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  • Can't serve HTML5 video through PHP on Safari/Mac (5.0)

    - by JKS
    I'm encountering a strange bug in Safari where, when I serve MP4 video through PHP (to obfuscate the file beneath the document root with a token-based authentication system), Safari for some reason fires the <video>'s onerror event, and the video never loads (I can't get any useful information out of the event object sent to onerror — everything is undefined). When I access the PHP script directly (i.e., the video is not embedded in a page), the video controls appear momentarily before flashing to a QuickTime question mark. When I access the MP4 file directly, it works as expected. What's bizarre is that the embedded video works perfectly in the latest version of Chrome for Mac. Here are the headers when accessed through PHP: Connection:Keep-Alive Content-Disposition:inline; filename="test.mp4" Content-Length:5558749 Content-Type:video/mp4 Date:Tue, 22 Jun 2010 01:24:25 GMT Keep-Alive:timeout=10, max=29 Server:Apache/2.2.15 (CentOS) mod_ssl/2.2.15 0.9.8l DAV/2 mod_auth_passthrough/2.1 FrontPage/5.0.2.2635 X-Powered-By:PHP/5.2.13 And here are the headers when test.mp4 is accessed directly: Accept-Ranges:bytes Connection:Keep-Alive Content-Length:5558749 Content-Type:video/mp4 Date:Tue, 22 Jun 2010 01:26:45 GMT Etag:"1c04757-54d1dd-489944c5a6400" Keep-Alive:timeout=10, max=30 Last-Modified:Tue, 22 Jun 2010 01:25:36 GMT Server:Apache/2.2.15 (CentOS) mod_ssl/2.2.15 0.9.8l DAV/2 mod_auth_passthrough/2.1 FrontPage/5.0.2.2635 The only differing headers are: Accept-Ranges (which I don't think is necessary), Etag, Last-Modified, Content-Disposition, and X-Powered-By. Not only can Chrome handle the PHP-served video fine, but when I use the same script to load the MP4 through a Flash player, it also works fine. I just can't figure out what Safari is choking on. EDIT: Also, when I change the content disposition to "attachment", Safari will download the MP4 file just fine.

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  • ADO.NET: Can't connect to mdf database file

    - by Nabo
    I'm writing an application that uses a SQL Server 2005 database. In the connection string i'm specifying the mdf file like this: connstr = @"Data Source=.\SQLEXPRESS; AttachDbFilename=" + fileLocation + "; Integrated Security=True; User Instance=True"; When i execute the code: public static void forceConnection() { try { conn = new SqlConnection(connstr); conn.Open(); } catch (Exception e) { MessageBox.Show(e.Message, "Erro", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Error); } finally { if(conn != null) conn.Close(); } } I receive an exception: A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: SQL Network Interfaces, error: 26 - Error Locating Server/Instance Specified) This code works on XP but not in Vista.. I tryed run Visual Studio in admin mode and moved the mdf file to "user data" folders but the error persists.. Any help? Thanks!

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  • MS Access Bulk Insert exits app

    - by Brij
    In the web service, I have to bulk insert data in MS Access database. First, There was single complex Insert-Select query,There was no error but app exited after inserting some records. I have divided the query to make it simple and using linq to remove complexity of query. now I am inserting records using for loop. there are approx 10000 records. Again, same problem. I put a breakpoint after loop, but No hit. I have used try catch, but no error found. For Each item In lstSelDel Try qry = String.Format("insert into Table(Id,link,file1,file2,pID) values ({0},""{1}"",""{2}"",""{3}"",{4})", item.WebInfoID, item.Links, item.Name, item.pName, pDateID) DAL.ExecN(qry) Catch ex As Exception Throw ex End Try Next Public Shared Function ExecN(ByVal SQL As String) As Integer Dim ret As Integer = -1 Dim nowConString As String = "Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Data Source=" + System.AppDomain.CurrentDomain.BaseDirectory + "DataBase\\mydatabase.mdb;" Dim nowCon As System.Data.OleDb.OleDbConnection nowCon = New System.Data.OleDb.OleDbConnection(nowConString) Dim cmd As New OleDb.OleDbCommand(SQL, nowCon) nowCon.Open() ret = cmd.ExecuteNonQuery() nowCon.Close() nowCon.Dispose() cmd.Dispose() Return ret End Function After exiting app, I see w3wp.exe uses more than 50% of Memory. Any idea, What is going wrong? Is there any limitation of MS Access?

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  • Is it better to use a relational database or document-based database for an app like Wufoo?

    - by mboyle
    I'm working on an application that's similar to Wufoo in that it allows our users to create their own databases and collect/present records with auto generated forms and views. Since every user is creating a different schema (one user might have a database of their baseball card collection, another might have a database of their recipes) our current approach is using MySQL to create separate databases for every user with its own tables. So in other words, the databases our MySQL server contains look like: main-web-app-db (our web app containing tables for users account info, billing, etc) user_1_db (baseball_cards_table) user_2_db (recipes_table) .... And so on. If a user wants to set up a new database to keep track of their DVD collection, we'd do a "create database ..." with "create table ...". If they enter some data in and then decide they want to change a column we'd do an "alter table ....". Now, the further along I get with building this out the more it seems like MySQL is poorly suited to handling this. 1) My first concern is that switching databases every request, first to our main app's database for authentication etc, and then to the user's personal database, is going to be inefficient. 2) The second concern I have is that there's going to be a limit to the number of databases a single MySQL server can host. Pretending for a moment this application had 500,000 user databases, is MySQL designed to operate this way? What if it were a million, or more? 3) Lastly, is this method going to be a nightmare to support and scale? I've never heard of MySQL being used in this way so I do worry about how this affects things like replication and other methods of scaling. To me, it seems like MySQL wasn't built to be used in this way but what do I know. I've been looking at document-based databases like MongoDB, CouchDB, and Redis as alternatives because it seems like a schema-less approach to this particular problem makes a lot of sense. Can anyone offer some advice on this?

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  • How to access a web service behind a NAT?

    - by jr
    We have a product we are deploying to some small businesses. It is basically a RESTful API over SSL using Tomcat. This is installed on the server in the small business and is accessed via an iPhone or other device portable device. So, the devices connecting to the server could come from any number of IP addresses. The problem comes with the installation. When we install this service, it seems to always become a problem when doing port forwarding so the outside world can gain access to tomcat. It seems most time the owner doesn't know router password, etc, etc. I am trying to research other ways we can accomplish this. I've come up with the following and would like to hear other thoughts on the topic. Setup a SSH tunnel from each client office to a central server. Basically the remote devices would connect to that central server on a port and that traffic would be tunneled back to Tomcat in the office. Seems kind of redundant to have SSH and then SSL, but really no other way to accomplish it since end-to-end I need SSL (from device to office). Not sure of performance implications here, but I know it would work. Would need to monitor the tunnel and bring it back up if it goes done, would need to handle SSH key exchanges, etc. Setup uPNP to try and configure the hole for me. Would likely work most of the time, but uPNP isn't guaranteed to be turned on. May be a good next step. Come up with some type of NAT transversal scheme. I'm just not familiar with these and uncertain of how they exactly work. We have access to a centralized server which is required for the authentication if that makes it any easier. What else should I be looking at to get this accomplished?

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  • How to programmatically set the text of a cell of database in VB.Net?

    - by manuel
    I have a Microsoft Access database file connected to VB.NET. In the database table, I have a 'No.' and a 'Status' column. Then I have a textbox where I can input an integer. I also have a button, which will change the data cell in 'Status' where 'No.' = txtTitleNo.Text(), when I click it. Let's say I want the 'Status' cell to be changed to "Reserved". What codes should I put in the BtnReserve_Click? Here is the code: Public Class theForm Dim con As New OleDb.OleDbConnection Dim ds As New DataSet Dim daTitles As OleDb.OleDbDataAdapter Private Sub theForm_Load(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles MyBase.Load con.ConnectionString = "Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0; Data Source=|DataDirectory|\db1.mdb" con.Open() daTitles = New OleDb.OleDbDataAdapter("SELECT * FROM Titles", con) daTitles.Fill(ds, "Titles") DataGridView1.DataSource = ds.Tables("Titles") DataGridView1.AutoResizeColumns() End Sub Private Sub BtnReserve_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles BtnReserve.Click Dim daReserve As OleDb.OleDbCommand For i As Integer = 1 TReservedo DataGridView1.RowCount() If i = Val(txtTitleNo.Text()) Then daReserve = New OleDb.OleDbCommand("UPDATE Titles SET Status = 'Reserved' WHERE No = '" & i & "'", con) daReserve.ExecuteNonQuery() End If Next Dim cb As New OleDb.OleDbCommandBuilder(daTitles) daTitles.Update(ds, "Titles") End Sub This code still does not change the 'Status'. What should I do?

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  • How do you submit an authenticated HTML form using XUL (Firefox extension) Javascript?

    - by machineghost
    I am working on a Firefox extension, and in that extension I am trying to use AJAX to submit a form on a webpage. I am using: var request = Components.classes["@mozilla.org/xmlextras/xmlhttprequest;1"].createInstance(Components.interfaces.nsIXMLHttpRequest); request.onload = loadHandler; request.open("POST", url, true); request.send(values); to make the request, and it works ... mostly. The one problem is that the form has an authentication token on it, and I need to submit that token with my POST. I tried doing a GET separately to get this token, but by the time I made my second (POST) request my session had (evidently) changed, and the authenticity token was considered invalid. Does anyone know of a way to use the XUL/Chrome Javscript to maintain a constant session across multiple requests (all "behind the scenes") for something this? I'm still a XUL n00b, so there may be a totally obvious alternative that I'm missing (eg. hidden IFRAME; I tried that briefly but couldn't get it to work).

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  • Ruby On Rails - Contact form not sending email via localhost

    - by anonymousxxx
    similar problem Rails contact form not working guides: https://github.com/thomasklemm/email_form_rails rails 3.2.x app\models\message.rb class Message include ActiveAttr::Model include ActiveModel::Validations attribute :name attribute :email attribute :subject attribute :body attr_accessible :name, :email, :subject, :body validates_presence_of :name validates_presence_of :email validates :email, email_format: { message: "is not looking like a valid email address"} validates_presence_of :subject validates_length_of :body, maximum: 500 end app\mailers\contact_form.rb class ContactForm < ActionMailer::Base default from: "[email protected]" default to: "[email protected]" def email_form(message) @message = message mail subject: "#{message.subject} #{message.name}" mail body: "#{message.body}" end end development.rb config.action_mailer.delivery_method = :smtp config.action_mailer.perform_deliveries = true config.action_mailer.smtp_settings = { :address => "smtp.gmail.com", :port => 587, :domain => "mydomain.com", :user_name => "[email protected]", :password => "mypassword", :authentication => :plain, :enable_starttls_auto => true } config.action_mailer.default_url_options = { :host => "localhost:3000" } output in command Started POST "/email" for 127.0.0.1 at 2012-09-04 22:10:40 +0700 Processing by HomeController#send_email_form as HTML Parameters: {"utf8"="v", "authenticity_token"="w39BLqCrjTMm4RRi/Sm5hZoEpcw46 npyRy/RS0h48x0=", "message"={"name"="anonymousxxx", "email"="[email protected]", "subject"="Test", "body"="send email"}, "commit"="Create Message"} Redirected to localhost:3000/home/contact Completed 302 Found in 1ms (ActiveRecord: 0.0ms) but email (message) no receive my email,..

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  • S3 file Uploading from Mac app though PHP?

    - by Ilija Tovilo
    I have asked this question before, but it was deleted due too little information. I'll try to be more concrete this time. I have an Objective-C mac application, which should allow users to upload files to S3-storage. The s3 storage is mine, the users don't have an Amazon account. Until now, the files were uploaded directly to the amazon servers. After thinking some more about it, it wasn't really a great concept, regarding security and flexibility. I want to add a server in between. The user should authenticate with my server, the server would open a session if the authentication was successful, and the file-sharing could begin. Now my question. I want to upload the files to S3. One option would be to make a POST-request and wait until the server would receive the file. Problems here are, that there would be a delay, when the file is being uploaded from my server to the S3 servers, and it would double the uploading time. Best would be, if I could validate the request, and then redirecting it, so the client uploads it directly to the s3-storage. Not sure if this is possible somehow. Uploading directly to S3 doesn't seem to be very smart. After looking into other apps like Droplr and Dropmark, it looks like they don't do this. Btw. I did this using Little Snitch. They have their api on their own web-server, and that's it. Could someone clear things up for me? EDIT How should I transmit my files to S3? Is there a way to "forward" it, or do I have to upload it to my server and then upload it from there to S3? Like I said, other apps can do this efficiently and without the need of communicating with S3 directly.

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  • Fluent NHibernate AutoMap

    - by Markus
    Hi. I have a qouestion regarding the AutoMap xml generation. I have two classes: public class User { virtual public Guid Id { get; private set; } virtual public String Name { get; set; } virtual public String Email { get; set; } virtual public String Password { get; set; } virtual public IList<OpenID> OpenIDs { get; set; } } public class OpenID { virtual public Guid Id { get; private set; } virtual public String Provider { get; set; } virtual public String Ticket { get; set; } virtual public User User { get; set; } } The generated sequences of xml files are: For User class: <bag name="OpenIDs"> <key> <column name="User_Id" /> </key> <one-to-many class="BL_DAL.Entities.OpenID, BL_DAL, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" /> </bag> For OpenID class: <many-to-one class="BL_DAL.Entities.User, BL_DAL, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" name="User"> <column name="User_id" /> </many-to-one> I don't see the inverse=true attribute for the User mapping. Is it a normal behavior, or I made a mistake somewhere?

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  • Optimize SQL connection?

    - by user1484035
    I am building a multi-page web project in HTML and Javascript that is constantly reading from AND writing to an SQL database. I can connect to the database and successfully run my project with this type of connection. var connection = new ActiveXObject("ADODB.Connection") ; var connectionstring="Data Source=<server>;Initial Catalog=<catalog>;User ID=<user>; Password=<password>;Provider=SQLOLEDB"; connection.Open(connectionstring); var rs = new ActiveXObject("ADODB.Recordset"); rs.Open("SELECT * FROM table", connection); rs.MoveFirst while(!rs.eof) { document.write(rs.fields(1)); rs.movenext; } rs.close; connection.close; Works great and runs fine. BUT, the first 5 lines (from var connection = to var rs =) causes the whole browser to freeze for a few seconds while it establishes the connection. I need to speed that up since I am constantly connecting to the database throughout my project. Is there a more effective way of connecting to a SQL database? or is my computer just bad and this should run faster?

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  • JasperReports reports access image via authenticated URL

    - by user363115
    Hi all, I am hoping that this is a simple issue with a simple solution and that I have missed something obvious. Let me explain the problem; We have an application that generates PDF reports (using Jasper). These reports contain data from our database, as well as imagery (photographs). These photographs are stored in S3. We use signed URLs to access these photographs. We link these photographs into our Jasper reports using these S3 URLs. Because the S3 URLs are signed and time-limited (by design), the process is as follows; User requests a report to be generated, Report is filled, and goes to our database (at which time UUIDs to any required images are retrieved), For each UUID an S3 signed URL must be generated, To do this the URL behind each report image is a call to an authenticated URL in our app (/get_img?uuid=foo), The controller behind this URL generates a signed S3 URL and returns it, Reports loads the image. The problem is with step (4) - the call to the authenticated URL fails because Jasper does not pass any authentication information with the request. Is there a solution here? Thanks all for your time. Ben

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  • Why might one app connect to SQL backend OK and a second app fail if they share the same connectionstring?

    - by hawbsl
    Trying to figure out a SQL connection error 26 in our app. We've got two closely related apps Foo and FooAddIn. Foo is a Winforms app built in VS2010 and runs fine and connects fine to our SQLExpress back end. FooAddIn is an Outlook AddIn which references Foo.exe and connects to the same SQL Express instance. Or rather, it doesn't connect, instead reporting: A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: SQL Network Interfaces, error: 26 - Error Locating Server/Instance Specified) Now, both apps share the same connectionstring and we've verified they really do share the same connectionstring. At this stage we're just testing from within the same developer machine, so the apps are on the same machine, going via the same VS2010 IDE. So a lot of the advice online for this error doesn't apply because the fact that Foo connects through to SQL Express tells us the database is there and available and can be reached. What else is there to check? One thing is that Foo and FooAddIn are running different runtime versions of System.Data (v2.0.50727 and v4.0.30319). Could that be a factor?

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  • Protecting sensitive entity data

    - by Andreas
    Hi, I'm looking for some advice on architecture for a client/server solution with some peculiarities. The client is a fairly thick one, leaving the server mostly to peristence, concurrency and infrastructure concerns. The server contains a number of entities which contain both sensitive and public information. Think for example that the entities are persons, assume that social security number and name are sensitive and age is publicly viewable. When starting the client, the user is presented with a number of entities, not disclosing any sensitive information. At any time the user can choose to log in and authenticate against the server, given the authentication is successful the user is granted access to the sensitive information. The client is hosting a domain model and I was thinking of implementing this as some kind of "lazy loading", making the first request instantiating the entities and later refreshing them with sensitive data. The entity getters would throw exceptions on sensitive information when they've not been disclosed, f.e.: class PersonImpl : PersonEntity { private bool undisclosed; public override string SocialSecurityNumber { get { if (undisclosed) throw new UndisclosedDataException(); return base.SocialSecurityNumber; } } } Another more friendly approach could be to have a value object indicating that the value is undisclosed. get { if (undisclosed) return undisclosedValue; return base.SocialSecurityNumber; } Some concerns: What if the user logs in and then out, the sensitive data has been loaded but must be disclosed once again. One could argue that this type of functionality belongs within the domain and not some infrastructural implementation(i.e. repository implementations). As always when dealing with a larger number of properties there's a risk that this type of functionality clutters the code Any insights or discussion is appreciated!

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  • identify accounts using zend-openid [HELP]

    - by tawfekov
    Hi! , i had successfully implemented simple open ID authentication with the [gmail , yahoo , myopenid, aol and many others ] exactly as stackoverflow do but i had a problem with identifying accounts for example 'openid_ns' => string 'http://specs.openid.net/auth/2.0' (length=32) 'openid_mode' => string 'id_res' (length=6) 'openid_op_endpoint' => string 'https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/ud' (length=37) 'openid_response_nonce' => string '2010-05-02T06:35:40Z9YIASispxMvKpw' (length=34) 'openid_return_to' => string 'http://dev.local/download/index/gettingback' (length=43) 'openid_assoc_handle' => string 'AOQobUf_2jrRKQ4YZoqBvq5-O9sfkkng9UFxoE9SEBlgWqJv7Sq_FYgD7rEXiLLXhnjCghvf' (length=72) 'openid_signed' => string 'op_endpoint,claimed_id,identity,return_to,response_nonce,assoc_handle' (length=69) 'openid_sig' => string 'knieEHpvOc/Rxu1bkUdjeE9YbbFX3lqZDOQFxLFdau0=' (length=44) 'openid_identity' => string 'https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/id?id=AItOawk0NAa51T3xWy-oympGpxFj5CftFsmjZpY' (length=80) 'openid_claimed_id' => string 'https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/id?id=AItOawk0NAa51T3xWy-oympGpxFj5CftFsmjZpY' (length=80) i thought that openid_claimed_id or openid_identity is identical for every account but after some testing turns out the claimed id is changeable by the users them self in yahoo and randomly changing in case of gmail FYI am using zend openid with a bit modification on consumer class and i can't use SERG [Simple Refistration Extension] cuz currently it uses openid v1 specification :( i hadn't read the specification of openid so if any body know please help me to how to identify openid accounts to know if this account has signed in before or not

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  • Creating a HTTP handler for IIS that transparently forwards request to different port?

    - by Lasse V. Karlsen
    I have a public web server with the following software installed: IIS7 on port 80 Subversion over apache on port 81 TeamCity over apache on port 82 Unfortunately, both Subversion and TeamCity comes with their own web server installations, and they work flawlessly, so I don't really want to try to move them all to run under IIS, if that is even possible. However, I was looking at IIS and I noticed the HTTP redirect part, and I was wondering... Would it be possible for me to create a HTTP handler, and install it on a sub-domain under IIS7, so that all requests to, say, http://svn.vkarlsen.no/anything/here is passed to my HTTP handler, which then subsequently creates a request to http://localhost:81/anything/here, retrieves the data, and passes it on to the original requestee? In other words, I would like IIS to handle transparent forwards to port 81 and 82, without using the redirection features. For instance, Subversion doesn't like HTTP redirect and just says that the repository has been moved, and I need to relocate my working copy. That's not what I want. If anyone thinks this can be done, does anyone have any links to topics I need to read up on? I think I can manage the actual request parts, even with authentication, but I have no idea how to create a HTTP handler. Also bear in mind that I need to handle sub-paths and documents beneath the top-level domain, so http://svn.vkarlsen.no/whatever/here needs to be handled by a single handler, I cannot create copies of the handler for all sub-directories since paths are created from time to time.

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  • Difference between MVC FilterAttribute and Filter

    - by zaaaaphod
    I'm trying to write my own custom AuthorizationAttribute that uses DI. I'm using the MUNQ IoC provider for it's speed and have decided to use constructor injection on all my classes as opposed to post instatiation property binding (because I prefer it). I'm trying to write a custom IFilterProvider that will use my IoC container to return requests for filters (so that I can map concrete classes using the container). I've come up with the following. public class FilterProvider : IFilterProvider { private readonly IocContainer _container; public FilterProvider(IocContainer container) { _container = container; } public IEnumerable<Filter> GetFilters(ControllerContext controllerContext, ActionDescriptor actionDescriptor) { var x = Enumerable.Union<Object>(_container.ResolveAll<IActionFilter>(), _container.ResolveAll<IAuthorizationFilter>()); foreach (Filter actionFilter in x) yield return new Filter(actionFilter, FilterScope.First, null); } } The above code will fail during the foreach because my objects that implement IAuthorizationFilter are based on FilterAttribute and not Filter My question is, what is the difference between Filter and FilterAttribute? I would have thought that there would have been a common link between them, unless I'm missing something. Another deeper question is, how come there is no IFilterAttributeProvider that would support IEnumerable GetFilters(...) Is there some other way that I should be using to resolve IAuthorizationFilter via my IoC container? Thank you very much for your help. Z

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  • ASPX page renders differently when reached on intranet vs. internet?

    - by MattSlay
    This is so odd to me.. I have IIS 5 running on XP and it's hosting a small ASP.Net app for our LAN that we can access by using the computer name, virtual directory, and page name (http://matt/smallapp/customers.aspx), but you can also hit that IIS server and page from the internet because I have a public IP that my firewall routes to the "Matt" computer (like http://213.202.3.88/smallapp/customers.aspx [just a made-up IP]). Don't worry, I have Windows domain authentication is in place to protect the app from anonymous users. So all the abovea parts works fine. But what's weird is that the Border of the divs on the page are rendered much thicker when you access the page from the intranet, versus the internet, (I'm using IE8) and also, some of the div layout (stretching and such) acts differently. Why would it render different in the same browser based on whether it was reached from the LAN vs. the internet? It does NOT do this in FireFox. So it must be just an IE8 thing. All the CSS for the divs is right in the HTML page, so I do not think it is a caching matter of a CSS file. Notice how the borders are different in these two images: Internet: http://twitpic.com/hxx91 . Lan: http://twitpic.com/hxxtv

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  • How should I handle expected errors? eg. "username already exists"

    - by Pheter
    I am struggling to understand how I should design the error handling parts of my code. I recently asked a similar question about how I should go about returning server error codes to the user, eg. 404 errors. I learnt that I should handle the error from within the current part of the application; seem's simple enough. However, what should I do when I can't handle the error from the current link in the chain? For example, I may have a class that is used to manage authentication. One of it's methods could be createUser($username, $password). Within that function, I need to determine if the username already exists. If this is true, how should I alert the calling code about this? Returning null instead of a user object is one way. But how do I then know what caused the error? How should I handle errors in such a way that calling code can easily find out what caused the error? Is there a design pattern commonly used for this kind of situation?

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  • Migrate Data and Schema from MySQL to SQL Server

    - by colithium
    Are there any free solutions for automatically migrating a database from MySQL to SQL Server Server that "just works"? I've been attempting this simple (at least I thought so) task all day now. I've tried: SQL Server Management Studio's Import Data feature Create an empty database Tasks - Import Data... .NET Framework Data Provider for Odbc Valid DSN (verified it connects) Copy data from one or more tables or views Check 1 VERY simple table Click Preview Get Error: The preview data could not be retrieved. ADDITIONAL INFORMATION: ERROR [42000] [MySQL][ODBC 5.1 Driver][mysqld-5.1.45-community]You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near '"table_name"' at line 1 (myodbc5.dll) A similar error occurs if I go through the rest of the wizard and perform the operation. The failed step is "Setting Source Connection" the error refers to retrieving column information and then lists the above error. It can retrieve column information just fine when I modify column mappings so I really don't know what the issue is. I've also tried getting various MySql tools to output ddl statements that SQL Server understand but haven't succeeded. I've tried with MySQL v5.1.11 to SQL Server 2005 and with MySQL v5.1.45 to SQL Server 2008 (with ODBC drivers 3.51.27.00 and 5.01.06.00 respectively)

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  • Different approaches for finding users within Active Directory

    - by EvilDr
    I'm a newbie to AD programming, but after a couple of weeks of research have found the following three ways to search for users in Active Directory using the account name as the search parameter: Option 1 - FindByIdentity Dim ctx As New PrincipalContext(ContextType.Domain, Environment.MachineName) Dim u As UserPrincipal = UserPrincipal.FindByIdentity(ctx, IdentityType.SamAccountName, "MYDOMAIN\Administrator") If u Is Nothing Then Trace.Warn("No user found.") Else Trace.Warn("Name=" & u.Name) Trace.Warn("DisplayName=" & u.DisplayName) Trace.Warn("DistinguishedName=" & u.DistinguishedName) Trace.Warn("EmployeeId=" & u.EmployeeId) Trace.Warn("EmailAddress=" & u.EmailAddress) End If Option 2 - DirectorySearcher Dim connPath As String = "LDAP://" & Environment.MachineName Dim de As New DirectoryEntry(connPath) Dim ds As New DirectorySearcher(de) ds.Filter = String.Format("(&(objectClass=user)(anr={0}))", Split(User.Identity.Name, "\")(1)) ds.PropertiesToLoad.Add("name") ds.PropertiesToLoad.Add("displayName") ds.PropertiesToLoad.Add("distinguishedName") ds.PropertiesToLoad.Add("employeeId") ds.PropertiesToLoad.Add("mail") Dim src As SearchResult = ds.FindOne() If src Is Nothing Then Trace.Warn("No user found.") Else For Each propertyKey As String In src.Properties.PropertyNames Dim valueCollection As ResultPropertyValueCollection = src.Properties(propertyKey) For Each propertyValue As Object In valueCollection Trace.Warn(propertyKey & "=" & propertyValue.ToString) Next Next End If Option 3 - PrincipalSearcher Dim ctx2 As New PrincipalContext(ContextType.Domain, Environment.MachineName) Dim sp As New UserPrincipal(ctx2) sp.SamAccountName = "MYDOMAIN\Administrator" Dim s As New PrincipalSearcher s.QueryFilter = sp Dim p2 As UserPrincipal = s.FindOne() If p2 Is Nothing Then Trace.Warn("No user found.") Else Trace.Warn(p2.Name) Trace.Warn(p2.DisplayName) Trace.Warn(p2.DistinguishedName) Trace.Warn(p2.EmployeeId) Trace.Warn(p2.EmailAddress) End If All three of these methods return the same results, but I was wondering if any particular method is better or worse than the others? Option 1 or 3 seem to be the best as they provide strongly-typed property names, but I might be wrong? My overall objective is to find a single user within AD based on the user principal value passed via the web browser when using Windows Authentication on a site (e.g. "MYDOMAIN\MyUserAccountName")

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  • Why ASP.NET menu control ignores roles in Web.sitemap?

    - by MainMa
    Hi, I have a website with a menu based on sitemap. ActiveDirectoryRoleProvider is a custom class. securityTrimmingEnabled of sitemap provider is set to true. Now, nevertheless the roles set in the sitemap file, site menu displays every sitemap entity. So for example if I have in sitemap a node with roles="*", a second one with roles="Administrators" and a third one with roles="Foo" and I login as a member of Administrators group but not Foo group, the site menu will display all three items. On the other hand, if I have a node which does not specify roles attribute but has children, this node will never be displayed. If I put: <%= HttpContext.Current.User.IsInRole("Administrators") ? "Admin" : "Not admin"%> <%= HttpContext.Current.User.IsInRole("Foo") ? "Foo" : "Not foo"%> before the menu, it displays that I'm Admin, but Not foo, which is just fine. So if it knows that I'm Admin but Not foo, why does it continue to display Foo's sitemap nodes? Note: changing authorizations has no effect on the menu. It continues to show every item, even for the pages I'm unable to access.

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  • WCF newbie - how to install and use a SSL certificate?

    - by Shaul
    This should be a snap for anyone who's done it before... I'm trying to set up a self-hosted WCF service using NetTcpBinding. I got a trial SSL certificate from Thawte and successfully installed that in my IIS store, and I think I've got it correctly set up in the service - at least it doesn't exception out on me! Now, I'm trying to connect the client (this is still all on my dev machine), and it's giving me an error, "Message = "The X.509 certificate CN=ssl.mydomain.com, OU=For Test Purposes Only. No assurances., OU=IT, O=My Company, L=My Town, S=None, C=IL chain building failed. The certificate that was used has a trust chain that cannot be verified. Replace the certificate or change the certificateValidationMode. A certificate chain processed, but terminated in a root certificate which is not trusted by the trust provider." Ooookeeeey... now what? Client code (I want to do this in code, not app.config): var baseAddress = "localhost"; var factory = new DuplexChannelFactory<IMyWCFService>(new InstanceContext(SiteServer.Instance)); factory.Endpoint.Address = new EndpointAddress("net.tcp://{0}:8000/".Fmt(baseAddress)); var binding = new NetTcpBinding(SecurityMode.Message); binding.Security.Message.ClientCredentialType = MessageCredentialType.UserName; factory.Endpoint.Binding = binding; var u = factory.Credentials.UserName; u.UserName = userName; u.Password = password; return factory.CreateChannel()

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  • Not getting key value from Identity column back after inserting new row with SubSonic ActiveRecord

    - by mikedevenney
    I'm sure I'm missing the obvious answer here, but could use a hand. I'm new to SubSonic and using version 3. I've got myself to the point of being able to query and insert, but I'm stuck with how I would get the value of the identity column back after my insert. I saw another post that mentioned Linq Templates. I'm not using those (at least I don't think I am...?) TIA ... UPDATE ... So I've been debugging through my code watching how the SubSonic code works and I found where the indentity column is being ignored. I use int as the datatype for my ID columns in the database and set them as identity. Since int is a non-nullable data type in c# the logical test in the Add method (public void Add(IDataProvider provider)) that checks if there is a value in the key column by doing a (key==null) could be the issue. The code that gets the new value for the identity field is in the 'true path', since an int can't be null and I use ints as my identity column data types this test will never pass. The ID field for my object has a 0 in it that I didn't put there. I assume it's set during the initialization of the object. Am I off base here? Is the answer to change my data types in the database? Another question (more a curiosity). I noticed that some of the properties in the generated classes are declared with a ? after the datatype. I'm not familiar with this declaration construct... what gives? There are some declared as an int (non key fields) and others that are declared as int? (key fields). Does this have something to do with how they're treated at initialization? Any help is appreciated! --BUMP--

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  • Lightweight HTTP application/server for static content

    - by PartlyCloudy
    Hi, I am in need of a scalable and performant HTTP application/server that will be used for static file serving/uploading. So I only need support for GET and PUT operations. However, there are a few extra features that I need: Custom authentication: I need to check credentials against a database for each request. Thus I must be able to integrate propietary database interaction. Support for signed access keys: The access to resources via PUT should be signed using a key like http://uri/?key=foo The key then contains information about the request like md5(user + path + secret) which allows me to block unwanted requests. The application/server should allow me to check for this. Performance: I'd like to avoid piping content as much as possible. Otherwise the whole application could be implemented in Perl/etc. in a few lines as CGI. Perlbal (in webserver mode) looks nice, however the single-threaded model does not fit with my database lookup and it does also not support query strings. Lighttp/Nginx/… have some modules for these tasks, however it is not feasible putting everything together without ending up writing own extensions/modules. So how would you solve this? Are there other leightweight webservers available for this? Should I implement an application inside of a webserver (i.e. CGI). How can I avoid/speed up piping content between the webserver and my application. Thanks in advance!

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