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  • How do I select the item with the highest value using LINQ?

    - by mafutrct
    Imagine you got a class like this: class Foo { string key; int value; } How would you select the Foo with the highest value from an IEnumeralbe<Foo>? A basic problem is to keep the number of iterations low (i.e. at 1), but that affects readability. After all, the best I could find was something along the lines of this: IEnumerable<Foo> list; Foo max = list.Aggregate ((l, r) => l.value > r.value ? l : r); Can you think of a more better way?

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  • Select <a> which is the second <a> on a page that contains the same href text? jQuery

    - by Alex
    Hello there, I'm working with a page that has several links that contain the same href text, and I need to select the second anchor element on the page that contains said href text. Here's a simplified version of the link structure of the page: <a href="same/link/to/stuff/">same link</a> <a href="same/link/to/stuff/">same link</a> How do I fashion my selector so that it only selects the second anchor in the above example? Currently I'm trying: $('a[href=same/link/to/stuff/] :eq(1)') but it is not working. Thanks!!

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  • How do I select a class element based on its id in jQuery?

    - by Michael
    I have multiple dynamically generated buttons with a class name of ".button". Each of these are given an unknown ID value used to uniquely identify them. In jQuery I must select one and alert the values. <div class="button" id="3"></div> The ID value is dynamically generated, therefore I do not know it. I'm new to jQuery but am basically looking for something like this: $(".button").attr("id").val(); How do I target one button when there are many? Thanks!

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  • With a SELECT...WHERE id IN (...), order results by IN() ?

    - by Deca
    With a query such as: SELECT * FROM images WHERE id IN (12,9,15,3,1) is it possible to order the results by the contents of the IN clause? The result I'm looking for would be something like: [0] => Array ( [id] => 12 [file_name] => foo ) [1] => Array ( [id] => 9 [file_name] => bar ) [2] => Array ( [id] => 15 [file_name] => baz ) ...

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  • Some problems with GridView in webpart with multiple filters.

    - by NF_81
    Hello, I'm currently working on a highly configurable Database Viewer webpart for WSS 3.0 which we are going to need for several customized sharepoint sites. Sorry in advance for the large wall of text, but i fear it's necessary to recap the whole issue. As background information and to describe my problem as good as possible, I'll start by telling you what the webpart shall do: Basically the webpart contains an UpdatePanel, which contains a GridView and an SqlDataSource. The select-query the Datasource uses can be set via webbrowseable properties or received from a consumer method from another webpart. Now i wanted to add a filtering feature to the webpart, so i want a dropdownlist in the headerrow for each column that should be filterable. As the select-query is completely dynamic and i don't know at design time which columns shall be filterable, i decided to add a webbrowseable property to contain an xml-formed string with filter information. So i added the following into OnRowCreated of the gridview: void gridView_RowCreated(object sender, GridViewRowEventArgs e) { if (e.Row.RowType == DataControlRowType.Header) { for (int i = 0; i < e.Row.Cells.Count; i++) { if (e.Row.Cells[i].GetType() == typeof(DataControlFieldHeaderCell)) { string headerText = ((DataControlFieldHeaderCell)e.Row.Cells[i]).ContainingField.HeaderText; // add sorting functionality if (_allowSorting && !String.IsNullOrEmpty(headerText)) { Label l = new Label(); l.Text = headerText; l.ForeColor = Color.Blue; l.Font.Bold = true; l.ID = "Header" + i; l.Attributes["title"] = "Sort by " + headerText; l.Attributes["onmouseover"] = "this.style.cursor = 'pointer'; this.style.color = 'red'"; l.Attributes["onmouseout"] = "this.style.color = 'blue'"; l.Attributes["onclick"] = "__doPostBack('" + panel.UniqueID + "','SortBy$" + headerText + "');"; e.Row.Cells[i].Controls.Add(l); } // check if this column shall be filterable if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(filterXmlData)) { XmlNode columnNode = GetColumnNode(headerText); if (columnNode != null) { string dataValueField = columnNode.Attributes["DataValueField"] == null ? "" : columnNode.Attributes["DataValueField"].Value; string filterQuery = columnNode.Attributes["FilterQuery"] == null ? "" : columnNode.Attributes["FilterQuery"].Value; if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(dataValueField) && !String.IsNullOrEmpty(filterQuery)) { SqlDataSource ds = new SqlDataSource(_conStr, filterQuery); DropDownList cbx = new DropDownList(); cbx.ID = "FilterCbx" + i; cbx.Attributes["onchange"] = "__doPostBack('" + panel.UniqueID + "','SelectionChange$" + headerText + "$' + this.options[this.selectedIndex].value);"; cbx.Width = 150; cbx.DataValueField = dataValueField; cbx.DataSource = ds; cbx.DataBound += new EventHandler(cbx_DataBound); cbx.PreRender += new EventHandler(cbx_PreRender); cbx.DataBind(); e.Row.Cells[i].Controls.Add(cbx); } } } } } } } GetColumnNode() checks in the filter property, if there is a node for the current column, which contains information about the Field the DropDownList should bind to, and the query for filling in the items. In cbx_PreRender() i check ViewState and select an item in case of a postback. In cbx_DataBound() i just add tooltips to the list items as the dropdownlist has a fixed width. Previously, I used AutoPostback and SelectedIndexChanged of the DDL to filter the grid, but to my disappointment it was not always fired. Now i check __EVENTTARGET and __EVENTARGUMENT in OnLoad and call a function when the postback event was due to a selection change in a DDL: private void FilterSelectionChanged(string columnName, string selectedValue) { columnName = "[" + columnName + "]"; if (selectedValue.IndexOf("--") < 0 ) // "-- All --" selected { if (filter.ContainsKey(columnName)) filter[columnName] = "='" + selectedValue + "'"; else filter.Add(columnName, "='" + selectedValue + "'"); } else { filter.Remove(columnName); } gridView.PageIndex = 0; } "filter" is a HashTable which is stored in ViewState for persisting the filters (got this sample somewhere on the web, don't remember where). In OnPreRender of the webpart, i call a function which reads the ViewState and apply the filterExpression to the datasource if there is one. I assume i had to place it here, because if there is another postback (e.g. for sorting) the filters are not applied any more. private void ApplyGridFilter() { string args = " "; int i = 0; foreach (object key in filter.Keys) { if (i == 0) args = key.ToString() + filter[key].ToString(); else args += " AND " + key.ToString() + filter[key].ToString(); i++; } dataSource.FilterExpression = args; ViewState.Add("FilterArgs", filter); } protected override void OnPreRender(EventArgs e) { EnsureChildControls(); if (WebPartManager.DisplayMode.Name == "Edit") { errMsg = "Webpart in Edit mode..."; return; } if (useWebPartConnection == true) // get select-query from consumer webpart { if (provider != null) { dataSource.SelectCommand = provider.strQuery; } } try { int currentPageIndex = gridView.PageIndex; if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(m_SortExpression)) { gridView.Sort("[" + m_SortExpression + "]", m_SortDirection); } gridView.PageIndex = currentPageIndex; // for some reason, the current pageindex resets after sorting ApplyGridFilter(); gridView.DataBind(); } catch (Exception ex) { Functions.ShowJavaScriptAlert(Page, ex.Message); } base.OnPreRender(e); } So i set the filterExpression and the call DataBind(). I don't know if this is ok on this late stage.. don't have a lot of asp.net experience after all. If anyone can suggest a better solution, please give me a hint. This all works great so far, except when i have two or more filters and set them to a combination that returns zero records. Bam ... gridview gone, completely - without a possiblity of changing the filters back. So i googled and found out that i have to subclass gridview in order to always show the headerrow. I found this solution and implemented it with some modifications. The headerrow get's displayed and i can change the filters even if the returned result contains no rows. But finally to my current problem: When i have two or more filters set which return zero rows, and i change back one filter to something that should return rows, the gridview remains empty (although the pager is rendered). I have to completly refresh the page to reset the filters. When debugging, i can see in the overridden CreateChildControls of the grid, that the base method indeed returns 0, but anyway... the gridView.RowCount remains 0 after databinding. Anyone have an idea what's going wrong here?

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  • How come the ls command prints in multiple columns on tty but only one column everywhere else?

    - by David Lou
    Even after using Unix-like OSes for a couple years, this behaviour still baffles me. When I use the ls command in a directory that has lots of files, the output is usually nicely formatted into multiple columns. Here's an example: $ ls a.txt C.txt f.txt H.txt k.txt M.txt p.txt R.txt u.txt W.txt z.txt A.txt d.txt F.txt i.txt K.txt n.txt P.txt s.txt U.txt x.txt Z.txt b.txt D.txt g.txt I.txt l.txt N.txt q.txt S.txt v.txt X.txt B.txt e.txt G.txt j.txt L.txt o.txt Q.txt t.txt V.txt y.txt c.txt E.txt h.txt J.txt m.txt O.txt r.txt T.txt w.txt Y.txt However, if I try to redirect the output to a file, or pipe it to another command, only a single column appears in the output. Using the same example directory as above, here's what I get when I pipe ls to wc: $ ls | wc 52 52 312 In other words, wc thinks there are 52 lines, even though the output to the terminal has only 5. I haven't observed this behaviour in any other command. Would you like to explain this to me?

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  • How do I use .htaccess conditional redirects for multiple domains?

    - by John
    I'm managing about 15 or so domains for a particular promotion. Each domain has specific redirects in place, as shown below. Rather than make 15 different .htaccess files that I would later have to manage separately, I'd like to use a single .htaccess file and use a symbolic link into each website's directory. The trouble is that, I can't figure out how to make the rules apply only for a specific domain. Every time I visit www.redirectsite2.com, it sends me to www.targetsite.com/search.html?state=PA&id=75, when it should instead be sending me to www.targetsite.com/search.html?state=NJ&id=68. How exactly do I make multiple RewriteRules apply for a given domain and only that domain? Is this even possible to do within a single .htaccess file? Options +FollowSymlinks # redirectsite1.com RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / # start processing rules for www.redirectsite1.com RewriteCond %{QUERY_STRING} ^$ RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www\.redirectsite1\.com$ # rule for organic visit first RewriteRule ^$ http://targetsite.com/search.html?state=PA&id=75 [QSA,R,L] RewriteRule ^PGN$ http://targetsite.com/search.html?state=PA&id=26 [QSA,R,NC,L] RewriteRule ^NS$ http://targetsite.com/search.html?state=PA&id=27 [QSA,R,NC,L] RewriteRule ^INQ$ http://targetsite.com/search.html?state=PA&id=28 [QSA,R,NC,L] RewriteRule ^AA$ http://targetsite.com/search.html?state=PA&id=29 [QSA,R,NC,L] RewriteRule ^PI$ http://targetsite.com/search.html?state=PA&id=30 [QSA,R,NC,L] RewriteRule ^GV$ http://targetsite.com/search.html?state=PA&id=31 [QSA,R,NC,L] # catch-all rule, using the same id as the organic visit RewriteRule ^([a-z]+)?$ http://targetsite.com/search.html?state=PA&id=75 [QSA,R,NC,L] # end processing rules for www.redirectsite1.com # begin rules for redirectsite2.com RewriteCond %{QUERY_STRING} ^$ RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www\.redirectsite2\.com$ # rule for organic visit first RewriteRule ^$ http://targetsite.com/search.html?state=NJ&id=68 [QSA,R,L] RewriteRule ^SL$ http://targetsite.com/search.html?state=NJ&id=6 [QSA,R,NC,L] RewriteRule ^APP$ http://targetsite.com/search.html?state=NJ&id=8 [QSA,R,NC,L] # catch-all rule, using the same id as the organic visit RewriteRule ^([a-z]+)?$ http://targetsite.com/search.html?state=NJ&id=68 [QSA,R,NC,L] Thanks for any help you may be able to provide!

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  • What is the correct iptables rule when NATing multiple private subnets?

    - by Jose Mendez
    I have a Centos minimal 6.5 acting as a router. eth0 is connected to a Cisco switch trunk port, allowing VLANs 200-213. I have several VLAN interfaces just as this link suggests: https://access.redhat.com/documentation/en-US/Red_Hat_Enterprise_Linux/6/html/Deployment_Guide/s2-networkscripts-interfaces_802.1q-vlan-tagging.html And have IPv4 forwarding, so all my network devices from any of the networks 200-213 can communicate with each other using this linux box as their router. Problem is, I need them to access the Internet, so I added the following rule: iptables -t nat -A POSTROUTING -s 192.168.0.0/16 -j SNAT --to 1.1.1.56 1.1.1.56 is the "outside" address. This works fine, devices connected to the internal networks can ping Intertnet addresses BUT, they stop being able to talk to each other across subnets, so 192.168.211.55 can ping 8.8.8.8, but can't talk to 192.168.213.5. As soon as I do a service iptables restart to remove the rule, I can start talking across internal subnets again. What would be the correct way to set up NAT for multiple private subnets? Or maybe the correct way to set up forwarding?

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  • How can I "share" a network share over the internet to multiple operating systems?

    - by Minsc
    Hello all, We have a network share accessible through our intranet that is widely used. This share has it's own set of fine tuned permissions. I have been tasked with allowing A.D. authenticated access to this share over the internet without the use of VPN. The internet access has to mimic the NTSF permissions in place on the share. Another piece of the puzzle is that the access over the internet has to allow perusal of the share from Windows and Mac OS systems. I had envisioned a web front end that would facilitate downloading to and uploading from the share via a web browser. I'm trying to ask for some suggestions about what type of setup is necessary to achieve this. I've done loads of testing and searching for solutions but I can't seem to get anything to work as I hope. The web server that will be handing all of this is a Windows 2K8 box with IIS 7. How can I allow the users to authenticate against Active Directory when coming from the internet even when coming from a Mac system? I hope my question is not too broad, I'm sorry if I should have broken it up into multiple questions. It all is just tied together in my head. Thank you all for your time and aid.

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  • How do I apply multiple subnets to a server with one NIC?

    - by Cosban
    I am trying to route multiple IPs through one physical NIC on my dedicated server for use with Proxmox KVM VMs. I have a dedicated server which is currently running Debian 4.4.5-8 with 3 available ip addresses for use, which will be displayed as 176.xxx.xxx.196 (main), 176.xxx.xxx.198 (on same subnet as main) and 5.xxx.xxx.166 (different subnet). I am currently trying to route the third IP address with the dedi for use with a vps that I have set up using proxmox v2.x but am having a really, really hard time doing so. Virtual interfaces binding the additional IP addresses work as expected, ruling out external routing problems. The provider has given the following information for the IP addresses on the main subnet: gateway: 176.xxx.xxx.193 netmask: 255.255.255.224 broadcast: 176.xxx.xxx.223 As well as the following information for the IP address on the second subnet: gateway: 5.xxx.xxx.161 netmask: 255.255.255.248 broadcast: 5.xxx.xxx.167 Everything I've tried with /etc/network/interfaces has either not worked, or has rendered the network completely useless. This is the current state of the file, which has the secondary IP address working on the same subnet as well as IPv6 working, but not the second subnet. # Nativen IPv6 Schnittstelle iface eth0 inet6 manual # Bridge IPv4 Schnittstelle (176.xxx.xxx.193/27) auto vmbr0 iface vmbr0 inet static address 176.xxx.xxx.196 netmask 255.255.255.224 gateway 176.xxx.xxx.193 broadcast 176.xxx.xxx.223 bridge_ports eth0 bridge_stp off bridge_fd 0 bridge_maxwait 0 post-up ip addr add 176.xxx.xxx.198/27 dev vmbr0 auto vmbr1 iface vmbr1 inet static address 5.xxx.xxx.166 netmask 255.255.255.248 gateway 5.xxx.xxx.161 broadcast 5.xxx.xxx.167 bridge_ports eth0 bridge_stp off bridge_fd 0 bridge_maxwait 0 post-up ip addr add 5.xxx.xxx.166/27 dev vmbr1 # Bridge IPv6 Schnittstelle (Reichweite: xxxx:xxxx:xxxx:xxxx:xxxx:xxxx::/64) iface vmbr0 inet6 static address xxxx:xxxx:xxxx:xxxx:xxxx:xxxx netmask 64 up ip -6 route add xxxx:xxxx:xxxx:xxxx:xxxx:xxxx dev vmbr0 down ip -6 route del xxxx:xxxx:xxxx:xxxx:xxxx:xxxx dev vmbr0 up ip -6 route add default via xxxx:xxxx:xxxx:xxxx:xxxx:xxxx dev vmbr0 down ip -6 route del default via xxxx:xxxx:xxxx:xxxx:xxxx:xxxx dev vmbr0

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  • How to remove all Couchdb versions in Ubuntu 10.04 (server)? ( after multiple installs )

    - by DjangoRocks
    Hi all, I have done multiple installs of CouchDB using sudo aptitude install couchdb sudo ap-get install couchdb and more recently based on the instructions found at L http://wiki.apache.org/couchdb/Installing_on_Ubuntu May I know how do I uninstall or remove all the above installations? Best Regards. +++++++++++++++++++UPDATE++++++++++++++++++++++++ I've tried running the following commands: apt-get remove couchdb apt-get purge couchdb but received the following errors: (Reading database ... 39814 files and directories currently installed.) Removing couchdb ... invoke-rc.d: initscript couchdb, action "stop" failed. dpkg: error processing couchdb (--remove): subprocess installed pre-removal script returned error exit status 1 invoke-rc.d: initscript couchdb, action "start" failed. dpkg: error while cleaning up: subprocess installed post-installation script returned error exit status 1 Errors were encountered while processing: couchdb E: Sub-process /usr/bin/dpkg returned an error code (1) May I know how do i fix this? ON issuing the command : dpkg -l | grep couchdb I received the following response: rF couchdb 0.10.0-1ubuntu2 RESTful document oriented database, system D iF couchdb-bin 0.10.0-1ubuntu2 RESTful document oriented database, programs How do i uninstall CouchDB ? I think there's some file corruption?

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  • How To Map Fn+Key (Multiple Keys) To Other Key in Windows?

    - by Mohamed Meligy
    I've got a ThinkPad W530 laptop, which replaces the Application Key (also known as Menu Key or Mouse Right Click key, usually between Right Alt and Right Ctrl) with the Print Screen key. So, I need to replace Prt/Scr with Application key. That's easy, all key mapping software like SharpKeys or whatever can do that. There are even a few threads in SuperUser about dozen of those. But then, the different part to this question from the others (which is why it's not a duplicate, I think) is that I also don't want to completely lose the Prt/Scr key. I'm thinking about replacing it with either: Fn + Prt/Scr Fn + F2 These seemed to have no special meaning, so, I'm not overriding anything, just adding functionality to either of them (one of them, not both), to be the new Prt/Scr key. I couldn't find any key mapping software that can detect or let me select more than one key to map, even when the other key is something like Fn key (although they all can map Fn key itself, without combination). I know it may make sense why this restriction exists, but it'll be really useful if I can override it though. Do you know any program that can do that? Thanks a lot.

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  • Why would Windows Task Scheduler spawn multiple instances of the same task that run into each other?

    - by swagner88
    Overview: I use Windows Task Scheduler to run automated tasks. Occasionally I will see that randomly a task has failed to perform its duties. When I check Task Scheduler to see what has occurred in the history log, I see that for some reason, when the tasks are triggered at their schedules, they are spawning several instances of themselves simultaneously which turns into a train wreck for the task and it either kills the other instances and tries to run the "first" one, or it just does not run at all as it believes another instance of itself is already running. Sometimes this occurs in the same tasks and then occasionally it happens with others. The fix is just to end all instances and start the task manually. Question: Why would one single task with one single schedule decide to spawn multiple instance of itself simultaneously? Note: I've got a separate user account set to run the tasks instead of myself. That user is indeed an admin on the machine that runs the tasks and the tasks are set to tun whether or not the user is logged on. Also, the machine is windows server 08 R2.

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  • Deploying Office 2010 with MDT 2012 - Multiple Customisaton Files?

    - by Tony Blunt
    I'm in the process of setting up a deployment share for Windows 7 and Office 2010 Pro Plus, using MDT 2012. My question involves the customisation of the Office 2010 install. I've imported Office into MDT and I've successfully created a custom MSP file to tailor the settings to our business. However, I need to have a number of different customisations for different groups of users. For instance, our laptop users need Outlook Anywhere configured whereas desktop users do not. Basically - what's the best way of doing this? Do I have to import Office into MDT more than once, each instance using a different MSP, then have the task sequence select the appropriate instance? It's just that this method seems extremely wasteful so I'm thinking that there's a more intelligent way to do it? Or am I coming at this from the wrong direction? Should I be looking at Group Policy to tweak the Outlook settings in this instance? I'm just aware that there are certain things that OCT can do that group policy cannot, so I would have thought that there must be something I can do in MDT. I'm new to MDT so any pointers will be apprectiated. Thanks in advance.

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  • how to authenticate once for multiple servers, using only apache configs?

    - by Wang
    My problem is, I have a number of prepackaged web apps (a print system, a wiki, a bug tracker, an email archive, etc.) running on different Mac OS X Leopard (soon to be SL) servers that each need to authenticate users from the internet at large. Right now every server presents an Apache basic authentication prompt, which takes a shared login, but it's apparently enough of an inconvenience to log in repeatedly that people are sending email without checking the wiki or bug tracker or archive. In the case of the bug tracker, a user [might need to log in twice---once for apache if he hasn't used any other protected service on that server, once for the bug tracker itself so it can distinguish different people. Since the only common component to all these apps is Apache 2 itself, does it have any way of authenticating a user once, in some way that will be respected by other servers and various web apps? Looked at http://serverfault.com/questions/32421/how-is-session-stickiness-achieved-across-multiple-web-servers but it sounds like the answer is assuming that I get to write my own web app. Looked at Ian Bicking's blog but it's four years old and recommends something available only for apache 1.3, not apache 2. Sorry not to hyperlink the second site---apparently I need 10 reputation points. Edit: Shibboleth does what I need, but I should have specified that I'm looking for a really dumb, really simple solution for in-house services that need to handle all of a dozen users, probably not more than three at a time.

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  • What's the best way to migrate SELECT applications and data from an old Mac to a one?

    - by jaydles
    I know I can make an easy transfer of everything using time machine, but I'm trying to transfer the minimum necessary to the new computer (applications I currently use, Aperture database, etc.) in order to keep the new machine as clean as possible, and avoid starting out with any legacy problems with permissions, etc. Clearly, I can copy individual apps and databases to an external drive and then install them on the new machine, but I'm trying to find an easier way.

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  • What are some techniques to monitor multiple instances of a piece of software?

    - by Geo Ego
    It was recommended that I ask this question here by a member of StackOverflow. I have a piece of self-serve kiosk software that will be running at multiple sites. I'd like to monitor their status remotely. The kiosk application itself is pretty much finished. I am now in the process of creating a piece of software that will monitor all of the kiosks from a central location so that the customer can view particular details remotely (for instance, how many bills are in the acceptor's cash cartridge, what customer is currently logged in, etc.). Because I am in such an early stage of development, my options are quite open. I understand that I'm not giving very many qualifications, but I'd like to try to get a good variety of potential solutions. Some details: Kiosk software is a VB6 app running on Windows Embedded Monitoring software will be run on a modern desktop version of Windows (either XP, Vista, or 7) Database is SQL Server 2008 My initial idea was to develop a .NET app that would simply report the last database transaction for each kiosk at a set interval (say every second or so) but I'd really like for the kiosk software to report its status in real-time. I'm not exactly sure where to begin in terms of what modifications may need to be made to the kiosk software, and what the monitoring software will require. Links to articles on these topics would be most welcome.

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  • How does one make sure or even guarantee server time are sync correctly between dozens of servers across multiple datacenter on different location?

    - by forestclown
    Currently our web applications contain a logic to check if the data sent to the web server is expired or not by comparing the timestamp of the data with the date/time of the server. Everything goes will, until some dude from data center accidentally modify one of the web server date/time and causes some disruptions in our web services. My managers are of course not happy with this, and said we shouldn't use timestamp to check expiry in the first place...anyway.... Network Time Protocol is implemented, because of data centers are spread across different continents so we have one NTP server in each data center. The servers within the data center will have cron jobs to check against the time with their NTP server from the same data center. If time is out of sync it will auto update the server date/time. But then with our managers not happy with it, and think it could still easily causes the same problem. e.g. what if someone accidentally modify the NTP date/time? what if all the NTP servers are out of sync with each other? which NTP servers we can really trust? and blah blah.. So my questions are: What are the current practice to sync date/time between servers across multiple data centers or locations? How does one manages time stamp between web apps? e.g. Server A send data (contain timestamp of Server A) to Server B (compare timestamp between Server B and the timestamp from the data to see if it has expired or not. This is to avoid HTTP replay) Should we really not use timestamp check? Thanks & Best Regards

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  • What is the best way/Software to manage multiple short lived instances of virtual machines ?

    - by Newtopian
    Hi, We have a QA department that have to test our software on multiple combination of OS and DMBS. With Windows spewing out many different versions the combinatorial math of all this can be daunting. So we decided on visualizing our setups but so far it only displaces the problem. The cost of hardware is expensive and we need many different combination far exceeding your server capacity to deliver. Also, these instances are throw away, once the test is complete we no longer need it, furthermore to ensure proper test isolation we should start fresh from a new instance. Lastly we only need a small subset of these system online at any given time. What I am looking for is a way to manage inventory so that our QA staff can order instances to be put online as required and discarded once used. Instances are spawned from a pool of freshly installed systems with the appropriate combination ready to accept our software. It also should be possible for two or more people to start the same instance at the same time, though we could manage without this if it proves too complex to put in place. Finally our budget is pretty thin, we can probably make some purchases but ideally expenditures should be kept to a minimum. To summarize we should be able to : Bring instances online on demand. Ideally should offer queue and scheduling management Destroy instances on demand Keep masters in inventory but not online. Manage large inventory of VMs (30-100 maybe more) with small staff of users (5-10). Allow adding, deleting and changing instances from inventory (bring online, make changes and check back in, or create new and check in). Allow few long lived instances for support tools (normal VM server usage) Thanks for your answers

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  • Can I use multiple URLs in the URL field of KeePass?

    - by Sammy
    I am using KeePass version 2.19. What I would like to do is have more than just one URL address associated with a given user name and password. The entry for a given website might look something like this... Title google User Name email Password pass URL https://accounts.google.com/ServiceLogin?hl=en&continue=https://www.google.com/ https://accounts.google.com/ServiceLogin?hl=sv&continue=https://www.google.com/ https://accounts.google.com/ServiceLogin?hl=de&continue=https://www.google.com/ As you can see the ?hl=en changes into ?hl=sv and then to ?hl=de for the three different languages in which I wish to view the Google log-in page. But this of course could be something completely different, like different web services from the same provider like YouTube and Gmail by Google. Very much like SE where you have several websites but only use one user name and password. I imagine something along the lines of having multiple entries for one and the same website, where KeePass would actually prompt you to choose which one you want to use. So you have several user names and passwords that use the same URL. But is it possible to have several URLs using the same user name and password, so that KeePass asks me "to which of the following three URLs do you want to auto-log into with this password"?

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  • How do I run multiple MVC apps within a subdomain on IIS7?

    - by Matthew Patrick Cashatt
    Hello and thanks for looking. Background I am currently wrapping up a development contract and the client would like for me to push a build of the application to their IIS 7-based server in which they would like to run multiple MVC apps. One of the issues I have off of the bat is that this server is already a subdomain on their larger network. So, if I enter SERVERNAME in my browser, it automatically directs to SERVERNAME.COMPANYNAME.COM. Now, this is just fine if I place my application in the default website/root. In this scenario, clicking a link that requests admin.html directs to `SERVERNAME.COMPANYNAME.COM/admin.html' as usual. BUT they want me to place the app in a subdomain on this server so that they can also run other apps on the same server. So I assume that I need MYAPP.SERVERNAME.COMPANYNAME.COM but I have no idea how to do that. Complicating matters is that my app and the future ones they wish to install are all MVC based which intercepts and re-writes URLs. I assume that this takes care of itself if I can just successfully get my app into a subdomain to begin with. What I have tried Creating a new site on the server in it's own app pool Setting the binding for that site to MYAPP.SERVERNAME.COMPANYNAME.COM Setting the binding for that site to MYAPP Setting the binding for that site to MYAPP.SERVERNAME Setting the binding for that site to MYAPP.SERVERNAME.COM Setting the binding for that site to MYAPP.COMPANYNAME.COM Nothing is working. Am I missing something simple here? Thanks, Matt

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  • How can one select an application to switch to in task switcher with track pad (MacBook Pro, Mac OS

    - by index
    Three finger swipe left/right - Task switcher shows up (a horizontal bar with app symbols). Two finger swipe - highlights an icon and shows app name. ?? - switches to highlighted app. Since the highlighting is independent of the mouse cursor, a click doesn't work here without moving the mouse cursor. But I don't want this (locate mouse cursor, move the extra mile..). Maybe Better Touch Tool allows to configure a click to act as SPACE or RETURN in the task switcher? But how did Apple intend to use this?

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