Search Results

Search found 10515 results on 421 pages for 'automatically'.

Page 340/421 | < Previous Page | 336 337 338 339 340 341 342 343 344 345 346 347  | Next Page >

• how to place social media links at the end of every TYPO3 content element?

  - by Ugur Koçak

  Thanks to Kasper Skårhøj and all TYPO3 developers for this great product and extensions. I am a TYPO3 user and want to build a scientific portal using TYPO3-YAML. I use the package tyaml_2.0.1_complete from if-20 Project. It includes TYPO3 4.7.4 + YAML and many extensions. Facebook like button, Twitter and G+ buttons have been integrated to News extension by Georg Ringer. What I need is; I want to place the same buttons (fblike, fbshare, twitter and G+) buttons at the end of every content element automatically. I am searching web for more than 2 weeks, and read many pages about it, but all of them are for the coders. I couldn't find a solution yet.I can apply them if all steps are written one by one, and clearly. For example; http://www.typo3tutorials.net/2012/06/typoscript-wrap-content-elemtents-with.html But my TYPO3 package uses fluid template and don't know how to apply it exactly. Please could you give me a link (in any language) explaining how to integrate these buttons to the end of "text" or "text with image" ce? Or can you write them step by step. Thanks much.

  Read the article

• Entity Framework 4 and SYSUTCDATETIME ()

  - by GIbboK

  Hi, I use EF4 and C#. I have a Table in my DataBase (MS SQL 2008) with a default value for a column SYSUTCDATETIME (). The Idea is to automatically add Date and Time as soon as a new record is Created. I create my Conceptual Model using EF4, and I have created an ASP.PAGE with a DetailsView Control in INSERT MODE. My problems: When I create a new Record. EF is not able to insert the actual Date and Time value but it inserts instead this value 0001-01-01 00:00:00.00. I suppose the EF is not able to use SYSUTCDATETIME () defined in my DataBase Any idea how to solve it? Thanks Here my SQL script CREATE TABLE dbo.CmsAdvertisers ( AdvertiserId int NOT NULL IDENTITY CONSTRAINT PK_CmsAdvertisers_AdvertiserId PRIMARY KEY, DateCreated dateTime2(2) NOT NULL CONSTRAINT DF_CmsAdvertisers_DateCreated DEFAULT sysutcdatetime (), ReferenceAdvertiser varchar(64) NOT NULL, NoteInternal nvarchar(256) NOT NULL CONSTRAINT DF_CmsAdvertisers_NoteInternal DEFAULT '' ); My Temporary solution: Please guys help me on this e.Values["DateCreated"] = DateTime.UtcNow; More info here: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb387157.aspx How to use the default Entity Framework and default date values http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd296755.aspx

  Read the article

• .NET - getting form field key/value pairs?

  - by AverageJoe719

  Hi there, I've got a form with textboxes and I want to run some server side validation code on the values after the form is submitted. I was planning to grab all the textbox controls on the page and adding them to a list, then running a for each loop that says for each control in the list query the database where fieldValidation.Name = Control.Name. This would return to me an object and an associated function where i coudl then input the Control.Value and actually perform the validation. My friend told me building the list is not necessary because all languages have a way to get key/value pairs from forms (he doesn't know .NET so coudln't help me). I may be searching the wrong term here but I have not been able to find a result, or maybe I misunderstood my friend. Is there some kind of dictionary or key/value pair automatically generated upon form submissions that contains the value that was submitted and...I guess also the control? Or am I just misunderstanding him. If he was just saying populate a key/value pair based on the form submissions, how does that help me in this situation over a list that contains the control? Thanks =)

  Read the article

• What is the best way to handle autorotation with multiple subview?

  - by thangnguyen

  I am learning and programing an application. I do this project based on what I learned from the book Beginning iphone 3 development. I have two main questions here: I would like to create a multi utility application so I need multiple-view. I have a main view controller which will control switching between views. In this example I have two views A and B. I have 2 view controller A and B which will handles all of events on these 2 views. I have 2 nib files viewA.xib and viewB.xib. One of the uitility is reading PDF. So I create another class which handle the PDF file which can load a PDF page call PDFview. From Interface Builder, I selected class identity for view of the viewB.xib as PDFView class. The result is I can switching between View A and view B. View B will display the content of the PDF page. I am not sure if my solution is right or wrong but now I don't know how to handle the autorotation. The rotation will active the view controller B. But the PDFView handle how to display the PDF on the View. Could you please tell me how I should handle this in a right way? Second question: Should I create the subview automatically? In case I need to do the swipe page animation, how can I do that? I think that I need to load another subview so I can do the animation when swap view. But I think this solution will waste the resource. I can just load another page of the PDF, but in this case I don't know how to use animation? Please tell me how I should solve this? I highly appreciate your time reading and answering my question. Thang Nguyen

  Read the article

• OpenPeak Flash app XMLSocket Security Problem

  - by Kira

  We're trying to create an app for OpenPeak. The Flash app will act as a client to a Java server on another computer on another domain. The Flash app client connects via XMLSocket. The Java Server uses ServerSocket to receive a request and send back a message. In order to trust the server, the Flash client needs a socket master policy file to tell it that the server comes from a trustworthy domain. According to an article on Adobe, when a connection has succeeded, the Flash client automatically requests the cross-domain policy or socket master policy file on port 843. Still, even when we implement it according to the tutorials and recommendations we have read, the Flash client continues to throw the following security error: SecurityErrorEvent type="securityError" bubbles=false cancelable=false eventPhase=2 text="Error #2048" We've tried logging the policy file request during testing to see if there was any call made to port 843. There was not. Interestingly, even without a policy file, the Flash client still manages to send the first data message to the server successfully. It's just when the server tries to send back a reply that the entire thing hangs for about 10 seconds before the security error above is displayed. Any ideas / suggestions?

  Read the article

• jQuery: Using autocomplete to add values to two fields instead of one

  - by rayne

  I want to use the autocomplete plugin for jQuery to populate not one, but two fields when selecting one of the autocomplete values - the name of a band is entered in the #band input field, but the band url (if exists) should also automatically be added to the #url input field when selecting the band name. Right now I simply have an un-pretty list in an external php file from which the autocompleter takes it's values: $bands_sql = "SELECT bands.name, bands.url FROM bands ORDER BY name"; $bands_result = mysql_query($bands_sql) or print (mysql_error()); while ($bands_row = mysql_fetch_array($bands_result)) { $band_name = $bands_row['name']; $band_url = $bands_row['url']; echo $band_name."\n"; #needs to be replaced with an array that holds name and url } My autocomplete function looks very basic atm, but as I'm an absolute beginner when it comes to jQuery (and also clueless when it comes to PHP arrays), I have no idea how to tell it to populate two fields and not one. $(document).ready(function() { $("#band").autocomplete('/autocomplete-bands.php'); }); Is that even possible?!

  Read the article

• Location of the object after scrolling in UIScrollView

  - by ludo

  Hi, I have a scrollView (width:320px height:100px) on my UIView, inside it I add 10 images with width:106.5px each. After that I use this function to have 3 different parts inside my scrollView, so everytime I scroll, an image will automatically be center. -(void)scrollViewDidEndDragging:(UIScrollView *)scrollView willDecelerate:(BOOL)decelerate { [self returnToPosition:self.scrollView]; } -(void)scrollViewDidEndDecelerating:(UIScrollView *)scrollView { [self returnToPosition:self.scrollView]; } -(void)returnToPosition:(UIScrollView *)scrollView { CGFloat itemWidth = 106.5f; CGFloat position = [self.scrollView contentOffset].x; CGFloat newPosition = 0.0f; CGFloat offSet = position / itemWidth; NSUInteger target = (NSUInteger)(offSet + 0.5f); newPosition = target * itemWidth; [self.scrollView setContentOffset:CGPointMake(newPosition, 0.0f) animated:YES]; } Here is my question, I want to be able to know which image will be in the middle position after the user scroll the View, because I want to display on my UIView a text, specific to that image. But I don't know how to do that. Some Ideas?

  Read the article

• Crashing when pushing a XIB based view controller onto navigation controller stack

  - by Michael

  I was attempting to clean up the implementation for a sub-panel on a navigation controller stack, so that the navigation bar could be customized in the XIB instead of doing it manually in the viewDidLoad method. The original (working) setup had the XIB set up with the "File's Owner" class set to the view controller class, and then the view at the top level. This works fine. In the "Interface Builder User Guide", p. 71, it describes the recommended way to build the XIBs for sub-panels ("additional navigation levels"). This approach leaves the "File's Owner" class as NSObject, but adds a UIViewController at the top level, and nests the view (and navigation item) underneath it. The UIViewController's view automatically gets connected to the contained view. When I try to push the controller init'd with this new XIB, the app crashes because of a missing view: SettingsViewController *controller = [[SettingsViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"SettingsView" bundle:nil]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:controller animated:YES]; 2010-04-23 11:17:37.135 xxxx[1173:207] * Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: '-[UIViewController _loadViewFromNibNamed:bundle:] loaded the "SettingsTestView" nib but the view outlet was not set.' I've double checked everything, and tried building a clean XIB from scratch, but get the same result. I looked through a number of the code sample projects, and NONE of them use the documented/recommended approach--they all use the File's Owner class and manually set up the navigation bar in viewDidLoad like I originally had it. Is it possible to get it working the "recommended" way? Thanks! Michael

  Read the article

• Compile and optimize for different target architectures

  - by Peter Smit

  Summary: I want to take advantage of compiler optimizations and processor instruction sets, but still have a portable application (running on different processors). Normally I could indeed compile 5 times and let the user choose the right one to run. My question is: how can I can automate this, so that the processor is detected at runtime and the right executable is executed without the user having to chose it? I have an application with a lot of low level math calculations. These calculations will typically run for a long time. I would like to take advantage of as much optimization as possible, preferably also of (not always supported) instruction sets. On the other hand I would like my application to be portable and easy to use (so I would not like to compile 5 different versions and let the user choose). Is there a possibility to compile 5 different versions of my code and run dynamically the most optimized version that's possible at execution time? With 5 different versions I mean with different instruction sets and different optimizations for processors. I don't care about the size of the application. At this moment I'm using gcc on Linux (my code is in C++), but I'm also interested in this for the Intel compiler and for the MinGW compiler for compilation to Windows. The executable doesn't have to be able to run on different OS'es, but ideally there would be something possible with automatically selecting 32 bit and 64 bit as well. Edit: Please give clear pointers how to do it, preferably with small code examples or links to explanations. From my point of view I need a super generic solution, which is applicable on any random C++ project I have later. Edit I assigned the bounty to ShuggyCoUk, he had a great number of pointers to look out for. I would have liked to split it between multiple answers but that is not possible. I'm not having this implemented yet, so the question is still 'open'! Please, still add and/or improve answers, even though there is no bounty to be given anymore. Thanks everybody!

  Read the article

• UIView: how to do non-destructive drawing?

  - by Caffeine Coma

  My original question: I'm creating a simple drawing application and need to be able to draw over existing, previously drawn content in my drawRect. What is the proper way to draw on top of existing content without entirely replacing it? Based on answers received here and elsewhere, here is the deal. You should be prepared to redraw the entire rectangle whenever drawRect is called. You cannot prevent the contents from being erased by doing the following: [self setClearsContextBeforeDrawing: NO]; This is merely a hint to the graphics engine that there is no point in having it pre-clear the view for you, since you will likely need to re-draw the whole area anyway. It may prevent your view from being automatically erased, but you cannot depend on it. To draw on top of your view without erasing, do your drawing to an off-screen bitmap context (which is never cleared by the system.) Then in your drawRect, copy from this off-screen buffer to the view. Example: - (id) initWithCoder: (NSCoder*) coder { if (self = [super initWithCoder: coder]) { self.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; CGSize size = self.frame.size; drawingContext = [self createDrawingBufferContext: size]; } return self; } - (CGContextRef) createOffscreenContext: (CGSize) size { CGColorSpaceRef colorSpace = CGColorSpaceCreateDeviceRGB(); CGContextRef context = CGBitmapContextCreate(NULL, size.width, size.height, 8, size.width*4, colorSpace, kCGImageAlphaPremultipliedLast); CGColorSpaceRelease(colorSpace); CGContextTranslateCTM(context, 0, size.height); CGContextScaleCTM(context, 1.0, -1.0); return context; } - (void)drawRect:(CGRect) rect { UIGraphicsPushContext(drawingContext); CGImageRef cgImage = CGBitmapContextCreateImage(drawingContext); UIImage *uiImage = [[UIImage alloc] initWithCGImage:cgImage]; UIGraphicsPopContext(); CGImageRelease(cgImage); [uiImage drawInRect: rect]; [uiImage release]; } TODO: can anyone optimize the drawRect so that only the (usually tiny) modified rectangle region is used for the copy?

  Read the article

• Not indent the first paragraph of a LaTeX document

  - by Andrew

  In the standard LaTeX article class (and probably others as well), paragraph indentation follows standard American publishing norms of not indenting the first paragraph after a section{} or subsection{}. I've redefined \maketitle in a LaTeX document and put the actual title left-aligned as the last line, fairly close to the actual text (kind of like this) Author Date Title Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisicing elit, sed do eiusmod tempor incididunt ut labore et dolore magna aliqua. Ut enim ad minim veniam, quis nostrud exercitation ullamco laboris nisi ut aliquip ex ea commodo consequat. Duis aute irure dolor in reprehenderit in voluptate velit esse cillum dolore eu fugiat nulla pariatur. Excepteur sint occaecat cupidatat non proident, sunt in culpa qui officia deserunt mollit anim id est laborum. Section title Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisicing elit, sed do eiusmod tempor incididunt ut labore et dolore magna aliqua. Ut enim ad minim veniam, quis nostrud exercitation ullamco laboris nisi ut aliquip ex ea commodo consequat. Duis aute irure dolor in reprehenderit in voluptate velit esse cillum dolore eu fugiat nulla pariatur. Excepteur sint occaecat cupidatat non proident, sunt in culpa qui officia deserunt mollit anim id est laborum. Since the title is left-aligned and so close to the text, I'd like the first paragraph of the document to not be indented, just like with the headings ... Title Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisicing elit, sed do eiusmod tempor incididunt ut labore et dolore magna aliqua. Ut enim ad minim veniam, quis nostrud exercitation ullamco laboris nisi ut aliquip ex ea commodo consequat. Duis aute irure dolor... ... I've attempted to use @afterindentfalse, which is what the section commands use, inside my renewed commands, but it doesn't work. \makeatletter \def\noindentation{\let\@afterindentfalse} \newcommand{\mytitle}[1]{% \vskip 2em {\bf\sffamily\LARGE #1} \noindentation} \renewcommand{\@maketitle}{ \begin{flushleft}{ % Author \@author \par % Date \@date \par % Title \mytitle{\@title} } \end{flushleft} } \makeatother By default the first paragraph in the article class is indented, so this question is applicable whether or not I renew \maketitle. So, what's the best way to automatically not indent the first paragraph of the document? Thanks!

  Read the article

• Can a class inherit from LambdaExpression in .NET? Or is this not recommended?

  - by d.

  Consider the following code (C# 4.0): public class Foo : LambdaExpression { } This throws the following design-time error: Foo does not implement inherited abstract member System.Linq.Expressions.LambdaExpression.Accept(System.Linq.Expressions.Compiler.StackSpiller) There's absolutely no problem with public class Foo : Expression { } but, out of curiosity and for the sake of learning, I've searched in Google System.Linq.Expressions.LambdaExpression.Accept(System.Linq.Expressions.Compiler.StackSpiller) and guess what: zero results returned (when was the last time you saw that?). Needless to say, I haven't found any documentation on this method anywhere else. As I said, one can easily inherit from Expression; on the other hand LambdaExpression, while not marked as sealed (Expression<TDelegate> inherits from it), seems to be designed to prevent inheriting from it. Is this actually the case? Does anyone out there know what this method is about? EDIT (1): More info based on the first answers - If you try to implement Accept, the editor (C# 2010 Express) automatically gives you the following stub: protected override Expression Accept(System.Linq.Expressions.ExpressionVisitor visitor) { return base.Accept(visitor); } But you still get the same error. If you try to use a parameter of type StackSpiller directly, the compiler throws a different error: System.Linq.Expressions.Compiler.StackSpiller is inaccessible due to its protection level. EDIT (2): Based on other answers, inheriting from LambdaExpression is not possible so the question as to whether or not it is recommended becomes irrelevant. I wonder if, in cases like this, the error message should be Foo cannot implement inherited abstract member System.Linq.Expressions.LambdaExpression.Accept(System.Linq.Expressions.Compiler.StackSpiller) because [reasons go here]; the current error message (as some answers prove) seems to tell me that all I need to do is implement Accept (which I can't do).

  Read the article

• Distributed Lock Service over MySql/GigaSpaces/Netapp

  - by ripper234

  Disclaimer: I already asked this question, but without the deployment requirement. I got an answer that got 3 upvotes, and when I edited the question to include the deployment requirement the answer then became irrelevant. The reason I'm resubmitting is because SO considers the original question 'answered', even though I got no meaningful upvoted answer. I opened a uservoice submission about this problem. The reason I reposted is so StackOverflow consider the original question answered, so it doesn't show up on the 'unanswered questions' tab. Which distributed lock service would you use? Requirements are: A mutual exclusion (lock) that can be seen from different processes/machines lock...release semantics Automatic lock release after a certain timeout - if lock holder dies, it will automatically be freed after X seconds Java implementation Easy deployment - must not require complicated deployment beyond either Netapp, MySql or GigaSpaces. Must play well with those products (especially GigaSpaces - this is why TerraCotta was ruled out). Nice to have: .Net implementation If it's free: Deadlock detection / mitigation I'm not interested in answers like "it can be done over a database", or "it can be done over JavaSpaces" - I know. Relevant answers should only contain a ready, out-of-the-box, proven implementation.

  Read the article

• Loading the target of a link in a <DIV> via jQuery's .live event into the same <DIV>??

  - by Martin Pescador

  Hello together I call a certain div from another page with jquery to be loaded into a div on my main page like this: <script type="text/javascript"> $("#scotland").load("http://www.example.com/scotland .gallery"); </script> <div id="scotland"></div> The div I call is a piece of code which is automatically generated by a CMS made simple module, by the way. Now it comes to my problem: The .gallery div I call, looks, a little simplified, like this: <div class="gallery"> <span><img src="http://www.example.com/scotlandimage1.jpg"></span> <span class="imgnavi"><a href="link_to_next_page_with_one_image">Next image</href></span> </div> I want the "next image"-link to load the next page into the .gallery div (it is always a page with one image on it). But what it does, is, it opens the new page http://www.example.com/scotland only. I tried to use jquerys .live event to load the linked page (that would be "scotlandimage2" and the navigation, as you can see in the upper part - not only the image!), but I must have done something wrong. I tried different ways, but never got it to work. This was my last try: $(".imgnavi a").click(function() { var myUrl = $(this).attr("href"); $(".gallery").load(myUrl); return false; }); I have to admit that I am very new to jquery... But does someone know what I did wrong (do I even follow the right handlers?)? Thanks very much in advance! Martin

  Read the article

• Launch ClickOnce via URL but not checking for updates

  - by Jeff Kotula

  I have a ClickOnce app that is frequently launched from another application via a URL. The URL includes some command-line arguments that load data, etc. Since the frequency of launching the app is so high, I want to cut out the check for version updates. So I implemented my own checking through the ApplicationDeployment class to avoid it. It works fine if you launch from the Start Menu once the app is installed. However, we also want to preserve the launch via URL behavior because it is advantageous in so many ways. But when launching via URL, the update check is always performed -- it seems IE isn't smart enough to look for the app in the local download area to see if it is already installed or not... Does anyone know of a way to get the "don't check for updates automatically" behavior while still using the URL launch mechanism? Actually, it looks like the issue is a Catch-22 in the ClickOnce model. If you launch with a URL, IE will always touch base with the host and check the version, updating if necessary, regardless of whether or not the app is flagged as "Don't check version". However, if you launch from the Start Menu, ClickOnce disables command-line arguments. Has anyone found any way around this, or know of a MS plan to fix it?

  Read the article

• Ajax -- re-load div on success.

  - by RPM

  I am trying to accomplish a "re-load." More specifically, I need to be able to refresh a portion of my page as a result of another successful ajax call. Moreover, I load my portion of the page via ajax which obtains it's content from an ajax post. The result is my content being displayed inside my portion precisely. I need this portion of the page refreshed after a successful ajax post. Here is some of the code: /* Ajax-- this part is loaded automatically, and I need it reloaded upon success of another ajax post. This data comes from the outcome of my other ajax function. */ $('#newCo').load('click', function() { $.ajax({ url: 'index.php?dkd432k=uBus/310/Indeed', dataType: 'json', success: function(json) { if (json['newCompare']) { $('#newCo .newResults').html(json['newCompare']); } } }); }); The next portion of code is responsible for posting the data of which I obtain in this above ajax function. function ZgHiapud (ofWhich) { $.ajax({ url: 'index.php?dkd432k=uBus/310/update', type: 'post', data: 'product_id=' + product_id, dataType: 'json', success: function(json) { $('.success, .warning, .attention, .information').remove(); if (json['success']) { $('.attention').fadeIn('slow'); $('#compare_total').html(json['total']); $('html, body').animate({ scrollTop: 0 }, 'slow'); } } }); } In the end, I need to obtain the data that I send to the server immediately upon success of the second ajax call. This data that is sent via the second ajax call needs to fire the first ajax call upon success.

  Read the article

• Integer Surrogate Key?

  - by CitadelCSAlum

  I need something real simple, that for some reason I am unable to accomplish to this point. I have also been unable to Google the answer surprisingly. I need to number the entries in different tables uniquely. I am aware of AUTO INCREMENT in MySQL and that it will be involved. My situation would be as follows If I had a table like Table EXAMPLE ID - INTEGER FIRST_NAME - VARCHAR(45) LAST_NAME - VARCHAR(45) PHONE - VARCHAR(45) CITY - VARCHAR(45) STATE - VARCHAR(45) ZIP - VARCHAR(45) This would be the setup for the table where ID is an integer that is auto-incremented every time an entry is inserted into the table. The thing I need is that I do not want to have to account for this field when inserting data into the database. From my understanding this would be a surrogate key, that I can tell the database to automatically increment and I do not have to include it in the INSERT STATEMENT so instead of INSERT INTO EXAMPLE VALUES (2,'JOHN','SMITH',333-333-3333,'NORTH POLE'.... I can leave out the first ID column and just write something like INSERT INTO EXAMPLE VALUES ('JOHN','SMITH'.....etc) Notice I Wouldnt have to define the ID column... I know this is a very common task to do, but for some reason I cant get to the bottom of it. I am using MySQL, just to clarify. Thanks alot

  Read the article

• Which SCM/VCS cope well with moving text between files?

  - by pfctdayelise

  We are having havoc with our project at work, because our VCS is doing some awful merging when we move information across files. The scenario is thus: You have lots of files that, say, contain information about terms from a dictionary, so you have a file for each letter of the alphabet. Users entering terms blindly follow the dictionary order, so they will put an entry like "kick the bucket" under B if that is where the dictionary happened to list it (or it might have been listed under both B, bucket and K, kick). Later, other users move the terms to their correct files. Lots of work is being done on the dictionary terms all the time. e.g. User A may have taken the B file and elaborated on the "kick the bucket" entry. User B took the B and K files, and moved the "kick the bucket" entry to the K file. Whichever order they end up getting committed in, the VCS will probably lose entries and not "figure out" that an entry has been moved. (These entries are later automatically converted to an SQL database. But they are kept in a "human friendly" form for working on them, with lots of comments, examples etc. So it is not acceptable to say "make your users enter SQL directly".) It is so bad that we have taken to almost manually merging these kinds of files now, because we can't trust our VCS. :( So what is the solution? I would love to hear that there is a VCS that could cope with this. Or a better merge algorithm? Or otherwise, maybe someone can suggest a better workflow or file arrangement to try and avoid this problem?

  Read the article

• Replacement for deprecated SQL Server User Defined Type with a bound Rule and Default

  - by Adam Jones

  We have a User Defined Data Type of YesNo which has an which is an alias for char(1). The type has a bound Rule (must be Y or N) and a Default (N). The aim of this is that when any of the development team create a new field of type YesNo the rule and default are automatically bound to the new column. Rules and Defaults have been deprecated and won't be available in the next a future version of SQL Server, is there another way to achieve the same functionality? I should add that I'm aware that I could use CHECK and DEFAULT constraints to replicate the functionality of the bound Rule and Defalut objects, however these would have to be applied at each usage of the type, rather than getting the functionality 'for free' by using a UDT which has a bound Rule and Default. The post relates to a database that backs an existing application, rather than a new development, so I'm aware that our use of UDT's is less than optimal. I suspect the answer to the question is 'No', however normally when features are deprecated there's usually an alternative syntax that can be used as a drop in replacement so I wanted to pose the question in-case someone knew of an alternative.

  Read the article

• MFC Combo-Box Control is not showing the full list of items when I click the drop-down menu...

  - by shan23

  I'm coding an app in MSVS 2008, which has a ComboBox control which I initialize thru the code as below: static char* OptionString[4] = {"Opt1", "Opt2", "Opt3", "Opt4"}; BOOL CMyAppDlg::OnInitDialog() { CDialog::OnInitDialog(); // Set the icon for this dialog. The framework does this automatically // when the application's main window is not a dialog SetIcon(m_hIcon, TRUE); // Set big icon SetIcon(m_hIcon, FALSE); // Set small icon // TODO: Add extra initialization here m_Option.AddString(OptionString[0]); m_Option.AddString(OptionString[1]); m_Option.AddString(OptionString[2]); m_Option.AddString(OptionString[3]); m_Option.SetCurSel(0); return TRUE; // return TRUE unless you set the focus to a control } Now, when I build the app and click the down-arrow, the drop-down box shows the first option ONLY(since I've selected that thru my code). But, if i press down-arrow key on keyboard, it cycles thru the options in the order I've inserted, but never does it show more than 1 option in the box. So, In case an user wants to select option3, he has to cycle through options 1 and 2 !! Though once I select any option using the keyboard, the appropriate event handlers are fired, I'm miffed by this behaviour , as is understandable. I'm listing the properties of the combo-box control as well - only the properties that are true(rest are set to false): Type - Dropdown Vertical Scrollbar Visible Tabstop This has bugged me for weeks now. Can anyone pls enlighten me ?

  Read the article

• iPhone code to create new NSUserDefaults objects?

  - by Rob

  I have NSUserDefaults storing a number of string variables for things like name, date of birth, address, etc. What I would like to know is how to write a code that will create a new object for each new user. For example, I have a spinning wheel that shows up immediately after the first time the user runs the app. What I want, is for that wheel to have one single option - "New User". Once that New User fills out a bunch of text fields that I am using NSUserDefaults to save, I want that user to be saved on that spinning wheel so that the next time they open up the app they have the option of returning to all of the variables that they previously put in, or creating a new user so they can input all new variables. I know how to do everything except write the code to create new users automatically. Potentially, the program should allow for a limitless number of these user objects and then just use something arbitrary like their last name to input into the spinning wheel. I would assume that the code would need to be put somewhere in the following code used to save the NSUserDefaults: NSUserDefaults *userData = [NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults]; [userData setObject:txtName.text forKey:@"name"];

  Read the article

• Detecting what changed in an HTML Textfield

  - by teehoo

  For a major school project I am implementing a real-time collaborative editor. For a little background, basically what this means is that two(or more) users can type into a document at the same time, and their changes are automatically propagated to one another (similar to Etherpad). Now my problem is as follows: I want to be able to detect what changes a user carried out onto an HTML textfield. They could: Insert a character Delete a character Paste a string of characters Cut a string of characters I want to be able to detect which of these changes happened and then notify other clients similar to "insert character 'c' at position 2" etc. Anyway I was hoping to get some advice on how I would go about implementing the detection of these changes? My first attempt was to consider the carot position before and after a change occurred, but this failed miserably. For my second attempt I was thinking about doing a diff on the entire contents of the textfields old and new value. Am I missing anything obvious with this solution? Is there something simpler?

  Read the article

• PDF Form Field Manipulation

  - by 108039818756939362532

  I'm making a web interface to autofill pdf forms with user data from a database. The admin needs to be able to upload a pdf (right now targeted at IRS pdf forms) and then associate the fields in the pdf with data fields in the database. I need a way to help the admin associate the field names (stuff like "topmostSubform[0].Page2[0].p2-t66[0]") with the the data fields in the database. I'm looking for a way to modify the PDF programatically to in some way provide this information. Basically I'm open to suggestions on how I might make the field names appear in an obvious manner on a modified version of the original pdf. The closest I've gotten is being able to insert Tooltips into the fields in the pdf by just editting the raw pdf line by line. However when editting the pdf in this manner the field names are gibberish, and so I can't just use them. An optimal solution would be anything that could automatically parse a pdf and set each field's tooltip to be the fields name. Anything that can be run from the command line, or any python tool, or just a basic how to correctly parse a field's name from a raw pdf file would be amazing.

  Read the article

• R: disentangling scopes

  - by rescdsk

  Hi, Right now, in my R project, I have functions1.R with doFoo() and doBar(), functions2.R with other functions, and main.R with the main program in it, which first does source('functions1.R'); source('functions2.R'), and then calls the other functions. I've been starting the program from the R GUI in Mac OS X, with source('main.R'). This is fine the first time, but after that, the variables that were defined the first time through the program are defined for the second time functions*.R are sourced, and so the functions get a whole bunch of extra variables defined. I don't want that! I want an "undefined variable" error when my function uses a variable it shouldn't! Twice this has given me very late nights of debugging! So how do other people deal with this sort of problem? Is there something like source(), but that makes an independent namespace that doesn't fall through to the main one? Making a package seems like one solution, but it seems like a big pain in the butt compared to e.g. Python, where a source file is automatically a separate namespace. Any tips? Thank you!

  Read the article

• Syncing two separate structures to the same master data

  - by Mike Burton

  I've got multiple structures to maintain in my application. All link to the same records, and one of them could be considered the "master" in that it reflects actual relationships held in files on disk. The other structures are used to "call out" elements of the main design for purchase and work orders. I'm struggling to come up with a pattern that deals appropriately with changes to the master data. As an example, the following trees might refer to the same data: A |_ B |_ C |_ D |_ E |_ B |_ C |_ D A |_ B E C |_ D A |_ B C D E These secondary structures follow internal rules, but their overall structure is usually user-determined. In all cases (including the master), any element can be used in multiple locations and in multiple trees. When I add a child to any element in the tree, I want to either automatically build the secondary structure for each instance of the "master" element or at least advertise the situation to the user and allow them to manually generate the data required for the secondary trees. Is there any pattern which might apply to this situation? I've been treating it as a view problem, but it turns out to be more complicated than that when you look at the initial generation of the data.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 336 337 338 339 340 341 342 343 344 345 346 347  | Next Page >