get the bunch of Exceptions whenever I try to run any junit tests. Has anyone faced this issue before? Can you help me resolve it please? Thanks.

  Read the article

• XSLT: Regular Expression function does not work?

  - by Fedor Steeman

  Ok, this one has been driving me up the wall... I have a xslt function that is supposed to split out the Zip-code part from a Zip+City string depending on the country. I cannot get it to work! This is what I got so far: <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" xmlns:exslt="http://exslt.org/functions" xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <xsl:function name="exslt:GetZip" as="xs:string"> <xsl:param name="zipandcity" as="xs:string"/> <xsl:param name="countrycode" as="xs:string"/> <xsl:choose> <xsl:when test="$countrycode='DK'"> <xsl:analyze-string select="$zipandcity" regex="(\d{4}) ([A-Za-zÆØÅæøå]{3,24})"> <xsl:matching-substring> <xsl:value-of select="regex-group(1)"/> </xsl:matching-substring> <xsl:non-matching-substring> <xsl:text>fail</xsl:text> </xsl:non-matching-substring> </xsl:analyze-string> </xsl:when> <xsl:otherwise> <xsl:text>error</xsl:text> </xsl:otherwise> </xsl:choose> </xsl:function> I am running it on a source XML where the following values are passed to the function: zipandcity: "DK-2640 København SV" countrycode: "DK" ...will output 'fail'! I think there is something I am misunderstanding here...

  Read the article

• OutOfMemoryException, large Private Data

  - by Captain Comic

  Hello, In previous series: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2543648/outofmemoryexception-stack-size-is-huge-large-number-of-threads I have a .net windows service that consumes a lot of memory. The GC heap is not big. Also the stack size is not big. What is big is something called a private data. Also I can see in task manager that my application consumes a lot something that taskmanager calls a handle. My application consumes 2326 handles. I believe that these handles are some windows handles that occupy private data. I can see that this private data is occupied by blocks marked as Thread Environment Block. What is that? Screenshot of my application memory usage by VMMap Screenshot of my application memory usage by Task Manager UPDATE I run ProcessExplorer. I have two instances of my service running at the moment. I can see that they consume a lot of virtual memory for Gen2 GC. This look suspicios. Also total reserved for GC Heap size is the same for two processes.

  Read the article

• C# Menu Toolstrip Get Status

  - by Yeti

  So I have a project where there is some automatic initialization going on through some classes that are created automatically as global variables (deah they are static instances). At a point inside this (it has no relation with the C# GUI for the user, so it isn't derived from any C# class) I need to see if a flag is set or not. I use toolstrip menu with checked and unchecked status in order to set or unset the flag. The problem is that I have difficulties to see if the flag is checked or not from this static class. My class is inside a different project/namespace and a DLL is created what later is linked to the GUI of the application. The GUI depends from this Manager class so making the Manager class to depend from the GUI is not an option. Nevertheless, I should be able to see its state knowing its name or through some other means. I have tried the following: if(Application.OpenForms[1].Owner.Controls["useLocalImageForInitToolStripMenuItem"].Enabled) { }; Now the problem is that on the upper code snippet I get a nasty error. So how do I do this?

  Read the article

• Spring Security: Multiple Logins to the same resources: Form Login + Facebook Connect (uid, sessionK

  - by Daxon

  To begin I know about http://blog.kadirpekel.com/2009/11/09/facebook-connect-integration-with-spring-security/ The only problem is that it completely replaces the Form Login with Facebook Connect. I have the native form login in place, I also have Facebook Connect in place, Upon gathering user information I link it to a native account but without a password. At that point I would like to call a link or method to start process of going into the Spring Security Filter Chain. Here is the source code that works, but am trying to modify. It contains all the files I'm taking about. Now from what I understand I need to add a custom FacebookAuthenticationProvider so that my AuthenticationManager knows about it. <bean id="facebookAuthenticationProvider" class="org.springframework.security.facebook.FacebookAuthenticationProvider"> </bean> <security:authentication-manager alias="authenticationManager"> <security:authentication-provider ref="facebookAuthenticationProvider" /> </security:authentication-manager> Then within the FacebookAuthenticationProvider I would have to call an FacebookAuthenticationToken that would take my the current facebook Uid and SessionKey of the user. Then try authenticate this Token. So where does the FacebookAuthenticationFilter come into it? I'm just trying to understand the order at which these 3 files are called. As if you were trying to implement any other custom authentication. FacebookAuthenticationFilter.java FacebookAuthenticationProvider.java FacebookAuthenticationToken.java I have also posted this on the Spring Security Forum

  Read the article

• Poco SocketReactors for a Proxy Server

  - by Genesis

  Can anyone give me some idea of the best way to implement a non-blocking proxy server using a Poco Socket Reactor? Currently I have a blocking implementation where if a readable notification arrives from the client I am writing what is read directly to the server, and if a readable notification arrives from the server I am writing what is read directly to the client. To achieve this I keep the thread that initiated the server connection alive but I would prefer to switch to non-blocking and have any threads which are used to initiate a connection removed once the server and client sockets are registered with the reactor and the SOCKS5 handshake is over. With a SocketReactor one can register event handlers for a single socket but the trouble is I would need to store whatever is read from that socket in a global buffer until the corresponding server socket is ready to be written to as from my testing I dont seem to be able to just write directly to the server when client data arrives. I am thinking of using a struct that contains the client socket, server socket, client buffer and server buffer and whenever a writable notification comes along for either the client or server, finding the corresponding buffer and writing this. Any thoughts?

  Read the article

• Writing files in App_Data causes tempdata to be null

  - by RAMX

  I have a small asp.net MVC 1 web app that can store files and create directories in the App_Data directory. When the write operation succeeds, I add a message to the tempdata and do a redirectToRoute. The problem is that the tempdata is null when the action is executed. If i write the files in a directory outside of the web applications root directory, the tempdata is not null and everything works correctly. Any ideas why writing in the app_data seems to clear the tempdata ? edit: if DRS.Logic.Repository.Manager.CreateFile(path, hpf, comment) writes in the App_Data, TempData will be null in the action being redirected to. if it is a directory out of the web app root it is fine. No exceptions are being thrown. [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Create(int id, string path, FormCollection form) { ViewData["path"] = path; ViewData["id"] = id; HttpPostedFileBase hpf; string comment = form["FileComment"]; hpf = Request.Files["File"] as HttpPostedFileBase; if (hpf.ContentLength != 0) { DRS.Logic.Repository.Manager.CreateFile(path, hpf, comment); TempData["notification"] = "file was created"; return RedirectToRoute(new { controller = "File", action ="ViewDetails", id = id, path = path + Path.GetFileName(hpf.FileName) }); } else { TempData["notification"] = "No file were selected."; return View(); } }

  Read the article

• My SqlComand on SSIS - DataFlow OLE DB Command seems not works

  - by Angel Escobedo

  Hello Im using OLE DB Source for get rows from a dBase IV file and it works, then I split the data and perform a group by with aggregate component. So I obtain a row with two columns with "null" value : CompanyID | CompanyName | SubTotal | Tax | TotalRevenue Null Null 145487 27642.53 173129.53 this success because all rows have been grouped with out taking care about the firsts columns and just Summing the valuable columns, so I need to change that null for default values as CompanyID = "100000000" and CompanyName = "Others". I try use SqlCommand on a OLE DB Command Component : SELECT "10000000" AS RUCCLI , "Otros - Varios" AS RAZCLI FROM RGVCAFAC <property id="1505" name="SqlCommand" dataType="System.String" state="default" isArray="false" description="The SQL command to be executed." typeConverter="" UITypeEditor="Microsoft.DataTransformationServices.Controls.ModalMultilineStringEditor, Microsoft.DataTransformationServices.Controls, Version=10.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=89845dcd8080cc91" containsID="false" expressionType="Notify">SELECT "10000000" AS RUCCLI , "Otros - Varios" AS RAZCLI FROM RGVCAFAC</property> but nothings happens, why? and finally the task finish when the data is inserted on a SQL Server Table. Im using the same connection manager on extracting data and transform. (View Code) <DTS:Property DTS:Name="ConnectionString">Data Source=C:\CONTA\Resocen\Agosto\;Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Persist Security Info=False;Extended Properties=dBASE IV;</DTS:Property></DTS:ConnectionManager></DTS:ObjectData></DTS:ConnectionManager> all work is on memory, Im not using cache manager connections

  Read the article

• Schedule multiple events with NSTimer?

  - by AWright4911

  I have a schedule cache stored in a pList. For the example below, I have a schedule time of April 13, 2010 2:00PM and Aril 13, 2010 2:05PM. How can I add both of these to a queue to fire on their own? item 0 -Hour --14 -Minute --00 -Month --04 -Day --13 -Year --2010 item 1 -Hour --14 -Minute --05 -Month --04 -Day --13 -Year --2010 this is how I am attempting to schedule multiple events to fire at specific date / time. -(void) buildScheduleCache { MPNotifyViewController *notifier = [MPNotifyViewController alloc] ; [notifier setStatusText:@"Rebuilding schedule cache, this will only take a moment."]; [notifier show]; NSCalendarDate *now = [NSCalendarDate calendarDate]; NSFileManager *manager = [[NSFileManager defaultManager] autorelease]; path = @"/var/mobile/Library/MobileProfiles/Custom Profiles"; theProfiles = [manager directoryContentsAtPath:path]; myPrimaryinfo = [[NSMutableArray arrayWithCapacity:6] retain]; keys = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"Profile",@"MPSYear",@"MPSMonth",@"MPSDay",@"MPSHour",@"MPSMinute",nil]; for (NSString *profile in theProfiles) { plistDict = [[[NSMutableDictionary alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@/%@",path,profile]] autorelease]; [myPrimaryinfo addObject:[NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjects: [NSArray arrayWithObjects: [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@",profile], [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@",[plistDict objectForKey:@"MPSYear"]], [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@",[plistDict objectForKey:@"MPSMonth"]], [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@",[plistDict objectForKey:@"MPSDay"]], [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@",[plistDict objectForKey:@"MPSHour"]], [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@",[plistDict objectForKey:@"MPSMinute"]], nil]forKeys:keys]]; profileSched = [NSCalendarDate dateWithYear:[plistDict objectForKey:@"MPSYear"] month:[plistDict objectForKey:@"MPSMonth"] day:[plistDict objectForKey:@"MPSDay"] hour:[plistDict objectForKey:@"MPSHour"] minute:[plistDict objectForKey:@"MPSMinute"] second:01 timeZone:[now timeZone]]; [self rescheduleTimer]; } NSString *testPath = @"/var/mobile/Library/MobileProfiles/Schedules.plist"; [myPrimaryinfo writeToFile:testPath atomically:YES]; } -(void) rescheduleTimer { timer = [[NSTimer alloc] initWithFireDate:profileSched interval:0.0f target:self selector:@selector(theFireEvent) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; NSRunLoop *runLoop = [NSRunLoop currentRunLoop]; [runLoop addTimer:timer forMode:NSDefaultRunLoopMode]; }

  Read the article

• Coupling between controller and view

  - by cheez

  The litmus test for me for a good MVC implementation is how easy it is to swap out the view. I've always done this really badly due to being lazy but now I want to do it right. This is in C++ but it should apply equally to non-desktop applications, if I am to believe the hype. Here is one example: the application controller has to check some URL for existence in the background. It may connect to the "URL available" event (using Boost Signals) as follows: BackgroundUrlCheckerThread(Controller & controller) { // ... signalUrlAvailable.connect( boost::bind(&Controller::urlAvailable,&controller,_1)) } So what does Controller::urlAvailable look like? Here is one possibility: void Controller::urlAvailable(Url url) { if(!view->askUser("URL available, wanna download it?")) return; else // Download the url in a new thread, repeat } This, to me, seems like a gross coupling of the view and the controller. Such a coupling makes it impossible to implement the view when using the web (coroutines aside.) Another possibility: void Controller::urlAvailable(Url url) { urlAvailableSignal(url); // Now, any view interested can do what it wants } I'm partial to the latter but it appears that if I do this there will be: 40 billion such signals. The application controller can get huge for a non-trivial application A very real possibility that a given view accidentally ignores some signals (APIs can inform you at link-time, but signals/slots are run-time) Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• Making a concurrent AJAX WCF Web Service request during an Async Postback

  - by nekno

  I want to provide status updates during a long-running task on an ASP.NET WebForms page with AJAX. Is there a way to get the ScriptManager to execute and process a script for a web service request concurrently with an async postback? I have a script on the page that makes a web service request. It runs on page load and periodically using setInterval(). It's running correctly before the async postback is initiated, but it stops running during the async postback, and doesn't run again until after the async postback completes. I have an UpdatePanel with a button to trigger an async postback, which executes the long-running task. I also have an instance of an AJAX WCF Web service that is working correctly to fetch data and present it on the page but, like I said, it doesn't fetch and present the data until after the async postback completes. During the async postback, the long-running task sends updates from the page to the web service. The problem is that I can debug and step through the web service and see that the status updates are correctly set, but the updates aren't retrieved by the client script until the async postback completes. It seems the Script Manager is busy executing the async postback, so it doesn't run my other JavaScript via setInterval() until the postback completes. Is there a way to get the Script Manager, or otherwise, to run the script to fetch data from the WCF web service during the async postback? I've tried various methods of using the PageRequestManager to run the script on the client-side BeginRequest event for the async postback, but it runs the script, then stops processing the code that should be running via setInterval() while the page request executes.

  Read the article

• Changes in resolving .resx in Visual Studio 2010?

  - by MADMap

  Hi, I'm working on a quite simple Webpage (MVC2), using localisation based on ResourceFiles. I have the MVC2 Project and the Resources in a seperate Assembly. The Resources contains 3 languages (Resource.resx, Resource.de.resx, Resource.en.resx, Resource.ja.resx) and I'm querying them via the ResourceManager. Call from the .aspx <% Resources.Res resman = new Resources.Res(); %> <%=resman.GetString("String1", new System.Globalization.CultureInfo("en")) %><br /> <%=resman.GetString("String1", new System.Globalization.CultureInfo("ja")) %><br /> <%=resman.GetString("String1", new System.Globalization.CultureInfo("de")) %><br /> ResourceManager: public class Res { private readonly ResourceManager Manager = Resources.Resource1.ResourceManager; public string GetString(string id, CultureInfo info) { return Manager.GetString(id, info); } } And for the compiled Version in VS2008 I get smth like this: String1EN String1JA String1DE Compiled in Visual Studio 2008, this works fine: but I'm having Troubles if I compile the Solution in Visual Studio 2010 (also 3.5 as TargetFramework). There the result shows smth like: String1DEFAULT String1JA String1DEFAULT I don't know what it can be: is this still a bug from the VS2010 RC or am I doing smth. wrong here?

  Read the article

• Making an AJAX WCF Web Service request during an Async Postback

  - by nekno

  I want to provide status updates during a long-running task on an ASP.NET WebForms page with AJAX. Is there a way to get the ScriptManager to execute and process a script for a web service request during an async postback? I have a script on the page that makes a web service request. It runs on page load and periodically using setInterval(). It's running correctly before the async postback is initiated, but it stops running during the async postback, and doesn't run again until after the async postback completes. I have an UpdatePanel with a button to trigger an async postback, which executes the long-running task. I also have an instance of an AJAX WCF Web service that is working correctly to fetch data and present it on the page but, like I said, it doesn't fetch and present the data until after the async postback completes. During the async postback, the long-running task sends updates from the page to the web service. The problem is that I can debug and step through the web service and see that the status updates are correctly set, but the updates aren't retrieved by the client script until the async postback completes. It seems the Script Manager is busy executing the async postback, so it doesn't run my other JavaScript via setInterval() until the postback completes. Is there a way to get the Script Manager, or otherwise, to run the script to fetch data from the WCF web service during the async postback? I've tried various methods of using the PageRequestManager to run the script on the client-side BeginRequest event for the async postback, but it runs the script, then stops processing the code that should be running via setInterval() while the page request executes.

  Read the article

• Help with SQL server stack dump

  - by edosoft

  Hi guru's We're running SQL 2005 standard SP2 on a 4cpu box. Suddenly it crashdumps, after which all pooled connections are invalid and it goes into admin-only mode (only sa can connect) The short stackdump is below. After the dump a number of errors show up like '2008-09-16 10:49:34.48 Server Resource Monitor (0xec4) Worker 0x03D1C0E8 appears to be non-yielding on Node 0. Memory freed: 232408 KB. Approx CPU Used: kernel 203 ms, user 140 ms, Interval: 250250.' Have Googled around but couldn't find a definate answer. Anyone? 2008-09-16 10:46:24.98 Server Using 'dbghelp.dll' version '4.0.5' 2008-09-16 10:46:25.40 Server **Dump thread - spid = 0, PSS = 0x00000000, EC = 0x00000000 2008-09-16 10:46:25.40 Server ***Stack Dump being sent to C:\Program Files\Microsoft SQL Server\MSSQL.1\MSSQL\LOG\SQLDump0009.txt 2008-09-16 10:46:25.40 Server * ******************************************************************************* 2008-09-16 10:46:25.40 Server * 2008-09-16 10:46:25.40 Server * BEGIN STACK DUMP: 2008-09-16 10:46:25.40 Server * 09/16/08 10:46:25 spid 0 2008-09-16 10:46:25.42 Server * 2008-09-16 10:46:25.42 Server * Non-yielding Resource Monitor 2008-09-16 10:46:25.42 Server * 2008-09-16 10:46:25.42 Server * ******************************************************************************* 2008-09-16 10:46:25.42 Server * ------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 2008-09-16 10:46:25.42 Server * Short Stack Dump 2008-09-16 10:46:25.76 Server Stack Signature for the dump is 0x00000352 2008-09-16 10:46:32.70 Server External dump process return code 0x20000001.

  Read the article

• flex and jsf access the same instance of bean

  - by David

  i integrate a flex app in a jsf-icefaces app (in a jspx site with the ice:outputmedia-tag) and want to access the same instance of a bean from flex by remote, that jsf inject. i already connect with blazeds to a java-bean. this bean - like all other beans - get other beans by injection of jsf, but when i access the bean by remote from flex it doesnt hold the injected beans (like localizer and accesmanager, both session scoped) and i can't connect to the jsf session (FacesContext.getCurrentInstance() is null). this is because flex create a new instance of the bean and it’s not the same current instance, that jsf inject, i think. i can connect from flex to the database by create a new entity manager in the java bean, but that's not what i want, because it's again another entity manager...i want persist and get data over the accessmanager-bean. i know exadel fiji and flamingo, but i couldn't work with fiji, because my jsf app include the icefaces components and then it doesn't work with richfaces which fiji needs. and flamingo work only with jboss seam and spring. is it right? i also read about the spring-flex-integration, but the jsf application did not create with spring and i don't want to integrate spring in such a large jsf app. yesterday i read about the FlexFactory interface. this interface i have to implement in my own Factory and set it in the service-config.xml of blazeds as a factory read this. i still implement my own factory but i only get application scoped beans over the servlet context which i get over FlexContext.getServletContext().getAttribute("Bean"); and not session scoped beans... i hope there is a chance to connect throw flex and jsf... thanks!

  Read the article

• Need help figuring out an appropriate job title

  - by Programmer

  My official title is Programmer but I do not feel it fully represents what I do because a large portion of my time is spent working with QA on testing, acting as a liason with our offshore development team and meeting with business managers to help make decisions about new features. My understanding has always been that the title "Programmer" is usually applied to someone who simply writes code, not someone who is involved in architecture decisions or managerial issues related to offshore teams. It is true that I do not have any budgeting duties as my manager does and I do not deal with contracts related to the offshore development. My manager handles both of those duties. But the title "Programmer" seems like a very narrow label for the broad range of responsibilities that I have. For example, I sometimes help QA staff to figure out how to do their testing. And I give the offshore team detailed instructions about how to implement new features - I review their code and integrate their changes locally. I don't know if this is typical these days or if I should ask for a title change. If I should ask for a title change, I would appreciate any recommendations.

  Read the article

• How to pass a random User/Pass (for Basic Authentication) with JMeter?

  - by Pure.Krome

  Hi folks, I'm using JMeter to stress test an API. I've got Basic Authentication set up - seems to be working great. Now, i'm trying to randomize the credentials that JMeter passes across the wire. So, there's two ways I know I can do this. Add a custom HTTP Header (via an HTTP Header Manager Element) and set then value to the random fields (ie. something I've read in from a csv file) Use the HTTP Authorization Manager Element and pass in the username and password there. Now, if I try and use method (1) above, I need to create the following header/data :- Authorization: Basic <some Base64 encoded string in the format username:password> eg. Authorization: Basic OnVzZXIxOnBhc3Mx Kewl. simple. BUT that header value is not getting passed across the wire :( I can add any other header type and it's passed across the wire.. hmm .. ok then .. lets try method (2). Now that works .. but I can only hardcode in the username & password. I can't see how I can pass in a username VARIABLE (ie. ${usernmae} ) or a password VARIABLE (ie. ${password} ).... If it's hardcoded, then the server correctly replies with the correct page/data. so .. can someone please help?

  Read the article

• Prism - loading modules causes activation error

  - by Noich

  I've created a small Prism application (using MEF) with the following parts: - Infrastructure project, that contains a global file of region names. - Main project, that has 2 buttons to load other modules. - ModulesInterfaces project, where I've defined an IDataAccess interface for my DataAccess module. - DataAccess project, where there are several files but one main DataAccess class that implements both IDataAccess and IModule. When the user click a button, I want to show him a list of employees, so I need the DataAccess module. My code is as follows: var namesView = new EmployeesListView(); var namesViewModel = new EmployeesListViewModel(employeeRepository); namesView.DataContext = namesViewModel; namesViewModel.EmployeeSelected += EmployeeSelected; LocateManager(); manager.Regions["ContentRegion"].Add(new NoEmployeeView(), "noEmployee"); manager.Regions["NavigationRegion"].Add(namesView); I get an exception in my code when I'm trying to get DataAccess as a service (via ServiceLocator). I'm not sure if that's the right way to go, but trying to get it from the ModuleCatalog (as a type IDataAccess returns an empty enumeration). I'd appreciate some directions. Thanks. The problematic code line: object instance = ServiceLocator.Current.GetInstance(typeof(DataAccess.DataAccess)); The exact exception: Activation error occured while trying to get instance of type DataAccess, key "" The inner exception is null, the stack trace: at Microsoft.Practices.Prism.MefExtensions.MefServiceLocatorAdapter.DoGetInstance(Type serviceType, String key) in c:\release\WorkingDir\PrismLibraryBuild\PrismLibrary\Desktop\Prism.MefExtensions\MefServiceLocatorAdapter.cs:line 76 at Microsoft.Practices.ServiceLocation.ServiceLocatorImplBase.GetInstance(Type serviceType, String key) Edit The same exception is thrown for: container = (CompositionContainer)ServiceLocator.Current.GetInstance(typeof(CompositionContainer));

  Read the article

• Using ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem in ASP.NET in a high traffic scenario

  - by Michael Hart

  I've always been under the impression that using the ThreadPool for (let's say non-critical) short-lived background tasks was considered best practice, even in ASP.NET, but then I came across this article that seems to suggest otherwise - the argument being that you should leave the ThreadPool to deal with ASP.NET related requests. So here's how I've been doing small asynchronous tasks so far: ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem(s => PostLog(logEvent)) And the article is suggesting instead to create a thread explicitly, similar to: new Thread(() => PostLog(logEvent)){ IsBackground = true }.Start() The first method has the advantage of being managed and bounded, but there's the potential (if the article is correct) that the background tasks are then vying for threads with ASP.NET request-handlers. The second method frees up the ThreadPool, but at the cost of being unbounded and thus potentially using up too many resources. So my question is, is the advice in the article correct? If your site was getting so much traffic that your ThreadPool was getting full, then is it better to go out-of-band, or would a full ThreadPool imply that you're getting to the limit of your resources anyway, in which case you shouldn't be trying to start your own threads? Clarification: I'm just asking in the scope of small non-critical asynchronous tasks (eg, remote logging), not expensive work items that would require a separate process (in these cases I agree you'll need a more robust solution).

  Read the article

• DB2 with mod_perl not working, works fine in CGI

  - by Matthew

  Hi, I'm having issues with getting DBI's IBM DB2 driver to work with mod_perl. My test script is: #!/usr/bin/perl use CGI; use Data::Dumper; use DBI; $q = CGI->new; print $q->header; print $q->start_html(); $dsn = "DBI:DB2:SAMPLE"; $username = "username"; $password = "password"; $dbc = DBI->connect($dsn, $username, $password); $sth = $dbc->prepare("SELECT * FROM SOME_TABLE WHERE FIELD='SOMETHING'"); $sth->execute(); $row = $sth->fetchrow_hashref(); print "<pre>".$q->escapeHTML(Dumper($row))."</pre>"; print $q->end_html; This script works as CGI but not under mod_perl. I get this error in apache's error log: DBD::DB2::dr connect warning: [unixODBC][Driver Manager]Data source name not found, and no default driver specified at /usr/lib/perl5/site_perl/5.8.8/Apache/DBI.pm line 190. DBI connect('SAMPLE','username',...) failed: [unixODBC][Driver Manager]Data source name not found, and no default driver specified at /data/www/perl/test.pl line 15 First of all, why is it using ODBC? The native DB2 driver is installed (hence it works as CGI). Running Apache 2.2.3, mod_perl 2.0.4 under RHEL5. This guy had the same problem as me: http://www.mail-archive.com/[email protected]/msg22909.html But I have no idea how he fixed it. What does mod_php4 have to do with mod_perl? Any help would be greatly appreciated, I'm having no luck with google.

  Read the article

• How to write a C program using the fork() system call that generates the Fibonacci sequence in the

  - by Ellen

  The problem I am having is that when say for instance the user enters 7, then the display shows: 0 11 2 3 5 8 13 21 child ends. I cannot seem to figure out how to fix the 11 and why is it displaying that many numbers in the sequence! Can anyone help? The number of the sequence will be provided in the command line. For example, if 5 is provided, the first five numbers in the Fibonacci sequence will be output by the child process. Because the parent and child processes have their own copies of the data, it will be necessary for the child to output the sequence. Have the parent invoke the wait() call to wait for the child process to complete before exiting the program. Perform necessary error checking to ensure that a non-negative number is passed on the command line. #include <stdio.h> #include <sys/types.h> #include <unistd.h> int main() { int a=0, b=1, n=a+b,i,ii; pid_t pid; printf("Enter the number of a Fibonacci Sequence:\n"); scanf("%d", &ii); if (ii < 0) printf("Please enter a non-negative integer!\n"); else { pid = fork(); if (pid == 0) { printf("Child is producing the Fibonacci Sequence...\n"); printf("%d %d",a,b); for (i=0;i<ii;i++) { n=a+b; printf("%d ", n); a=b; b=n; } printf("Child ends\n"); } else { printf("Parent is waiting for child to complete...\n"); wait(NULL); printf("Parent ends\n"); } } return 0; }

  Read the article

• .NET socket timeout - blocking on Close method

  - by Mark

  I'm having trouble implementing a connect timeout using asynchronous socket calls. The idea being that I call BeginConnect on a Socket object, then use a timer to call Close() on the socket after a timeout period has elapsed. This works fine as long as the socket is created on the GUI thread - the Close method returns immediately, and the callback method is executed. However, if the socket is created on any other thread, the Close method blocks until the default IP timeout occurs. Code to reproduce: private Socket client; private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Creating the socket on a threadpool thread causes Close to block. ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem((object state) => { client = new Socket(AddressFamily.InterNetwork, SocketType.Stream, ProtocolType.Tcp); IAsyncResult result = client.BeginConnect(IPAddress.Parse("144.1.1.1"), 23, new AsyncCallback(CallbackMethod), client); // Wait for 2 seconds before closing the socket. if (result.AsyncWaitHandle.WaitOne(2000)) { MessageBox.Show("Connected."); } else { MessageBox.Show("Timed out. Closing socket..."); client.Close(); MessageBox.Show("Socket closed."); } }); } private void CallbackMethod(IAsyncResult result) { MessageBox.Show("Callback started."); Socket client = result.AsyncState as Socket; try { client.EndConnect(result); } catch (ObjectDisposedException) { } MessageBox.Show("Callback finished."); } If you remove the QueueUserWorkItem line, creating the socket on the GUI thread, the socket closes instantly without blocking. Can anyone shed some light on what's going on? Thanks. Edit - System.Net trace output seems to be different depending on whether it's being connected on the GUI thread or a different thread: Trace from non-blocking close when using GUI thread Trace from blocking close when using non-GUI thread

  Read the article

• To Ajax or Not to Ajax a listing page

  - by kaivalya

  Here i am talking about product listing pages where there are multiple filters that filter the list of products appearing on the page like product types, categories price range etc. I have done such pages using both ajax and no ajax way in the past. What I like about using ajax in such page is that, when filters are selected I only update the section that contains the product list. There is no need to refresh the whole page which could end up re-loading the images on top bar, banners etc and slow down the user performance. Ajax way in my opinion becomes more compact and responsive from user experience. Down side for ajax route for me is; since filter states are not maintained in the URL I end up maintaining them on the server. This becomes complicated if I want to handle multi window scenarios and it is also costly to maintain such state on server memory for each session. Not using ajax and simply keeping all filter values on url and refreshing the page is quite simple but the luxury of refreshing only the pane that really needs to be refreshed is lost. Lately I am seeing a lot of large scale e-commerce sites that are using non-ajax approach on their listing pages and this is making me question one more time if it might be more efficient to build non-ajax listing make due to the long term maintenance ease and sacrifice a little bit from user experience. I am about to start implementing a new listing page for a product which I have the flexibility to go either way and I would appreciate your inputs.

  Read the article

• Linq to Entities and POCO foreign key relations mapping (1 to 0..1) problem

  - by brainnovative

  For my ASP.NET MVC 2 application I use Entity Framework 1.0 as my data access layer (repository). But I decided I want to return POCO. For the first time I have encountered a problem when I wanted to get a list of Brands with their optional logos. Here's what I did: public IQueryable<Model.Products.Brand> GetAll() { IQueryable<Model.Products.Brand> brands = from b in EntitiesCtx.Brands.Include("Logo") select new Model.Products.Brand() { BrandId = b.BrandId, Name = b.Name, Description = b.Description, IsActive = b.IsActive, Logo = /*b.Logo != null ? */new Model.Cms.Image() { ImageId = b.Logo.ImageId, Alt = b.Logo.Alt, Url = b.Logo.Url }/* : null*/ }; return brands; } You can see in the comments what I would like to achieve. It worked fine whenever a Brand had a Logo otherwise it through an exception that you can assign null to the non-nullable type int (for Id). My workaround was to use nullable in the POCO class but that's not natural - then I have to check not only if Logo is null in my Service layer or Controllers and Views but mostly for Logo.ImageId.HasValue. It's not justified to have a non null Logo property if the id is null. Can anyone think of a better solution?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 336 337 338 339 340 341 342 343 344 345 346 347  | Next Page >