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  • PHP check http referer for form submitted by AJAX, secure?

    - by Michael Mao
    Hi all: This is the first time I am working for a front-end project that requires server-side authentication for AJAX requests. I've encountered problems like I cannot make a call of session_start as the beginning line of the "destination page", cuz that would get me a PHP Warning : Warning: session_start() [function.session-start]: Cannot send session cache limiter - headers already sent (output started at C:\xampp\htdocs\comic\app\ajaxInsert Book.php:1) in C:\xampp\htdocs\comic\app\common.php on line 10 I reckon this means I have to figure out a way other than checking PHP session variables to authenticate the "caller" of this PHP script, and this is my approach : I have a "protected" PHP page, which must be used as the "container" of my javascript that posts the form through jQuery $.ajax(); method In my "receiver" PHP script, what I've got is: <?php define(BOOKS_TABLE, "books"); define(APPROOT, "/comic/"); define(CORRECT_REFERER, "/protected/staff/addBook.php"); function isRefererCorrect() { // the following line evaluates the relative path for the referer uri, // Say, $_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'] returns "http://localhost/comic/protected/staff/addBook.php" // Then the part we concern is just this "/protected/staff/addBook.php" $referer = substr($_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'], 6 + strrpos($_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'], APPROOT)); return (strnatcmp(CORRECT_REFERER, $referer) == 0) ? true : false; } //http://stackoverflow.com/questions/267546/correct-http-header-for-json-file header('Content-type: application/json charset=UTF-8'); header('Cache-Control: no-cache, must-revalidate'); echo json_encode(array ( "feedback"=>"ok", "info"=>isRefererCorrect() )); ?> My code works, but I wonder is there any security risks in this approach? Can someone manipulate the post request so that he can pretend that the caller javascript is from the "protected" page? Many thanks to any hints or suggestions.

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  • C++ socket concurrent server

    - by gregpi
    Hi all; Im writing a concurrent server that's supposed to have a communication channel and a data channel. The client initially connect to the communication channel to authenticate, upon successful authentication, the client is then connected to the data channel to access data. My program is already doing that, and im using threads.My only issue is that if I try to connect another client, I get a "cannot bind : address already in use" error. I have it this way: PART A Client connect to port 4567 (and enter his login info). A thread spawn to handle the client(repeated for each client that connects). In the thread created, I have a function(let's call it FUNC_A) that checks the client's login info(dont worry about how the check is done), if successful, the thread starts the data server(listening on 8976) then sends an OK to the client, once received the client attempts to connect to the data server. PART B Once a client connect to the data server, from inside FUNC_A the client is accepted and another thread is spawn to handle the client's connection to the data server.(hopefully everything is clear). Now, all that is working fine. However, if I try to connect with second client when it gets to PART B I get a "cannot bind error: address already in use". I've tried so many different ways, I've even tried spawning a thread to start the data server and accept the client and then start another thread to handle that connection. still no luck. Please give me a suggestion as to what I'm doing wrong, how do I go about doing this or what's the best way to implement it. Thank you

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  • How do you fix loading plugins in eclipse 3.5.1 on linux?

    - by Jay R.
    I have two linux boxes. Both Fedora 11 x64. On one, I downloaded the eclipse-java-galileo-SR1-linux-gtk-x86_64.tar.gz. I unpacked it to /opt/eclipse-3.5.1/ and used the Install New Software... item to install the SVN team provider and the Polarion SVN connectors. Everything works. On the second, I copied the tar.gar for eclipse there, and then tried to follow the same steps. When I get to the install SVN team provided, eclipse downloads it and claims to install it and asks to restart. I restart and there is no SVN support. The software installer knows its there because I can't reinstall it without uninstalling it. So the questions: Why isn't the plugin/feature loading for the SVN Team Support? Is there a checkbox that I forgot about that enables the plugin? Is there a command line option that will force reload all of the features on the disk? I've tried to install other things like findbugs, but I get the same result. I have no messages in the log file indicating an exception or anything like that.

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  • AssemblyResolve event is not firing during compilation of a dynamic assembly for an aspx page.

    - by John
    This one is really pissing me off. Here goes: My goal is to load assemblies at run-time that contain embedded aspx,ascx etc. What I would also like is to not lock the assembly file on disk so I can update it at run-time without having to restart the application (I know this will leave the previous version(s) loaded). To that end I have written a virtual path provider that does the trick. I have subscribed to the CurrentDomain.AssemblyResolve event so as to redirect the framework to my assemblies. The problem is that the when the framework tries to compile the dynamic assembly for the aspx page I get the following: Compiler Error Message: CS0400: The type or namespace name 'Pages' could not be found in the global namespace (are you missing an assembly reference?) Source Error: public class app_resource_pages__version_1_0_0_0__culture_neutral__publickeytoken_null_default_aspx : global::Pages._Default, System.Web.SessionState.IRequiresSessionState, System.Web.IHttpHandle I noticed that if I load the assembly with Assembly.Load(AssemblyName) or Assembly.LoadFrom(filename) I dont get the above error. If I load it with Assembly.Load(byte[]) (so as to not lock it), the exception is thrown but my AssemblyResolve handler, when called is returning the assembly correctly (it is called once). So I am guessing that it is called once when the framework parses the asp markup but not when it tries to create the dynamic assembly for the aspx page.

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  • Componentizing complex functionality in an MVC web app

    - by NXT
    Hi Everyone, This is question about MVC web-app architecture, and how it can be extended to handle componentizing moderately complex units of functionality. I have an MVC style web-app with a customer facing credit card charge page. I've been asked to allow the admins to enter credit card payments as well, for times when credit cards are taken over the phone. The customer facing credit card charge section of the website is currently it's own controller, with approximately 3 pages and a login. That controller is responsible for: Customer login credential authentication Credit card data collection Calling a library to do the actual charge. reporting the results to the user. I would like to extract the card data collection pages into a component of some kind so that I can easily reuse the code on the admin side of the app. Right now my components are limited to single "view" pages with PHP style embedded Perl code. This is a simple, custom MVC framework written in Perl. Right now, controllers are called directly from the framework to service web requests. My idea is to allow controllers to be called from other controllers, so that I can componentize more complex functionality. For simplicity I think I prefer composition over inheritance, even though it will require writing a bunch of pass-through methods (actions). Being Perl, I could in theory do multiple inheritance. I'm wondering if anyone with experience in other MVC web frameworks can comment on how this sort of thing is usually done. Thank you.

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  • Gdata JavaScript Authsub continues redirect

    - by Krustal
    I am using the JavaScript Google Data API and having issues getting the AuthSub script to work correctly. This is my script currently: google.load('gdata', '1'); function getCookie(c_name){ if(document.cookie.length>0){ c_start=document.cookie.indexOf(c_name + "="); if(c_start!=-1){ c_start=c_start + c_name.length+1; c_end=document.cookie.indexOf(";",c_start); if(c_end==-1) c_end=document.cookie.length; return unescape(document.cookie.substring(c_start, c_end)); } } return ""; } function main(){ var scope = 'http://www.google.com/calendar/feeds/'; if(!google.accounts.user.checkLogin(scope)){ google.accounts.user.login(); } else { /* * Retrieve all calendars */ // Create the calendar service object var calendarService = new google.gdata.calendar.CalendarService('GoogleInc-jsguide-1.0'); // The default "allcalendars" feed is used to retrieve a list of all // calendars (primary, secondary and subscribed) of the logged-in user var feedUri = 'http://www.google.com/calendar/feeds/default/allcalendars/full'; // The callback method that will be called when getAllCalendarsFeed() returns feed data var callback = function(result) { // Obtain the array of CalendarEntry var entries = result.feed.entry; //for (var i = 0; i < entries.length; i++) { var calendarEntry = entries[0]; var calendarTitle = calendarEntry.getTitle().getText(); alert('Calendar title = ' + calendarTitle); //} } // Error handler to be invoked when getAllCalendarsFeed() produces an error var handleError = function(error) { alert(error); } // Submit the request using the calendar service object calendarService.getAllCalendarsFeed(feedUri, callback, handleError); } } google.setOnLoadCallback(main); However when I run this the page redirects me to the authentication page. After I authenticate it send me back to my page and then quickly sends me back to the authenticate page again. I've included alerts to check if the token is being set and it doesn't seem to be working. Has anyone has this problem?

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  • "rsAccessDenied" error for SSRS 2008

    - by JackLocke
    Hi All, I have been trying to access SSRS Web Service URL hxxp://myServer:80/ReportServer (from Reporting Service Configuration Manager), but my IE always shows "rsAccessDenied" message saying that my account doesn't have privilage required to view. Here are my system specs. Its my laptop with Windows 7 x64, and SQL Server 2008 with SP1 and I am using Mixed Mode Authentication with My account as SysAdmin privilages and this is what I have been trying / tried ... (ofcourse with restarting the service everytime I make any change in configuration), I changed service account from Reporting Service Configuration Manager to make it use My account but nothing happend. I tried running my IE as admin, by RUN AS ADMIN but still same message. Then I read somewhere I have to delete/recreate my encryption keys as well, so I tried again with that, then it was asking me to enter ID/PWD to access server here I am totally blank because it was not accepting my account credentials !!!. Weird thing is I can see my existing reports if I follow this URL hxxp://myServer:80/Reports , for which My guess is solely used to view reports. I have read post here about kind of same problem, but it seems that OP just left forum after asking question... Also, MSDN does have these helps hxxp://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms156034.aspx hxxp://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb630430.aspx but both of this didn't workout for me. I will really appriciate it if any one can help me out. Jack p.s. I was not allowed to post more than 1 URL because of my "reputation" so I had to change the string a bit. Please replace hxxp wih http in URLs.

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  • Migrate Data and Schema from MySQL to MSSQL

    - by colithium
    Are there any free solutions for automatically migrating a database from MySQL to MSSQL Server that "just works"? I've been attempting this simple (at least I thought so) task all day now. I've tried: MSSQL Server Management Studio's Import Data feature Create an empty database Tasks - Import Data... .NET Framework Data Provider for Odbc Valid DSN (verified it connects) Copy data from one or more tables or views Check 1 VERY simple table Click Preview Get Error: The preview data could not be retrieved. ADDITIONAL INFORMATION: ERROR [42000] [MySQL][ODBC 5.1 Driver][mysqld-5.1.45-community]You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near '"table_name"' at line 1 (myodbc5.dll) A similar error occurs if I go through the rest of the wizard and perform the operation. The failed step is "Setting Source Connection" the error refers to retrieving column information and then lists the above error. It can retrieve column information just fine when I modify column mappings so I really don't know what the issue is. I've also tried getting various MySql tools to output ddl statements that MSSQL understand but haven't succeeded. I've tried with MySQL v5.1.11 to SQL Server 2005 and with MySQL v5.1.45 to SQL Server 2008 (with ODBC drivers 3.51.27.00 and 5.01.06.00 respectively)

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  • ASP can't connect to SQL Server database

    - by birdus
    I'm trying to get a classic ASP application to connect to a local SQL Server 2008 database. The app and database were built by someone else. I'm just trying to get them installed and running on my machine (Windows 7). I'm getting the following error when when the ASP app tries to connect to the database: Could not connect to database: Error Number: -2147467259 Error Message: [ConnectionOpen (Connect()).] does not exist or access denied. I don't see any messages in the Windows Event Viewer. I'm looking at: Event Viewer-Windows Logs-Application. It's a fresh database install using a simple restore. The SQL Server install uses the default instance. SQL Server and Windows authentication are both allowed. I left the existing connection string (in the ASP code) in tact and just tried adding that to my SQL Server installation. Here's the connection string: strConn = "PROVIDER=SQLOLEDB;SERVER=localhost;UID=TheUser;PWD=ThePassword;DATABASE=TheDatabase;" To add that user to SQL Server, I went to Security/Logins in SSMS and added the user and the password. I selected the database in question as the Default database. I thought that might do the trick, but it didn't. Then, I went into TheDatabase, then went into Security there. I added a new user there, referencing the new user I had already added in server Security. Under Owned Schemas, I clicked db_owner and under Role Members I checked db_accessadmin and db_owner. None of this gave the ASP application access to the database. The sid values match in sys.database_principals and sys.server_principals for the login in question. I am able to login to SSMS using this login. The app needs to execute selects against the database like this: oConn.Execute('select * from someTable') I'm not a DBA and am sort of grasping at straws here. How do I get this thing connected? Thanks, Jay

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  • Why does Hibernate 2nd level cache only cache queries within a session?

    - by Synesso
    Using a named query in our application and with ehcache as the provider, it seems that the query results are tied to the session within the cache. Any attempt to access the value from the cache for a second time results in a LazyInitializationException We have set lazy = true for the following mapping because this object is also used by another part of the system which does not require the reference... and we want to keep it lean. <class name="domain.ReferenceAdPoint" table="ad_point" mutable="false" lazy="false"> <cache usage="read-only"/> <id name="code" type="long" column="ad_point_id"> <generator class="assigned" /> </id> <property name="name" column="ad_point_description" type="string"/> <set name="synonyms" table="ad_point_synonym" cascade="all-delete-orphan" lazy="true"> <cache usage="read-only"/> <key column="ad_point_id" /> <element type="string" column="synonym_description" /> </set> </class> <query name="find.adpoints.by.heading">from ReferenceAdPoint adpoint left outer join fetch adpoint.synonyms where adpoint.adPointField.headingCode = ?</query> Here's a snippet from our hibernate.cfg.xml <property name="hibernate.cache.provider_class">net.sf.ehcache.hibernate.SingletonEhCacheProvider</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.use_query_cache">true</property> It doesn't seem to make sense that the cache would be constrained to the session. Why are the cached queries not usable outside of the (relatively short-lived) sessions?

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  • Using Excel VBA to Create SQL Tables

    - by user307655
    Hi All, I am trying to use Excel VBA to automate the creation of a SQL table in an existing SQL Database. I have come across the following code on this side. Private Sub CreateDatabaseFromExcel() Dim dbConnectStr As String Dim Catalog As Object Dim cnt As ADODB.Connection Dim dbPath As String Dim tblName As String 'Set database name in the Excel Sheet dbPath = ActiveSheet.Range("B1").Value 'Database Name tblName = ActiveSheet.Range("B2").Value 'Table Name dbConnectStr = "Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Data Source=" & dbPath & ";" 'Create new database using name entered in Excel Cell ("B1") Set Catalog = CreateObject("ADOX.Catalog") Catalog.Create dbConnectStr Set Catalog = Nothing 'Connect to database and insert a new table Set cnt = New ADODB.Connection With cnt .Open dbConnectStr .Execute "CREATE TABLE tblName ([BankName] text(50) WITH Compression, " & _ "[RTNumber] text(9) WITH Compression, " & _ "[AccountNumber] text(10) WITH Compression, " & _ "[Address] text(150) WITH Compression, " & _ "[City] text(50) WITH Compression, " & _ "[ProvinceState] text(2) WITH Compression, " & _ "[Postal] text(6) WITH Compression, " & _ "[AccountAmount] decimal(6))" End With Set cnt = Nothing End Sub However i can't successfully get it to work? What I am trying to do is actually use Excel to create a table not a database? The database already exists. I would just like to create a new table. The name of the table will be referenced from cell A1 in Sheet 1. Can somebody please help. Thanks Regards Gerard

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  • How do common web frameworks (Django, Rails, Symfony, etc) handle multiple instances of the same plu

    - by Steven Wei
    Do any of the popular web frameworks solve this problem well? Here's an example: suppose you're running one of these web frameworks and you want to install a blog plugin. Except instead of a single blog, you need to run two separate instances of the blog plugin, and you want to keep them segregated. Or say you want to install multiple instances of a user authentication plugin, because you want to segregate your administrative users from your customer user accounts. Or say you want to install multiple instances of a wiki plugin for different parts of your site, or multiple instances of a comments plugin, or whatever else. It seems to me that at the basic level, each instance of plugin would need to be able to configured with a different set of database tables, and would need to be 'installed' at a different URL path. My experience is mostly with Django and Symfony, and I haven't seen a clean solution to this problem in either of them. They both tend to assume that each plugin (or app, in Django's case) is only ever going to be installed once. I'm curious if the Rails folks have figured out a clean solution to this problem, or any other framework authors (in any language). And if you were going to design a solution to this problem, what would it look like?

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  • Axis2 SOAP Envelope Header Information

    - by BigZig
    I'm consuming a web service that places an authentication token in the SOAP envelope header. It appears (through looking at the samples that came with the WS WSDL) that if the stub is generated in .NET, this header information is exposed through a member variable in the stub class. However, when I generate my Axis2 java stub using WSDL2Java it doesn't appear to be exposed anywhere. What is the correct way to extract this information from the SOAP envelope header? WSDL: http://www.vbar.com/zangelo/SecurityService.wsdl C# Sample: using System; using SignInSample.Security; // web service using SignInSample.Document; // web service namespace SignInSample { class SignInSampleClass { [STAThread] static void Main(string[] args) { // login to the Vault and set up the document service SecurityService secSvc = new SecurityService(); secSvc.Url = "http://localhost/AutodeskDM/Services/SecurityService.asmx"; secSvc.SecurityHeaderValue = new SignInSample.Security.SecurityHeader(); secSvc.SignIn("Administrator", "", "Vault"); DocumentServiceWse docSvc = new DocumentServiceWse(); docSvc.Url = "http://localhost/AutodeskDM/Services/DocumentService.asmx"; docSvc.SecurityHeaderValue = new SignInSample.Document.SecurityHeader(); docSvc.SecurityHeaderValue.Ticket = secSvc.SecurityHeaderValue.Ticket; docSvc.SecurityHeaderValue.UserId = secSvc.SecurityHeaderValue.UserId; } } } The sample illustrates what I'd like to do. Notice how the secSvc instance has a SecurityHeaderValue member variable that is populated after a successful secSvc.SignIn() invocation. Here's some relevant API documentation regarding the SignIn method: Although there is no return value, a successful sign in will populate the SecurityHeaderValue of the security service. The SecurityHeaderValue information is then used for other web service calls.

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  • How to load an ImageView from a png file?

    - by Peter vdL
    I take a picture with the camera using Intent intent = new Intent(android.provider.MediaStore.ACTION_IMAGE_CAPTURE ); startActivityForResult( intent, 22 ); When the activity completes, I write the bitmap picture out to a PNG file. java.io.FileOutputStream out = openFileOutput("myfile.png", Context.MODE_PRIVATE); bmp.compress(Bitmap.CompressFormat.PNG, 90, out); That goes OK, and I can see the file is created in my app private data space. I'm having difficulty when I later want to display that image using an ImageView. Can anyone suggest code to do this? If I try to create a File with path separators in, it fails. If I try to create a Uri from a name without separators, that fails. I can open the file OK using: java.io.FileInputStream in = openFileInput("myfile.png"); But that doesn't give me the Uri I need to set an image with iv.setImageURI(u) Summary: I have the picture in a png file in private app data. What's the code to set that into an ImageView? Thanks.

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  • How do i programmatically access the face cache in Windows Live Photo Gallery?

    - by acorderob
    I'm not talking about the "people tags" embeded in the XMP packets of JPEGs. I'm talking about the face database used to recognize new faces. I want to add to my program the option to recognize faces using the already trained database of WLPG. I managed to use the API (a type library dll) to detect faces, but to recognize them it needs an Exemplar Cache object that is not available in the same API. I could create my own object, but i want to use the already existing one to avoid duplicate training for the user. I know the database is in C:\Users\\AppData\Local\Microsoft\Windows Live Photo Gallery and that it is in an SQL Server Compact format. I tried to open the database with Visual Studio 2010, but it says that it is in an older version (pre-3.5) and needs to be upgraded. I don't want to change the database, just read it. I don't know how the WPLG reads it since apparently i don't have the correct OLEDB provider version. I would also prefer to read it without accesing the database directly but i don't see any DLL that exports that functionality. BTW, i'm using Delphi 2010. Any ideas?

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  • sql server mdf file database attachment

    - by jnsohnumr
    hello all i'm having a bear of a time getting visual studio 2010 (ultimate i think) to properly attach to my database. it was moved from original spot to #MYAPP#/#MYAPP#.Web/App_Data/#MDF_FILE#.mdf. I have three instances of sql server running on this machine. i have tried to replace the old mdf file with my new one and cannot get the connectionstring right for it. what i'm really wanting to do is to just open some DB instance, run a DB create script. Then I can have a DB that was generated via my edmx (generate database from model) in silverlight business application (c#) right now, when i go to server explorer in VS, choose add new connection, choose MS SQL Server Database FIle (SqlClient), choose my file location (app_data directory), use windows authentication, and hit the Test Connection button I get the following error: Unable to open the physical file "". Operating system error 5: "5(Access Denied.)". An attempt to attach to an auto-named database for file"" failed. A database with the same name exists, or specified file cannot be opened, or it is located on UNC share. The mdf file was created on the same machine by connecting to (local) on the sql server management studio, getting a new query, pasting in the SQL from the generated ddl file, adding a CREATE DATABASE [NcrCarDatabase]; GO before the pasted SQL, and executing the query. I then disconnected from the DB in management studio, closed management studio, navigated to the DATA directory for that instance, and copying the mdf and ldf files to my application's app_data folder. I am then trying to connect to the same file inside visual studio. I hope that gives more clarity to my problems :). Connection string is: Data Source=.\SQLEXPRESS;AttachDbFilename=C:\SourceCode\NcrCarDatabase\NcrCarDatabase.Web\App_Data\NcrCarDatabase.mdf;Integrated Security=True;Connect Timeout=30;User Instance=True

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  • Can't decrypt after encrypting with blowfish Java

    - by user2030599
    Hello i'm new to Java and i have the following problem: i'm trying to encrypt the password of a user using the blowfish algorithm, but when i try to decrypt it back to check the authentication it fails to decrypt it for some reason. public static String encryptBlowFish(String to_encrypt, String salt){ String dbpassword = null; try{ SecretKeySpec skeySpec = new SecretKeySpec( salt.getBytes(), "Blowfish" ); // Instantiate the cipher. Cipher cipher = Cipher.getInstance("Blowfish/CBC/PKCS5Padding"); cipher.init(Cipher.ENCRYPT_MODE, skeySpec); //byte[] encrypted = cipher.doFinal( URLEncoder.encode(data).getBytes() ); byte[] encrypted = cipher.doFinal( to_encrypt.getBytes() ); dbpassword = new String(encrypted); } catch (Exception e) { System.out.println("Exception while encrypting"); e.printStackTrace(); dbpassword = null; } finally { return dbpassword; } } public static String decryptBlowFish(String to_decrypt, String salt){ String dbpassword = null; try{ SecretKeySpec skeySpec = new SecretKeySpec( salt.getBytes(), "Blowfish" ); // Instantiate the cipher. Cipher cipher = Cipher.getInstance("Blowfish/CBC/PKCS5Padding"); cipher.init(Cipher.DECRYPT_MODE, skeySpec); //byte[] encrypted = cipher.doFinal( URLEncoder.encode(data).getBytes() ); byte[] encrypted = cipher.doFinal( to_decrypt.getBytes() ); dbpassword = new String(encrypted); } catch (Exception e) { System.out.println("Exception while decrypting"); e.printStackTrace(); dbpassword = null; } finally { return dbpassword; } } When i call the decrypt function it gives me the following error: java.security.InvalidKeyException: Parameters missing Any ideas? Thank you

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  • getting service from wsdd via xpath not wroking

    - by subes
    Hi, I am trying to get the XPath "/deployment/service". Tested on this site: http://www.xmlme.com/XpathTool.aspx <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="no"?> <deployment xmlns="http://xml.apache.org/axis/wsdd/" xmlns:java="http://xml.apache.org /axis/wsdd/providers/java"> <service name="kontowebservice" provider="java:RPC" style="rpc" use="literal"> <parameter name="wsdlTargetNamespace" value="http://strategies.spine"/> <parameter name="wsdlServiceElement" value="ExposerService"/> <parameter name="wsdlServicePort" value="kontowebservice"/> <parameter name="className" value="dmd4biz.container.webservice.konto.internal.KontoWebServiceImpl_WS"/> <parameter name="wsdlPortType" value="Exposer"/> <parameter name="typeMappingVersion" value="1.2"/> <operation xmlns:operNS="http://strategies.spine" xmlns:rtns="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" name="expose" qname="operNS:expose" returnQName="exposeReturn" returnType="rtns:anyType" soapAction=""> <parameter xmlns:tns="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" qname="in0" type="tns:anyType"/> </operation> <parameter name="allowedMethods" value="expose"/> <parameter name="scope" value="Request"/> </service> </deployment> I absolutely can't find out why it always tells me that my xpath does not match... This may be stupid, but am I missing something?

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  • How to force a WebPart appears in all pages of a portal in asp.net?

    - by Mehdi
    Hi, I'm working on a portal/CMS project and (unfortunately) build the foundation on WebParts platform. However I need to provide an option for admin to choose whether a webpart should be display in all pages or not. Finally I've found a nice article from Damon Armstrong that describes a way to store all personalization data of a group of pages into one record. Thus every changes the admin made for a webpart, affect whole pages. But it doesn't seems to be a solution for me because of these reasons: 1- The above solution works for a group of pages; in fact we can select which pages to display all webparts, but we expect reverse: select which webpart to display in all pages. 2- After some data entry and adding webparts on pages, we'll face an issue about massive data size of personalization record that should be serialize and deserialize to display contents of each page. May be it would be solved by writing another custom personalization provider or some hacking on webparts system, but I don't now how. Any Ideas about the problem? Thanks

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  • Determine whether app is communicating with APNS sandbox or production environment

    - by goldierox
    I have push notifications set up in my app. I'm trying to determine whether the device token I've received from APNS in the application:didRegisterForRemoteNotificationsWithDeviceToken: method came from the sandbox or development environment. If I can distinguish which environment initialized the token, I'll be able to tell my server to which environment to send the push notification. I've tried using the DEBUG macro to determine this, but I've seen some strange behavior with this and don't trust it to be 100% correct. #ifdef DEBUG BOOL isProd = YES; #else BOOL isProd = NO; #endif Ideally, I'd be able to examine the aps-environment entitlement (value is Development or Production) in code, but I'm not sure if this is even possible. What's the proper way to determine whether your app is communicating with the APNS sandbox or production environments? I'm assuming that the server needs to know this in the first place. Please correct me if this is assumption is incorrect. Edited: Apple's documentation on Provider Communication with APNS details the difference between communicating with the sandbox and production. However, the documentation doesn't give information on how to be consistent with registering the token (from the iOS client app) and communicating with the server.

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  • Going "behind Hibernate's back" to update foreign key values without an associated entity

    - by Alex Cruise
    Updated: I wound up "solving" the problem by doing the opposite! I now have the entity reference field set as read-only (insertable=false updatable=false), and the foreign key field read-write. This means I need to take special care when saving new entities, but on querying, the entity properties get resolved for me. I have a bidirectional one-to-many association in my domain model, where I'm using JPA annotations and Hibernate as the persistence provider. It's pretty much your bog-standard parent/child configuration, with one difference being that I want to expose the parent's foreign key as a separate property of the child alongside the reference to a parent instance, like so: @Entity public class Child { @Id @GeneratedValue Long id; @Column(name="parent_id", insertable=false, updatable=false) private Long parentId; @ManyToOne(cascade=CascadeType.ALL) @JoinColumn(name="parent_id") private Parent parent; private long timestamp; } @Entity public class Parent { @Id @GeneratedValue Long id; @OrderBy("timestamp") @OneToMany(mappedBy="parent", cascade=CascadeType.ALL, fetch=FetchType.LAZY) private List<Child> children; } This works just fine most of the time, but there are many (legacy) cases when I'd like to put an invalid value in the parent_id column without having to create a bogus Parent first. Unfortunately, Hibernate won't save values assigned to the parentId field due to insertable=false, updatable=false, which it requires when the same column is mapped to multiple properties. Is there any nice way to "go behind Hibernate's back" and sneak values into that field without having to drop down to JDBC or implement an interceptor? Thanks!

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  • Not able to connect to TFS Server from TFS Proxy

    - by GV India
    In our office we have setup TFS for project development. The TFS Server is WIN 2003 server SP2 with VSTFS 2008 and is running fine. Now we need to setup a TFS Proxy server on client site for client to access. Before going for the client setup, I wanted to build and test proxy in our office on a dummy server (will call it Proxy server hereon) by keeping it on a different domain. OS configuration of the Proxy server is the same as TFS server. I have installed and configured TFS proxy on Proxy server to connect to TFS Server. Also we have built trust between the two different domains to enable communication. Now problem is that I am not able to at all connect to TFS server. I am trying to connect from Internet Explorer of proxy server using proxy service account. It gives me error: The page cannot be displayed. HTTP 500 - Internal server error. The page I was browsing was http://tfs:8080/VersionControl/v1.0/ProxyStatistics.asmx. I think I have done all the required steps correctly to configure proxy as described in MSDN and also TFS installation guide. Here Proxy service account is a member of ‘Team Foundation Valid Users’ group. I am able to connect to TFS Server (specifying port) using Telnet from command prompt on proxy server as suggested by few sites. The TFS server web sites have been configured to use Integration Windows Authentication. Event Logs on both the servers are also not giving any error. Overall I’m not able to get it done. Any ideas on what might be the problem???

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  • OptimisticLockException in inner transaction ruins outer transaction

    - by Pace
    I have the following code (OLE = OptimisticLockException)... public void outer() { try { middle() } catch (OLE) { updateEntities(); outer(); } } @Transactional public void middle() { try { inner() } catch (OLE) { updateEntities(); middle(); } @Transactional public void inner() { //Do DB operation } inner() is called by other non-transactional methods which is why both middle() and inner() are transactional. As you can see, I deal with OLEs by updating the entities and retrying the operation. The problem I'm having is that when I designed things this way I was assuming that the only time one could get an OLE was when a transaction closed. This is apparently not the case as the call to inner() is throwing an OLE even when the stack is outer()->middle()->inner(). Now, middle() is properly handling the OLE and the retry succeeds but when it comes time to close the transaction it has been marked rollbackOnly by Spring. When the middle() method call finally returns the closing aspect throws an exception because it can't commit a transaction marked rollbackOnly. I'm uncertain what to do here. I can't clear the rollbackOnly state. I don't want to force create a transaction on every call to inner because that kills my performance. Am I missing something or can anyone see a way I can structure this differently? EDIT: To clarify what I'm asking, let me explain my main question. Is it possible to catch and handle OLE if you are inside of an @Transactional method? FYI: The transaction manager is a JpaTransactionManager and the JPA provider is Hibernate.

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  • How do I start a service which is defined in a different package?

    - by Brad Hein
    I have two apps, one runs in namespace com.gtosoft.voyager and the other is com.gtosoft.dash. From com.gtosoft.dash I would like to start up the service which is defined in com.gtosoft.voyager... I think I need an intent, but what arg(s) would I pass to the intent before kicking it off with startService()? If they were in the same package I could just use Intent svc=new Intent (SettingsActivity.this,VoyagerService.class); startService(svc); Snippet of Manifest which defines the service <application android:icon="@drawable/voyagercarlogo" android:label="@string/app_name" android:debuggable="false"> <provider android:name="com.gtosoft.voyager.VoyagerCProvider" android:authorities="com.gtosoft.voyager"/> <service android:name=".VoyagerService"/> <activity android:name=".SettingsActivity" android:label="Voyager" android:configChanges="keyboardHidden|orientation"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER" /> </intent-filter> </activity>

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  • Identity.Name is disposed in a IIS7 Asp.NET MVC application Thread

    - by vIceBerg
    I have made the smallest demo project to illustrate my problem. You can download the sources Here Visual Studio 2008, .NET 3.5, IIS7, Windows 7 Ultimate 32 bits. The IIS Website is configured ONLY for Windows Authentication in an Integreated pipeline app pool (DefaultAppPool). Here's the problem. I have an Asp.NET MVC 2 application. In an action, I start a thread. The View returns. The thread is doing it's job... but it needs to access Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name BANG The worker process of IIS7 stops. I have a window that says: "Visual Studio Just-In-Time Debugger An unhandled exception ('System.Object.DisposedException') occured in w3wp.exe [5524]" I checked with the debugger and the Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity is valid, but the Name property is disposed. If I put a long wait in the action before it returns the view, then the Thread can do it's job and the Identity.Name is not disposed. So I think the Name gets disposed when the view is returned. For the sake of the discussion, here's the code that the thread runs (but you can also download the demo project. The link is on top of this post): private void Run() { const int SECTOWAIT = 3; //wait SECTOWAIT seconds long end = DateTime.Now.Ticks + (TimeSpan.TicksPerSecond * SECTOWAIT); while (DateTime.Now.Ticks <= end) continue; //Check the currentprincipal. BANG!!!!!!!!!!!!! var userName = Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name; } Here's the code that starts the thread public void Start() { Thread thread = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(ThreadProc)); thread.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.MTA); thread.Name = "TestThread"; thread.Start(this); } static void ThreadProc(object o) { try { Builder builder = (Builder)o; builder.Run(); } catch (Exception ex) { throw; } } So... what am i doing wrong? Thanks

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