Search Results

Search found 10515 results on 421 pages for 'automatically'.

Page 344/421 | < Previous Page | 340 341 342 343 344 345 346 347 348 349 350 351  | Next Page >

  • Is a GWT app running on Google App Engine protected from CSRF

    - by gerdemb
    I'm developing a GWT app running on the Google App Engine and wondering if I need to worry about Cross-site request forgery or is that automatically taken care of for me? For every RPC request that requires authentication, I have the following code: public class BookServiceImpl extends RemoteServiceServlet implements BookService { public void deleteInventory(Key<Inventory> inventoryKey) throws NotLoggedInException, InvalidStateException, NotFoundException { DAO dao = new DAO(); // This will throw NotLoggedInException if user is not logged in User user = dao.getCurrentUser(); // Do deletion here } } public final class DAO extends DAOBase { public User getCurrentUser() throws NotLoggedInException { currentUser = UserServiceFactory.getUserService().getCurrentUser(); if(currentUser == null) { throw new NotLoggedInException(); } return currentUser; } I couldn't find any documentation on how the UserService checks authentication. Is it enough to rely on the code above or do I need to to more? I'm a beginner at this, but from what I understand to avoid CSRF attacks some of the strategies are: adding an authentication token in the request payload instead of just checking a cookie checking the HTTP Referer header I can see that I have cookies set from Google with what look like SID values, but I can't tell from the serialized Java objects in the payloads if tokens are being passed or not. I also don't know if the Referer header is being used or not. So, am I worrying about a non-issue? If not, what is the best strategy here? This is a common enough problem, that there must be standard solutions out there...

    Read the article

  • JTextField vs JComboBox behaviour in JTable

    - by Ash
    Okay, this is a hard one to explain but I'll try my best. I have a JTextField and a JComboBox in a JTable, whose getCellEditor method has been overriden as follows: public TableCellEditor getCellEditor( int row, int column ) { if ( column == 3 ) { // m_table is the JTable if ( m_table.getSelectedRowCount() == 1 ) { JComboBox choices = new JComboBox(); choices.setEditable( true ); choices.addItem( new String( "item 1" ) ); return new DefaultCellEditor( choices ); } return super.getCellEditor( row, column ); } Here are the behavioral differences (NOTE that from this point on, when I say JTextField or JComboBox, I mean the CELL in the JTable containing either component): When I click once on a JTextField, the cell is highlighted. Double clicking brings up the caret and I can input text. Whereas, with a JComboBox, single clicking brings up the caret to input text, as well as the combo drop down button. When I tab or use the arrow keys to navigate to a JTextField and then start typing, the characters I type automatically get entered into the cell. Whereas, when I navigate to a JComboBox the same way and then start typing, nothing happens apart from the combo drop down button appearing. None of the characters I type get entered unless I hit F2 first. So here's my question: What do I need to do have JComboBoxes behave exactly like JTextFields in the two instances described above? Please do not ask why I'm doing what I'm doing or suggest alternatives (it's the way it is and I need to do it this way) and yes, I've read the API for all components in question....the problem is, it's a swing API. Thanks in advance, Ash

    Read the article

  • Setting Connection Parameters via ADO for MSSQL

    - by taspeotis
    Is it possible to set a connection parameter on a connection to SQL Server and have that variable persist throughout the life of the connection? The parameter must be usable by subsequent queries. We have some old Access reports that use a handful of VBScript functions in the SQL queries (let's call them GetStartDate and GetEndDate) that return global variables. Our application would set these before invoking the query and then the queries can return information between date ranges specified in our application. We are looking at changing to a ReportViewer control running in local mode, but I don't see any convenient way to use these custom functions in straight T-SQL. I have two concept solutions (not tested yet), but I would like to know if there is a better way. Below is some psuedo code. Set all variables before running Recordset.OpenForward Connection->Execute("SET @GetStartDate = ..."); Connection->Execute("SET @GetEndDate = ..."); // Repeat for all parameters Will these variables persist to later calls of Recordset->OpenForward? Can anything reset the variables aside from another SET/SELECT @variable statement? Create an ADOCommand "factory" that automatically adds parameters to each ADOCommand object I will use to execute SQL // Command has been previously been created ADOParameter *Parameter1 = Command->CreateParameter("GetStartDate"); ADOParameter *Parameter2 = Command->CreateParameter("GetEndDate"); // Set values and attach etc... What I would like to know if there is something like: Connection->SetParameter("GetStartDate", "20090101"); Connection->SetParameter("GetEndDate", 20100101"); And these will persist for the lifetime of the connection, and the SQL can do something like @GetStartDate to access them. This may be exactly solution #1, if the variables persist throughout the lifetime of the connection.

    Read the article

  • Devise routes to only use custom sign in page

    - by eblume
    I am trying to learn Devise and seem to have hit a problem that is nearly the same as many, many questions here on SO but just slightly different enough that I am not getting much traction following those questions' threads. I have a very simple application. Users can sign in and sign out (and also the devise 'forgot password' stuff is enabled - I am not concerned about it at this time) and that is it. They can't register, they can't edit their profile other than to change their password, they can't do anything except sign in and sign out. (Account creation will, for now, be handled manually at the command line.) I would vastly prefer that the only page that users can log in from was "/" (root_path). I already have it working where you can log in from "/", and that is great. The problem I am having is that if you type in your user/password combination incorrectly from the root_path login page, it automatically sends you to the Devise sign-in page to continue trying to sign in. How can I make Devise redirect to root_path on sign-in failure? Here are my routes - they are probably not optimal or correctly configured and I would appreciate pointers on fixing them: root to: "core_pages#splash" devise_for :users, skip: [:sessions] as :user do # get 'signin' => 'devise/sessions#new', as: :new_user_session post 'signin' => 'devise/sessions#create', as: :user_session delete 'signout' => 'devise/sessions#destroy', as: :destroy_user_session, via: Devise.mappings[:user].sign_out_via end match '/home' => 'core_pages#home' Note the commented-out 'get signin' line. The system works without this line but, surprisingly (to me), "GET /signin" results in a HTTP 400 (OK) response and renders the Devise login template. I would prefer it return some sort of 'invalid request' or just silently redirect the user to root_path. Running rake routes on these routes gives: root / core_pages#splash user_password POST /users/password(.:format) devise/passwords#create new_user_password GET /users/password/new(.:format) devise/passwords#new edit_user_password GET /users/password/edit(.:format) devise/passwords#edit PUT /users/password(.:format) devise/passwords#update user_session POST /signin(.:format) devise/sessions#create destroy_user_session DELETE /signout(.:format) devise/sessions#destroy home /home(.:format) core_pages#home Thanks!

    Read the article

  • TransactionScope Prematurely Completed

    - by Chris
    I have a block of code that runs within a TransactionScope and within this block of code I make several calls to the DB. Selects, Updates, Creates, and Deletes, the whole gamut. When I execute my delete I execute it using an extension method of the SqlCommand that will automatically resubmit the query if it deadlocks as this query could potentially hit a deadlock. I believe the problem occurs when a deadlock is hit and the function tries to resubmit the query. This is the error I receive: The transaction associated with the current connection has completed but has not been disposed. The transaction must be disposed before the connection can be used to execute SQL statements. This is the simple code that executes the query (all of the code below executes within the using of the TransactionScope): using (sqlCommand.Connection = new SqlConnection(ConnectionStrings.App)) { sqlCommand.Connection.Open(); sqlCommand.ExecuteNonQueryWithDeadlockHandling(); } Here is the extension method that resubmits the deadlocked query: public static class SqlCommandExtender { private const int DEADLOCK_ERROR = 1205; private const int MAXIMUM_DEADLOCK_RETRIES = 5; private const int SLEEP_INCREMENT = 100; public static void ExecuteNonQueryWithDeadlockHandling(this SqlCommand sqlCommand) { int count = 0; SqlException deadlockException = null; do { if (count > 0) Thread.Sleep(count * SLEEP_INCREMENT); deadlockException = ExecuteNonQuery(sqlCommand); count++; } while (deadlockException != null && count < MAXIMUM_DEADLOCK_RETRIES); if (deadlockException != null) throw deadlockException; } private static SqlException ExecuteNonQuery(SqlCommand sqlCommand) { try { sqlCommand.ExecuteNonQuery(); } catch (SqlException exception) { if (exception.Number == DEADLOCK_ERROR) return exception; throw; } return null; } } The error occurs on the line that executes the nonquery: sqlCommand.ExecuteNonQuery();

    Read the article

  • how can i change the back arrow in navigation toolbar function

    - by jackrobert
    hi i have developed simple web application using jsp... Step 1 : I have one login page : (contains username ,password and sumbit button) Step2 : I have one logout page : it has one link (Go to login page), just u click this link go to login page.. step3 : And i have some pages like (page1,page2,page3, page4.....) Normal application working following way : after login comes page1.. Then click some action and it will go to page2 Then i click some action and it will goto page3 Then i click some action and it will goto page4 So now i am in page4... now click back arrow in navigation toolbar in browser, generally go to previous page (page3). For example... If u seeing gmail inbox msg... that time u click back arrow..then automatically go to previous page.. But i need , if click back arrow in navigation toolbar (from any page in my application) ,then go to logout page... For example.... Suppose i am in page4... here i click backarrow in browser then i want to go logout page, don't go to page3 how to acheive this... Is there any possible....Any javascript or any otherway pls help me...

    Read the article

  • Python alignment of assignments (style)

    - by ikaros45
    I really like following style standards, as those specified in PEP 8. I have a linter that checks it automatically, and definitely my code is much better because of that. There is just one point in PEP 8, the E251 & E221 don't feel very good. Coming from a JavaScript background, I used to align the variable assignments as following: var var1 = 1234; var2 = 54; longer_name = 'hi'; var lol = { 'that' : 65, 'those' : 87, 'other_thing' : true }; And in my humble opinion, this improves readability dramatically. Problem is, this is dis-recommended by PEP 8. With dictionaries, is not that bad because spaces are allowed after the colon: dictionary = { 'something': 98, 'some_other_thing': False } I can "live" with variable assignments without alignment, but what I don't like at all is not to be able to pass named arguments in a function call, like this: some_func(length= 40, weight= 900, lol= 'troll', useless_var= True, intelligence=None) So, what I end up doing is using a dictionary, as following: specs = { 'length': 40, 'weight': 900, 'lol': 'troll', 'useless_var': True, 'intelligence': None } some_func(**specs) or just simply some_func(**{'length': 40, 'weight': 900, 'lol': 'troll', 'useless_var': True, 'intelligence': None}) But I have the feeling this work around is just worse than ignoring the PEP 8 E251 / E221. What is the best practice?

    Read the article

  • Need help writing jQuery to loop through table and inject markers into google map?

    - by abemonkey
    I am new to jQuery. I've done some simple things with it but what I am attempting now is a over my head and I need some help. I am building a locator for all the firearms dealers in the US for a client. I am working within Drupal. I have a proximity search by zip code that works great. If you search by zip a list of paginated results shows up in an html table that can by paged through via ajax. I would like a map to be above this list with markers corresponding to the names and addresses being listed. I already have all the lat and long values in the table results. I want the script to update the markers and automatically zoom to fit the markers in the view when a user changes the sort order of the table or pages through the results. Also, I'd like to have a hover highlight effect over the rows of the table that simultaneously highlight the corresponding marker, and have a click on the table row equal a click on a marker that pops up a marker info window to be populated using jQuery to read the name and address fields of the table. Hope this all makes sense. I know I'm putting a lot out there, I'm not asking for someone to write the whole script, just wanted to give as many details as possible. Thanks for any help. I'm just lost when it comes to looping and moving data around. If you want to check out what I have so far on the project please visit: www.axtsweapons.com and login with the username: "test" and the password: "1234" and then visit this direct link: www.axtsweapons.com/ffllocator. For just a simple page that would be easy to manipulate and play with goto: http://www.axtsweapons.com/maptest.html Thanks!

    Read the article

  • protecting COM interfaces from exceptions

    - by rmeador
    I have several dozen objects exposed through COM interfaces, each of which with many methods, totaling a few hundred methods. These interfaces expose business objects from my app to a scripting engine. I have been given the task of protecting every single one of these methods from exceptions being thrown (to catch them and return an error using COM's Error() function, which incidentally I can find no documentation on because it's impossible to google). To my understanding, this requires that I add a try/catch around the guts of each one of these methods. The catch blocks are going to be similar or identical for each and every one of these hundreds of methods, which strongly smells of a problem (massively violates the DRY principle), but I can't think of any way to avoid changing every method. As far as I can tell, these methods are invoked directly by COM, with no intervening code that I can hook into to catch the exceptions. My current best idea is to make a macro for the catch block, but that has it's own sort of code-smell. Can anyone come up with a better approach? BTW, my app's exceptions do not derive from std::exception, so if there is some way of COM automatically handling standard exceptions, it won't help. And I sadly cannot change the existing exceptions to derive from std::exception.

    Read the article

  • Linked List pop() function

    - by JKid314159
    Consider the following list: [LinkNode * head -- LinkNode * node1 -- LinkNode * node2] I'm creating a stack of FIFO. I Call pop() which I want to pop node1. LinkNode::LinkNode(int numIn) { this->numIn = numIn; next = null; } . . . int LinkNode::pop() { Link * temp = head->next; head = temp->next; int popped = head->nodeNum; delete temp; Return numOut; Question: 1) head should be a pointer or a LinkNode *? 2) Link * temp is created on the call stack and when pop finishes doesn't temp delete automatically? 3) My major confusion is on what is the value of temp-next? Does this point to node1.next which equals node2? Appreciate your help? My reference is C++ for Java Programmers by Weiss.

    Read the article

  • How can I create a SQL table using excel columns?

    - by Phsika
    I need to help to generate column name from excel automatically. I think that: we can do below codes: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Addresses_Temp] ( [FirstName] VARCHAR(20), [LastName] VARCHAR(20), [Address] VARCHAR(50), [City] VARCHAR(30), [State] VARCHAR(2), [ZIP] VARCHAR(10) ) via C#. How can I learn column name from Excel? private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { ExcelToSql(); } void ExcelToSql() { string connectionString = @"Provider=Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0;Data Source=C:\Source\MPD.xlsm;Extended Properties=""Excel 12.0;HDR=YES;"""; // if you don't want to show the header row (first row) // use 'HDR=NO' in the string string strSQL = "SELECT * FROM [Sheet1$]"; OleDbConnection excelConnection = new OleDbConnection(connectionString); excelConnection.Open(); // This code will open excel file. OleDbCommand dbCommand = new OleDbCommand(strSQL, excelConnection); OleDbDataAdapter dataAdapter = new OleDbDataAdapter(dbCommand); // create data table DataTable dTable = new DataTable(); dataAdapter.Fill(dTable); // bind the datasource // dataBingingSrc.DataSource = dTable; // assign the dataBindingSrc to the DataGridView // dgvExcelList.DataSource = dataBingingSrc; // dispose used objects if (dTable.Rows.Count > 0) MessageBox.Show("Count:" + dTable.Rows.Count.ToString()); dTable.Dispose(); dataAdapter.Dispose(); dbCommand.Dispose(); excelConnection.Close(); excelConnection.Dispose(); }

    Read the article

  • MS Access 2003 - Is there a way to programmatically define the data for a chart?

    - by Justin
    So I have some VBA for taking charts built with the Form's Chart Wizard, and automatically inserting it into PowerPoint Presentation slides. I use those chart-forms as sub forms within a larger forms that has parameters the user can select to determine what is on the chart. The idea is that the user can determine the parameter, build the chart to his/her liking, and click a button and have it in a ppt slide with the company's background template, blah blah blah..... So it works, though it is very bulky in terms of the amount of objects I have to use to accomplish this. I use expressions such as the following: like forms!frmMain.Month&* to get the input values into the saved queries, which was fine when i first started, but it went over so well and they want so many options, that it is driving the number of saved queries/objects up. I need several saved forms with charts because of the number of different types of charts I need to have this be able to handle. SO FINALLY TO MY QUESTION: I would much rather do all this on the fly with some VBA. I know how to insert list boxes, and text boxes on a form, and I know how to use SQL in VBA to get the values I want from tables/queries using VBA, I just don't know if there is some vba I can use to set the data values of the charts from a resulting recordset: DIM rs AS DAO.Rescordset DIM db AS DAO.Database DIM sql AS String sql = "SELECT TOP 5 Count(tblMain.TransactionID) AS Total, tblMain.Location FROM tblMain WHERE (((tblMain.Month) = """ & me.txtMonth & """ )) ORDER BY Count (tblMain.TransactionID) DESC;" set db = currentDB set rs = db.OpenRecordSet(sql) rs.movefirst some kind of cool code in here to make this recordset the data of chart in frmChart ("Chart01") thanks for your help. apologies for the length of the explanation.

    Read the article

  • Automatic tracking algorithm

    - by nico
    Hi everyone, I'm trying to write a simple tracking routine to track some points on a movie. Essentially I have a series of 100-frames-long movies, showing some bright spots on dark background. I have ~100-150 spots per frame, and they move over the course of the movie. I would like to track them, so I'm looking for some efficient (but possibly not overkilling to implement) routine to do that. A few more infos: the spots are a few (es. 5x5) pixels in size the movement are not big. A spot generally does not move more than 5-10 pixels from its original position. The movements are generally smooth. the "shape" of these spots is generally fixed, they don't grow or shrink BUT they become less bright as the movie progresses. the spots don't move in a particular direction. They can move right and then left and then right again the user will select a region around each spot and then this region will be tracked, so I do not need to automatically find the points. As the videos are b/w, I though I should rely on brigthness. For instance I thought I could move around the region and calculate the correlation of the region's area in the previous frame with that in the various positions in the next frame. I understand that this is a quite naïve solution, but do you think it may work? Does anyone know specific algorithms that do this? It doesn't need to be superfast, as long as it is accurate I'm happy. Thank you nico

    Read the article

  • jQuery: Stop browser scrolling on event update beyond the fold?

    - by neezer
    I have several links at the bottom of my page that update content at the top of my page (more than a viewport away). Here's the gist of what the update looks like: $('#private-photo div').fadeOut(function() { $(this).html('<%= escape_javascript(image_tag current_user.private_photo.image.url(:profile)) %>'); }).fadeIn(); Basically it's just fading out the old content and fading in the new content. My problem is that when this happens, the browser window automatically scrolls up just far enough so that the bottom of the updated content (#private-photo div) appears at the top of the browser viewport. I do not want this to happen. I want the content to be updated (still fading in and out), but without the browser viewport realigning its focus. I want to keep the animation because if the user has a big enough screen, or if they are using a link closer to the top of the page, I still want them to see the animation. Any ideas about how to prevent the browser from scrolling as described? If not, any suggestions for workarounds? FYI, I have this same problem in Safari 4, Chrome (for Mac), & Firefox 3.5. EDIT: Here's the link that calls the update action, which is itself inside a Colorbox: $('a.edit-photo').colorbox({ title: function() { return 'Edit Photo in ' + $(this).attr('rel'); }, overlayClose: false, onComplete: function() { $('#edit-photo-modal').submit(function(e) { $('#photo_submit').after('<span id="saving">Saving...</span>'); e.preventDefault(); $.post($(this).attr('action'), $(this).serialize(), function() { $('#edit-photo-modal #saving').text('Saved!'); }, "script"); }); } }); The lightbox opens, presents a form fetched through an AJAX request, then (on submit) triggers the update action mentioned above. I had these links outside of the Colorbox in an earlier design revision, and they exhibited the same problem, so I've ruled out Colorbox itself as a cause. If you need anymore info, let me know!

    Read the article

  • jquery ui dialog and our dearest friend, ie6

    - by bradjive
    I'm using the jquery ui dialog for a modal popup dialog. It's working great in Firefox/Chrome but terrible in ie6. Problem: When I show the dialog in ie6, the browser window grows and automatically scrolls down to the bottom. The height increase and automatic scroll-down is equal to the height of the jquery dialog. I can scroll up and then use the dialog as normal, but the behavior where it grows the window and drops is maddeningly unacceptable. Here is how I'm launching the window: <div id="dialogWindow"></div> ... $(document).ready(function() { var $dialog = $("#dialogWindow").dialog({ autoOpen: false, modal: true, minWidth: 560, width: 560, resizable: "true", position: "top" }); $('.addButton').click(function(e) { e.preventDefault(); $('#dialogWindow').load('http://myurl'); $dialog.dialog('open'); }); }); I am already using the bgiframe plugin for jquery which is key for ie6 overlay issues. But this seems unrelated to that. Has anyone seen this before and found a work around?

    Read the article

  • Script to add user to MediaWiki

    - by Marquis Wang
    I'm trying to write a script that will create a user in MediaWiki, so that I can run a batch job to import a series of users. I'm using mediawiki-1.12.0. I got this code from a forum, but it doesn't look like it works with 1.12 (it's for 1.13) $name = 'Username'; #Username (MUST start with a capital letter) $pass = 'password'; #Password (plaintext, will be hashed later down) $email = 'email'; #Email (automatically gets confirmed after the creation process) $path = "/path/to/mediawiki"; putenv( "MW_INSTALL_PATH={$path}" ); require_once( "{$path}/includes/WebStart.php" ); $pass = User::crypt( $pass ); $user = User::createNew( $name, array( 'password' => $pass, 'email' => $email ) ); $user->confirmEmail(); $user->saveSettings(); $ssUpdate = new SiteStatsUpdate( 0, 0, 0, 0, 1 ); $ssUpdate->doUpdate(); Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Quitting an application - is that frowned upon?

    - by Ted
    Moving on in my attempt to learn Android I just read the following: Question: Does the user have a choice to kill the application unless we put a menu option in to kill it? If no such option exists, how does the user terminate the application? Answert (Romain Guy): The user doesn't, the system handles this automatically. That's what the activity lifecycle (especially onPause/onStop/onDestroy) is for. No matter what you do, do not put a "quit" or "exit" application button. It is useless with Android's application model. This is also contrary to how core applications work. Hehe, for every step I take in the Android world I run into some sort of problem =( Apparently, you cannot quit an application in Android (but Android can very well totally destroy your app whenever it feels like it). Whats up with that? I am starting to think that its impossible to write an app that functions as a "normal app" - that the user can quit the app when he/she decides to do so. That is not something that should be relied upon the OS to do. The application I am trying to create is not an application for the Android Market. It is not an application for "wide use" by the general public, it is a business app that is going to be used in a very narrow business field. I was actually really looking forward to developing for the Android-platform, since it addresses a lot of issues that exist in Windows Mobile and .NET. However, the last week has been somewhat of a turnoff for me... I hope I dont have to abandon Android, but it doesnt look very good right now =( Is there a way for me to really quit the application?

    Read the article

  • Problems with ASP.NET, machine-level web.config, and the location element

    - by Daniel Schaffer
    I've got a server running Windows Web Server 2008 R2. The machine-level web.config has the following entries: <location path="Preview"> <appSettings> <add key="Environment" value="Preview" /> </appSettings> </location> <location path="Staging"> <appSettings> <add key="Environment" value="Staging" /> </appSettings> </location> <location path="Production"> <appSettings> <add key="Environment" value="Production" /> </appSettings> </location> I have a website that I'd set up in the direction D:\Sites\Preview\, so the full path would be D:\Sites\Preview\WebSite1. If I put a simple aspx file that just outputs the value of ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["Environment"], it displays the value Preview. I'm not clear on exactly how that works, but it does. I'd set this up several weeks ago, and just now tried to duplicate this - I put a second site in the D:\Sites\Preview\ directory, expecting that it would automatically pick up the appropriate appSettings entries, but for some reason it hasn't - the same aspx page doesn't show anything. Additionally, when I go into the IIS manager and open the Configuration Editor, there are no settings in there, whereas there are settings listed for the first site. Any ideas as to what I could be missing? Is the location element intended to work like this, or did I just find some magical fluke with my first site?

    Read the article

  • Intellisense for custom config section problem with namespaces

    - by Quick Joe Smith
    I have just rolled a custom configuration section, created an accompanying schema document for Intellisense and added it to the Web.config's Schemas property as per Michael Stum's answer to another similar question. Unfortunately, and possibly due to me creating the XSD by hand with limited knowledge, the Intellisense relies on an xmlns attribute pointing to my XSD file's namespace being present in the custom config element. However, when running the project I get an Unrecognized attribute 'xmlns'. Note that attribute names are case-sensitive error. I could probably just modify my XSD file to define the xmlns attribute for that element, however I am wondering if this is just a bandaid fix to a larger problem. I must confess I don't have a very good understanding of XML namespaces so this might be an oppportunity to set me straight on a few things. Here is the attributes for my XSD file's root xs:schema element: <xs:schema id="awesomeConfig" targetNamespace="http://awesome.com/schemas" xmlns="http://awesome.com/schemas" elementFormDefault="qualified" xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> ... </xs:schema> And on creating the element in the Web.config file, Visual Studio 2008 automatically appends: <awesomeConfig xmlns="http://awesome.com/schemas"></awesomeConfig> So have I misunderstood the meaning of the xs:schema attributes at all, or is the proper solution as simple as it seems?

    Read the article

  • Replacing accented/umlauted characters with their unadorned counterparts in C# [closed]

    - by Andrew Rollings
    Duplicate of 249087 I have a bunch of user generated addresses that may contain characters with diacritic marks. What is the most effective (i.e. generic) way (apart from a straightforward replace) to automatically convert any such characters to their closest English equivalent? E.g. any of àâãäå would become a æ would become the two separate letters ae ç would become c any of èéêë would become e etc. for all possible letter variations (preferably without having to find and encode lookups for each diacritic form of the letter). (Note: I have to pass these addresses on to third party software that is incapable of printing anything other than English characters. I'd rather the software was capable of handling them, but I have no control over that.) EDIT: Never mind... Found the answer [here][2]. It showed up in the "Related" section to the right of the question after I posted, but not in my prior search or as a pre-post suggestion. Hmm. I added the 'diacritics' tag to the other question in any case. EDIT 2: Jeez! Who voted this -1 after I closed it?

    Read the article

  • Getting a key in the ActionScript Dictionary

    - by Rudy
    Hello, I am using a Dictionary in ActionScript as a queue, sort of, still reading most of the time as an associative container, but I need one time to make a loop to run through the whole dictionary, such as for (var key:String in queue) . Inside this for loop I perform some actions on an element and then call delete on that key. My issue is that I would like to wait for an Event before fetching the next element in this queue. Basically my for loop runs too fast. I would like to fetch the next key all the time, but I know there is no built in method. A solution I thought is to add a break to the loop, as the for.. in will automatically fetch the next key, but it would be a loop which always executes one time, simply to fetch the next key. This sounds a bit counter intuitive. I hope my problem makes sense and I really look for some better ideas than what I currently have. Thanks for your help! Rudy

    Read the article

  • Uiimport does not save variable to base workspace

    - by Tim
    I tried using uiimport to load a file to the base workspace.....It worked first time....but after trying again after a while...I wasnt seeing the variable in the base work space. I used the default variable name which is given by 'uiimport". This was the command I used: uiimport(filename) And two variables where created by default..."data" and "textdata"(which is the header)....but now when i run it is no longer saved in the base workspace I do not want to assign a variable to the uiimport like so... K = uiimport(filename) assignin(base,'green',K) I do not want to do that because My dataset has a text header and the data itself, and doing this would assign both "textdata" and "data" to "green" variable How would I be able to get the dimensions of ONLY the "data" in green and how would I pass only "data"(which is in the green variable in the workspace.."rmbr"...the green variable holds both "data" and "textdata") to another function. I was able to do all this when the uiimport automatically saved the variables in the base workspace....but somehow now it doesn't. I would appreciate any help or tips on this matter

    Read the article

  • AVAudioPlayer not unloading cached memory after each new allocation

    - by Rob
    I am seeing in Instruments that when I play a sound via the standard "AddMusic" example method that Apple provides, it allocates 32kb of memory via the prepareToPlay call (which references the AudioToolBox framework's Cache_DataSource::ReadBytes function) each time a new player is allocated (i.e. each time a different sound is played). However, that cached data never gets released. This obviously poses a huge problem if it doesn't get released and you have a lot of sound files to play, since it tends to keep allocating memory and eventually crashes if you have enough unique sound files (which I unfortunately do). Have any of you run across this or what am I doing wrong in my code? I've had this issue for a while now and it's really bugging me since my code is verbatim of what Apple's is (I think). How I call the function: - (void)playOnce:(NSString *)aSound { // Gets the file system path to the sound to play. NSString *soundFilePath = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:aSound ofType:@"caf"]; // Converts the sound's file path to an NSURL object NSURL *soundURL = [[NSURL alloc] initFileURLWithPath: soundFilePath]; self.soundFileURL = soundURL; [soundURL release]; AVAudioPlayer * newAudio=[[AVAudioPlayer alloc] initWithContentsOfURL: soundFileURL error:nil]; self.theAudio = newAudio; // automatically retain audio and dealloc old file if new m4a file is loaded [newAudio release]; // release the audio safely // this is where the prior cached data never gets released [theAudio prepareToPlay]; // set it up and play [theAudio setNumberOfLoops:0]; [theAudio setVolume: volumeLevel]; [theAudio setDelegate: self]; [theAudio play]; } and then theAudio gets released in the dealloc method of course.

    Read the article

  • How to access and run field events from extension js?

    - by Dan Roberts
    I have an extension that helps in submitting forms automatically for a process at work. We are running into a problem with dual select boxes where one option is selected and then that selection changes another field's options. Since setting an option selected property to true doesn't trigger the field's onchange event I am trying to do so through code. The problem I've run into is that if I try to access or run functions on the field object from the extension, I get the error Error: uncaught exception: [Exception... "Component is not available" nsresult: "0x80040111 (NS_ERROR_NOT_AVAILABLE)" location: "JS frame :: chrome://webformsidebar/content/webformsidebar.js :: WebFormSidebar_FillProcess :: line 499" data: no] the line causing the error is... if (typeof thisField.onchange === 'function') The line right before it works just fine... thisField.options[t].selected=true; ...so I'm not sure why this is resulting in such an error. What surprises me most I guess is that checking for the existence of the function leads to an error. It feels like the problem is related to the code running in the context of the extension instead of the browser window document. If so, is there any way to call a function in the browser window context instead? Do I need to actually inject code into the page somehow? Any other ideas? Thanks

    Read the article

  • How to define custom path to Interop *.dll

    - by NoviceAndNovice
    Well, I have an ActiveX (*.ocx) component, and i use it in a managed C++/CLI project: write a managed wrapper around ActiveX component[ NET has a great Interop services : provides me genarated dll so i can easily use it in my managed code] The problem is that Visual Studio (2008) automatically copy the generated Interop *.dll to the directory where my *.exe file stay.But i want put all my genarated Interop *.dll to a folder ... Suppose My directory structure is so: D:\MyProject\Output\MyProject.exe //My mamanged exe D:\MyProject\Output\Interop.XXXLib.1.0.dll // *Interop .dll I want to put Interop.XXXLib.1.0.dll into new folder D:\MyProject\Output\Interops and use it from that directory...How Can i do it? Best Wishes PS: What I found so far was using using codeBase/ probing tags in my app.config file such as <?xml version="1.0"?> <configuration> <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com.asm.v1"> <probing privatePath="Interops" /> </assemblyBinding> </runtime> </configuration> But i did not work in C++/CLI

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 340 341 342 343 344 345 346 347 348 349 350 351  | Next Page >