Search Results

Search found 40650 results on 1626 pages for 'multiple select'.

Page 348/1626 | < Previous Page | 344 345 346 347 348 349 350 351 352 353 354 355  | Next Page >

  • mysql: select ... where id = any value. is it possible?

    - by Syom
    look at this table please table |id| |name| |order| i must get the rows, where name = something and order = somevalue so i write select `id` from `table` where `name` = 'something' and `order` = 'somevalue' but depend on php logic, sometimes i need to get all rows, where name = somethimg, independently of order value. i don't want to change the query structure, because in practise there are many number of fields, and possible count of queries will became very big. so i want to save the structure of query, and when i need to select just by name, i want to write something like this select `id` from `table` where `name` = 'something' and `order` = any value is it possible? maybe the question is incomprehensible, at least i tried;) sorry for bad english thanks

    Read the article

  • How to have multiple instances of jQuery plugin on single page?

    - by James Skidmore
    I'm writing a simple jQuery plugin, but I'm having trouble being able to use multiple instances on a page. For instance, here is a sample plugin to illustrate my point: (function($) { $.fn.samplePlugin = function(options) { if (typeof foo != 'undefined') { alert('Already defined!'); } else { var foo = 'bar'; } }; })(jQuery); And then if I do this: $(document).ready(function(){ $('#myDiv').samplePlugin({}); // does nothing $('#myDiv2').samplePlugion({}); // alerts "Already defined!" }); This is obviously an over-simplified example to get across the point. So my question is, how do I have two separate instances of the plugin? I'd like to be able to use it across multiple instances on the same page. I'm guessing that part of the problem might be with defining the variables in a global scope. How can I define them unique to that instance of the plugin then? Thank you for your guidance!

    Read the article

  • Using mod-rewrite to conditionally select existing file in a subdirectory based on Host header?

    - by Kevin Hakanson
    I'm working through a problem where I want to select a different static content file based on the incoming Host header. The simple example is a mapping from URLs to files like this: www.example.com/images/logo.gif - \images\logo.gif skin2.example.com/images/logo.gif - \images\skin2\logo.gif skin3.example.com/images/logo.gif - \images\skin3logo.gif I have this working with the following RewriteRules, but I don't like how I have to repeat myself so much. Each host has the same set of rules, and each RewriteCond and RewriteRule has the same path. I'd like to use the RewriteMap, but I don't know how to use it to map the %{HTTP_HOST} to the path. <VirtualHost *:80> DocumentRoot "C:/Program Files/Apache Software Foundation/Apache2.2/htdocs" ServerName www.example.com ServerAlias skin2.example.com ServerAlias skin3.example.com RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} skin2.example.com RewriteCond %{DOCUMENT_ROOT}$1/skin2/$2 -f RewriteRule ^(.*)/(.*) $1/skin2/$2 [L] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} skin3.example.com RewriteCond %{DOCUMENT_ROOT}$1/skin3/$2 -f RewriteRule ^(.*)/(.*) $1/skin3/$2 [L] </VirtualHost> The concept behind the rules is if the same filename exists in a subdirectory for that host, use it instead of the direct targeted file. This uses host based subdirectories at the lowest level, and not a top level subdirectory to separate content.

    Read the article

  • Application Design: Single vs. Multiple Hits to the DB

    - by shyneman
    I'm building a service that performs a set of configured activities based on the type of request that it receives. Each activity involves going to the database and retrieving/updating some kind of information. The logic for each activity can be generalized and re-used across different request types. The activities may need to participate in a transaction for the duration of the servicing the request. One option, I'm considering is having each activity maintain its own access to DAL/database. This fully encapsulates the activity into a stand-alone re-usable piece, but hitting the database multiple times for one request doesn't seem like a viable option. I don't really know how to easily implement the concept of a transaction across the multiple activities here either. The second option is to encapsulate ALL the activities into one big activity and hit the database once. But this does not allow re-use and configuration of these activities for different requests. Does anyone have any suggestions and input about what should be the best way to approach my problem? Thanks for any help.

    Read the article

  • Removing "Using temporary; Using filesort" from this MySQL select+join+group by query

    - by claytontstanley
    I have the following query: select t.Chunk as LeftChunk, t.ChunkHash as LeftChunkHash, q.Chunk as RightChunk, q.ChunkHash as RightChunkHash, count(t.ChunkHash) as ChunkCount from chunksubset as t join chunksubset as q on t.ID = q.ID group by LeftChunkHash, RightChunkHash And the following explain table: id select_type table type possible_keys key key_len ref rows Extra 1 SIMPLE subsets ref PRIMARY,IDIndex,SubsetIndex SubsetIndex 767 const 522014 "Using where; Using temporary; Using filesort" 1 SIMPLE subsets eq_ref PRIMARY,IDIndex,SubsetIndex PRIMARY 771 sotero.subsets.Id,const 1 "Using where; Using index" 1 SIMPLE c ref IDIndex IDIndex 4 sotero.subsets.Id 12 "Using where" 1 SIMPLE c ref IDIndex IDIndex 4 sotero.subsets.Id 12 note the "using temporary; using filesort". When this query is run, I quickly run out of RAM (presumably b/c of the temp table), and then the HDD kicks in, and the query slows to a halt. I thought it might be an index issue, so I started adding a few that sort of made sense: Table Non_unique Key_name Seq_in_index Column_name Collation Cardinality Sub_part Packed Null Index_type Comment Index_comment chunks 0 PRIMARY 1 ChunkId A 17796190 NULL NULL BTREE chunks 1 ChunkHashIndex 1 ChunkHash A 243783 NULL NULL BTREE chunks 1 IDIndex 1 Id A 1483015 NULL NULL BTREE chunks 1 ChunkIndex 1 Chunk A 243783 NULL NULL BTREE chunks 1 ChunkTypeIndex 1 ChunkType A 2 NULL NULL BTREE chunks 1 chunkHashByChunkIDIndex 1 ChunkHash A 243783 NULL NULL BTREE chunks 1 chunkHashByChunkIDIndex 2 ChunkId A 17796190 NULL NULL BTREE chunks 1 chunkHashByChunkTypeIndex 1 ChunkHash A 243783 NULL NULL BTREE chunks 1 chunkHashByChunkTypeIndex 2 ChunkType A 261708 NULL NULL BTREE chunks 1 chunkHashByIDIndex 1 ChunkHash A 243783 NULL NULL BTREE chunks 1 chunkHashByIDIndex 2 Id A 17796190 NULL NULL BTREE But still using the temporary table. The db engine is MyISAM. How can I get rid of the using temporary; using filesort in this query? Just changing to InnoDB w/o explaining the underlying cause is not a particularly satisfying answer. Besides, if the solution is to just add the proper index, then that's much easier than migrating to another db engine.

    Read the article

  • How to mark multiple coordinates in KML using Java?

    - by Akshay
    I'm working on a project that involves KML creation using Java. Currently, I'm fooling with the sample Java code from the KML example at Micromata Labs JAK Example. I tried to "extend" the code by adding multiple coordinates and getting two markers, but I could not get it to work. Can you please tell me how I can add multiple coordinates and put markers on them, and also, draw a line between the markers. Thank you for your help! PS: I need to do this via the program. I saw sample code of them using DOM and XML, but not pure Java/JAK as such. Please guide me. I got as far as this: kml .createAndSetDocument().withName("My Markers"). createAndAddPlacemark().withName("London, UK").withOpen(Boolean.TRUE) .createAndSetPoint().addToCoordinates(-0.126236, 51.500152); kml.createAndSetPlacemark() .withName("Somewhere near London, UK").withOpen(Boolean.TRUE) .createAndSetPoint().addToCoordinates(-0.129800,52.700152); But I know I'm going wrong somewhere. Please point me in the right direction.

    Read the article

  • Generated sql from LINQ to SQL

    - by Muhammad Kashif Nadeem
    Following code ProductPricesDataContext db = new ProductPricesDataContext(); var products = from p in db.Products where p.ProductFields.Count > 3 select new { ProductIDD = p.ProductId, ProductName = p.ProductName.Contains("hotel"), NumbeOfProd = p.ProductFields.Count, totalFields = p.ProductFields.Sum(o => o.FieldId + o.FieldId) }; Generated follwing sql SELECT [t0].[ProductId] AS [ProductIDD], (CASE WHEN [t0].[ProductName] LIKE '%hotel%' THEN 1 WHEN NOT ([t0].[ProductName] LIKE '%hotel%') THEN 0 ELSE NULL END) AS [ProductName], ( SELECT COUNT(*) FROM [dbo].[ProductField] AS [t2] WHERE [t2].[ProductId] = [t0].[ProductId] ) AS [NumbeOfProd], ( SELECT SUM([t3].[FieldId] + [t3].[FieldId]) FROM [dbo].[ProductField] AS [t3] WHERE [t3].[ProductId] = [t0].[ProductId]) AS [totalFields] FROM [dbo].[Product] AS [t0] WHERE (( SELECT COUNT(*) FROM [dbo].[ProductField] AS [t1] WHERE [t1].[ProductId] = [t0].[ProductId] )) > 3 Why is this CASE statement for ProductName and because of this instead of ProductName i am just getting 0 in my result set. It should generate sql like following, (where ProductName like '%hotel%' SELECT [t0].[ProductId] AS [ProductIDD], [ProductName], ( SELECT COUNT(*) FROM [dbo].[ProductField] AS [t2] WHERE [t2].[ProductId] = [t0].[ProductId] ) AS [NumbeOfProd], ( SELECT SUM([t3].[FieldId] + [t3].[FieldId]) FROM [dbo].[ProductField] AS [t3] WHERE [t3].[ProductId] = [t0].[ProductId]) AS [totalFields] FROM [dbo].[Product] AS [t0] WHERE (( SELECT COUNT(*) FROM [dbo].[ProductField] AS [t1] WHERE [t1].[ProductId] = [t0].[ProductId] )) > 3 AND t0.ProductName like '%hotel%' Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Java sockets: multiple client threads on same port on same machine?

    - by espcorrupt
    I am new to Socket programming in Java and was trying to understand if the below code is not a wrong thing to do. My question is: Can I have multiple clients on each thread trying to connect to a server instance in the same program and expect the server to read and write data with isolation between clients" public class Client extends Thread { ... void run() { Socket socket = new Socket("localhost", 1234); doIO(socket); } } public class Server extends Thread { ... void run() { // serverSocket on "localhost", 1234 Socket clientSock = serverSocket.accept(); executor.execute(new ClientWorker(clientSock)); } } Now can I have multiple Client instances on different threads trying to connect on the same port of the current machine? For example, Server s = new Server("localhost", 1234); s.start(); Client[] c = new Client[10]; for (int i = 0; i < c.length; ++i) { c.start(); }

    Read the article

  • Why there is no scoped locks for multiple mutexes in C++0x or Boost.Thread?

    - by Vicente Botet Escriba
    C++0x thread library or Boost.thread define non-member variadic template function that lock all lock avoiding dead lock. template <class L1, class L2, class... L3> void lock(L1&, L2&, L3&...); While this function avoid help to deadlock, the standard do not includes the associated scoped lock to write exception safe code. { std::lock(l1,l2); // do some thing // unlock li l2 exception safe } That means that we need to use other mechanism as try-catch block to make exception safe code or define our own scoped lock on multiple mutexes ourselves or even do that { std::lock(l1,l2); std::unique_lock lk1(l1, std::adopted); std::unique_lock lk2(l2, std::adopted); // do some thing // unlock li l2 on destruction of lk1 lk2 } Why the standard doesn't includes a scoped lock on multiple mutexes of the same type, as for example { std::array_unique_lock<std::mutex> lk(l1,l2); // do some thing // unlock l1 l2 on destruction of lk } or tuples of mutexes { std::tuple_unique_lock<std::mutex, std::recursive_mutex> lk(l1,l2); // do some thing // unlock l1 l2 on destruction of lk } Is there something wrong on the design?

    Read the article

  • Update table without using cursor and on date

    - by Muhammad Kashif Nadeem
    Please copy and run following script DECLARE @Customers TABLE (CustomerId INT) DECLARE @Orders TABLE ( OrderId INT, CustomerId INT, OrderDate DATETIME ) DECLARE @Calls TABLE (CallId INT, CallTime DATETIME, CallToId INT, OrderId INT) ----------------------------------------------------------------- INSERT INTO @Customers SELECT 1 INSERT INTO @Customers SELECT 2 ----------------------------------------------------------------- INSERT INTO @Orders SELECT 10, 1, DATEADD(d, -20, GETDATE()) INSERT INTO @Orders SELECT 11, 1, DATEADD(d, -10, GETDATE()) ----------------------------------------------------------------- INSERT INTO @Calls SELECT 101, DATEADD(d, -19, GETDATE()), 1, NULL INSERT INTO @Calls SELECT 102, DATEADD(d, -17, GETDATE()), 1, NULL INSERT INTO @Calls SELECT 103, DATEADD(d, -9, GETDATE()), 1, NULL INSERT INTO @Calls SELECT 104, DATEADD(d, -6, GETDATE()), 1, NULL INSERT INTO @Calls SELECT 105, DATEADD(d, -5, GETDATE()), 1, NULL ----------------------------------------------------------------- I want to update @Calls table and need following results. I am using the following query UPDATE @Calls SET OrderId = ( CASE WHEN (s.CallTime > e.OrderDate) THEN e.OrderId END ) FROM @Calls s INNER JOIN @Orders e ON s.CallToId = e.CustomerId and the result of my query is not what I need. Requirement: As you can see there are two orders. One is on 2010-12-12 and one is on 2010-12-22. I want to update @Calls table with relevant OrderId with respect to CallTime. In short If subsequent Orders are added, and there are further calls then we assume that a new call is associated with the most recent Order Note: This is sample data so this is not the case that I always have two Orders. There might be 10+ Orders and 100+ calls. Note2 I could not find good title for this question. Please change it if you think of any better. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How to deploy to multiple redundant production servers with "cap deploy"?

    - by Chad Johnson
    Capistrano is working great to deploy to a single server. However, I have multiple production API servers for my web application. When I deploy, my code needs to get deployed to every API server at once. Specifying each server manually is NOT the solution I am looking for (e.g. I don't want to do "cap api1 deploy; cap api2 deploy"). Is there a way, using Capistrano, to deploy to all servers at once, with just a simple "cap deploy"? I'm wondering what changes I would need to make to a typical deploy.rb file, whether I'd need to create a separate file for each server, and whether and how the Capfile would need to be changed. Also, I need to be able to specify a different deploy_to path for each server. And ideally, I wouldn't have to repeat things in different config files for different servers (eg. wouldn't have to specify :repository, :application, etc. multiple times). I have spent hours searching Google on this and looking through tutorials, but I have found nothing helpful. Here is a snippet from my current deploy.rb file: set :application, "testapplication" set :repository, "ssh://domain.com//srv/hg/#{application}" set :scm, :mercurial set :deploy_to, "/srv/www/#{application}" role :web, "domain.com" role :app, "domain.com" role :db, "domain.com", :primary => true, :norelease => true Should I just use the multistage extension and do this? task :deploy_everything do system "cap api1 deploy" system "cap api2 deploy" system "cap api2 deploy" end That could work, but I feel like this isn't what this extension is meant for...

    Read the article

  • How can I use SQL to select duplicate records, along with counts of related items?

    - by mipadi
    I know the title of this question is a bit confusing, so bear with me. :) I have a (MySQL) database with a Person record. A Person also has a slug field. Unfortunately, slug fields are not unique. There are a number of duplicate records, i.e., the records have different IDs but the same first name, last name, and slug. A Person may also have 0 or more associated articles, blog entries, and podcast episodes. If that's confusing, here's a diagram of the structure: I would like to produce a list of records that match this criteria: duplicate records (i.e., same slug field) for people who also have at least 1 article, blog entry, or podcast episode. I have a SQL query that will list all records with the same slug fields: SELECT id, first_name, last_name, slug, COUNT(slug) AS person_records FROM people_person GROUP BY slug HAVING (COUNT(slug) > 1) ORDER BY last_name, first_name, id; But this includes records for people that may not have at least 1 article, blog entry, or podcast. Can I tweak this to fit the second criteria?

    Read the article

  • NUnit - Multiple properties of the same name? Linking to requirements

    - by Ryan Ternier
    I'm linking all our our System Tests to test cases and to our Requirements. Every requirement has an ID. Every Test Case / System Tests tests a variety of requirements. Every module of code links to multiple requirements. I'm trying to find the best way to link every system test to its driving requirements. I was hoping to do something like: [NUnit.Framework.Property("Release", "6.0.0")] [NUnit.Framework.Property("Requirement", "FR50082")] [NUnit.Framework.Property("Requirement", "FR50084")] [NUnit.Framework.Property("Requirement", "FR50085")] [TestCase(....)] public void TestSomething(string a, string b...) However, that will break because Property is a Key-Value pair. The system will not allow me to have multiple Properties with the same key. The reason I'm wanting this is to be able to test specific requirements in our system if a module changes that touches these requirements. Rather than run over 1,000 system tests on every build, this would allow us to target what to test based on changes done to our code. Some system tests run upwards of 5 minutes (Enterprise healthcare system), so "Just run all of them" isn't a viable solution. We do that, but only before promoting through our environments. Thoughts?

    Read the article

  • The question about the basics of LINQ to SQL working

    - by Alex
    I just started learning LINQ to SQL, and so far I'm impressed with the easy of use and good performance. I used to think that when doing LINQ queries like from Customer in DB.Customers where Customer.Age > 30 select Customer Get all customers from the database ("SELECT * FROM Customers"), move them to the Customers array and then make a search in that Array using .NET methods. This is very inefficient, what if there are hundreds of thousands of customers in the database? Making such big SELECT queries would kill the web application. Now after experiencing how actually fast LINQ to SQL is, I start to suspect that when doing that query I just wrote, LINQ somehow converts it to a SQL Query string SELECT * FROM Customers WHERE Age > 30 And only when necessary it will run the query. So my question is: am I right? And when is the query actually run? The reason why I'm asking is not only because I want to understand how it works in order to build good optimized applications, but because I came across the following problem. I have 2 tables, one of them is Books, the other has information on how many books were sold on certain days. My goal is to select books that had at least 50 sales/day in past 10 days. It's done with this simple query: from Book in DB.Books where (from Sale in DB.Sales where Sale.SalesAmount >= 50 and Sale.DateOfSale >= DateTime.Now.AddDays(-10) select Sale.BookID).Contains(Book.ID) select Book The point is, I have to use the checking part in several queries and I decided to create an array with IDs of all popular books: var popularBooksIDs = from Sale in DB.Sales where Sale.SalesAmount >= 50 and Sale.DateOfSale >= DateTime.Now.AddDays(-10) select Sale.BookID; BUT when I try to do the query now: from Book in DB.Books where popularBooksIDs.Contains(Book.ID) select Book It doesn't work! That's why I think that we can't use thins kinds of shortcuts in LINQ to SQL queries, like we can't use them in real SQL. We have to create straightforward queries, am I right?

    Read the article

  • Multiple exports with MEF does some really heinous stuff -- why, and why is it allowed?

    - by Dave
    I have an interesting situation where I need to do something like this: [Export[typeof(ICandy1)] [Export[typeof(ICandy2)] public class Candy : ICandy2 { ... } where public interface ICandy1 { ... } public interface ICandy2 : ICandy1 { ... } I couldn't find any posts anywhere regarding using multiple [Export] attributes, so I figured, what the hell, might as well try it. At first glance, it actually seemed to work. I have a couple of methods that call into both interfaces of a Candy instance, and it was fine. However, as I started to test the app, I saw that the behavior wasn't right, and when looking at the Output window, I saw that I was getting tons of COMExceptions. I couldn't track down where they were all coming from, but they always occurred when a worker thread was sleeping. I figured that it had to be from the main thread, then, but didn't know how to debug this at all. Nothing should have been going on in the GUI, and I disabled my DispatchTimers just in case -- same thing. Even more strange than the COMExceptions was the really, really erratic behavior when stepping through code. About 30% of the time, when I single stepped, it would pop out of the method, or it would single step over two lines of code! Totally weird stuff that I am not used to seeing. The only thing that changed between working and non-working code was the introduction of MEF through my plugin loading code. So as a test, I changed my plugin assembly to only export one interface, and I hardcoded everything in the app that relied on the other (now not-implemented) interface. And now the COMExceptions are gone, and the weird debugging behavior is gone. Is this something people here have seen before? If MEF is not expected to allow a class to Export multiple interfaces, then shouldn't a CompositionException get raised when composing the parts? Can anyone explain why MEF would cause these weird problems???

    Read the article

  • Multiple XML/XSLT files in PHP, transform one with XSLT and add others but process it first with PHP

    - by ipalaus
    I am processing XML files transformations with XSLT in PHP correctly. Actually I use this code: $xml = new DOMDocument; $xml->LoadXML($xml_contents); $xsl = new DOMDocument; $xsl->load($xsl_file); $proc = new XSLTProcesoor; $proc->importStyleSheet($xsl); echo $proc->transformToXml($xml); $xml_contents is the XML processed with PHP, this is done by including the XML file first and then assigning $xml_contents = ob_get_contents(); ob_end_clean();. This forces to process the PHP code on the XML, and it works perfectly. My problem is that I use more than one XML file and this XML files has PHP code on it that need to be processed AND have a XSLT file associated to process the data. Actually I'm including this files in XSLT with the next code: <!-- First I add the XML file --> <xsl:param name="menu" select="document('menu.xml')" /> <!-- Next I add the transformations for menu.xml file --> <xsl:include href="menu.xsl" /> <!-- Finally, I process it on the actual ("parent") XML --> <xsl:apply-templates select="$menu/menu" /> My questiion is how I can handle this. I need to add mutiple XML(+XSLT) files to my first XML file that will containt PHP so it needs to be processed. Thank you in advance!

    Read the article

  • How do I strip multiple (optional) parts of a SQL string using .NET Regular Expressions?

    - by Luc
    I've been working on this for a few hours now and can't find any help on it. Basically, I'm trying to strip a SQL string into various parts (fields, from, where, having, groupBy, orderBy). I refuse to believe that I'm the first person to ever try to do this, so I'd like to ask for some advise from the StackOverflow community. :) To understand what I need, assume the following SQL string: select * from table1 inner join table2 on table1.id = table2.id where field1 = 'sam' having table1.field3 > 0 group by table1.field4 order by table1.field5 I created a regular expression to group the parts accordingly: select\s+(?<fields>.+)\s+from\s+(?<from>.+)\s+where\s+(?<where>.+)\s+having\s+(?<having>.+)\s+group\sby\s+(?<groupby>.+)\s+order\sby\s+(?<orderby>.+) This gives me the following results: fields => * from => table1 inner join table2 on table1.id = table2.id where => field1 = 'sam' having => table1.field3 > 0 groupby => table1.field4 orderby => table1.field5 The problem that I'm faced with is that if any part of the SQL string is missing after the 'from' clause, the regular expression doesn't match. To fix that, I've tried putting each optional part in it's own (...)? group but that doesn't work. It simply put all the optional parts (where, having, groupBy, and orderBy) into the 'from' group. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • How to join multiple tables using LINQ-to-SQL?

    - by user603245
    Hi! I'm quite new to linq, so please bear with me. I'm working on a asp.net webpage and I want to add a "search function" (textbox where user inputs name or surname or both or just parts of it and gets back all related information). I have two tables ("Person" and "Application") and I want to display some columns from Person (name and surname) and some from Application (score, position,...). I know how I could do it using sql, but I want to learn more about linq and thus I want to do it using linq. For now I got two main ideas: 1.) var person = dataContext.GetTable<Person>(); var application = dataContext.GetTable<Application>(); var p1 = from p in Person where(p.Name.Contains(tokens[0]) || p.Surname.Contains(tokens[1])) select new {Id = p.Id, Name = p.Name, Surname = p.Surname}; //or maybe without this line //I don't know how to do the following properly var result = from a in Application where a.FK_Application.Equals(index) //just to get the "right" type of application //this is not right, but I don't know how to do it better join p1 on p1.Id == a.FK_Person 2.) The other idea is just to go through "Application" and instead of "join p1 ..." to use var result = from a in Application where a.FK_Application.Equals(index) //just to get the "right" type of application join p from Person on p.Id == a.FK_Person where p.Name.Contains(tokens[0]) || p.Surname.Contains(tokens[1]) I think that first idea is better for queries without the first "where" condition, which I also intended to use. Regardless of what is better (faster), I still don't know how to do it using linq. Also in the end I wanted to display / select just some parts (columns) of the result (joined tables + filtering conditions). I really want to know how to do such things using linq as I'll be dealing also with some similar problems with local data, where I can use only linq. Could somebody please explain me how to do it, I spent days trying to figure it out and searching on the internet for answers. Thank you for your time.

    Read the article

  • please check my MYSQL query & give me advice?

    - by Suba
    select s.s_nric as NRIC,s.s_name as NAME,s.s_psle_eng as PSLE_ENG,s.s_psle_math as PSLE_MATHS,s.s_psle_aggr as PSLE_AGGR, (SELECT re.re_mark FROM si_results re WHERE re.re_code like 'FEEN%' AND re.re_year='2008' AND re.re_semester='2' AND re.re_nric=s.s_nric ) as English_2008, (SELECT re.re_mark FROM si_results re WHERE re.re_code like 'FEMA%' AND re.re_year='2008' AND re.re_semester='2' AND re.re_nric=s.s_nric ) Maths_2008, (SELECT re.re_mark FROM si_results re WHERE re.re_code like 'FEEN%' AND re.re_year='2009' AND re.re_semester='2' AND re.re_nric=s.s_nric ) as English_2009, (SELECT re.re_mark FROM si_results re WHERE re.re_code like 'FEMA%' AND re.re_year='2009' AND re.re_semester='2' AND re.re_nric=s.s_nric ) Maths_2009 ,isc.isc_g_gpa as ISC_GPA from si_student_data as s LEFT JOIN si_isc_gpa as isc ON isc.isc_g_nric=s.s_nric where 1=1 AND s.s_admission_year='2008' GROUP BY s.s_nric ORDER BY s.s_gender,s.s_name asc This is my query. please check my sub query this is my sub query (SELECT re.re_mark FROM si_results re WHERE re.re_code like 'FEEN%' AND re.re_year='2008' AND re.re_semester='2' AND re.re_nric=s.s_nric ) as English_2008, (SELECT re.re_mark FROM si_results re WHERE re.re_code like 'FEMA%' AND re.re_year='2008' AND re.re_semester='2' AND re.re_nric=s.s_nric ) Maths_2008, (SELECT re.re_mark FROM si_results re WHERE re.re_code like 'FEEN%' AND re.re_year='2009' AND re.re_semester='2' AND re.re_nric=s.s_nric ) as English_2009, (SELECT re.re_mark FROM si_results re WHERE re.re_code like 'FEMA%' AND re.re_year='2009' AND re.re_semester='2' AND re.re_nric=s.s_nric ) Maths_2009 When I execute my query, server take long time to execute. So how to make simple? please advice me. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • What's a good way to do testing a plug-in on multiple Windows and Outlook versions?

    - by Andrei
    Hello, We're building a plug-in for Outlook that should work on multiple Windows versions (XP, Vista, 7) and also with different Outlook versions (2003, 2007, 2010). The testing problem I am facing right now, is that I can't figure out a good/convenient/thorough way to test the application on multiple Windows and Outlook versions. At the moment, I have a VirtualBox which runs many virtual machines, with different Windows versions and Outlook versions. So I would have a virtual machine with Windows 7 testing Outlook 2010, and another one with Windows 7 testing Outlook 2007, Windows Vista with Outlook 2010 and so on, going through some of the possible combinations. It kind of gets the job done, although it is cumbersome and takes a long time to test. Some of the testing included in the application is unit testing, but this is also rather tied in with the machine I test it on (windows 7 with outlook 2010). For example, I was using ManagementObject recently, which worked fine on my system (and thus passed the unit test for that method), however, using that object threw an exception in another person's system, which crashed the application. I work on Visual Studio 2010 Ultimate. The questions: Is there a more elegant way to make the testing process more streamline and more efficient? Any other testing methods you recommend? How would you deal with this problem? Thanks! Looking forward to your replies.

    Read the article

  • SELECT product from subclass: How many queries do I need?

    - by Stefano
    I am building a database similar to the one described here where I have products of different type, each type with its own attributes. I report a short version for convenience product_type ============ product_type_id INT product_type_name VARCHAR product ======= product_id INT product_name VARCHAR product_type_id INT -> Foreign key to product_type.product_type_id ... (common attributes to all product) magazine ======== magazine_id INT title VARCHAR product_id INT -> Foreign key to product.product_id ... (magazine-specific attributes) web_site ======== web_site_id INT name VARCHAR product_id INT -> Foreign key to product.product_id ... (web-site specific attributes) This way I do not need to make a huge table with a column for each attribute of different product types (most of which will then be NULL) How do I SELECT a product by product.product_id and see all its attributes? Do I have to make a query first to know what type of product I am dealing with and then, through some logic, make another query to JOIN the right tables? Or is there a way to join everything together? (if, when I retrieve the information about a product_id there are a lot of NULL, it would be fine at this point). Thank you

    Read the article

  • jQuery select image in div if image parent does't have a certain class.

    - by Alex
    Wordpress wraps images with captions in a div with a class of .wp-caption. I'm looking for a way to select images that don't have this div so I can wrap them in different div. (to keep a consistent border around all the images) <div class="blog-post-content"> <div id="attachment_220" class="wp-caption alignleft" style="width: 310px"> <a href="/somewhere/"><img class="size-medium wp-image-220" src="/path/to/image" alt="" width="300" height="280" /></a> <p class="wp-caption-text">Caption Text</p> </div> <p>This is the body of the post</p> </div> To test my selector, I'm just trying to add a green border. I can handle the .wrap() once the selector is working. The most promising of my attempts is: $('.blog-post-content img').parent('div:not(".wp-caption")').css('border', '2px solid green'); ... but no luck.

    Read the article

  • How To Select First Ancestor That Matches A Selector?

    - by Zach
    General: How can I select the first matching ancestor of an element in jQuery? Example: Take this HTML block <table> <tbody> <tr> <td> <a href="#" class="remove">Remove</a> </td> </tr> <tr> <td> <a href="#" class="remove">Remove</a> </td> </tr> </tbody> </table> I can remove a row in the table by clicking "Remove" using this jQuery code: $('.remove').click(function(){ $(this).parent().parent().hide(); return false; }); This works, but it's pretty fragile. If someone puts the <a> into a <div>, for example, it would break. Is there a selector syntax in jQuery that follows this logic: "Here's an element, now find the closest ancestor that matches some selection criteria and return it" Thanks

    Read the article

  • Create a new site programmatically and select parent site? (SharePoint)

    - by peter
    Hi, I am using the following code to create a new site: newWeb = SPContext.GetContext(HttpContext.Current).Web.Webs.Add(newSiteUrl, newSiteName, null, (uint)1033, siteTemplate, true, false); try { newWeb.Update(); } NewSiteUrl and newSiteName are values from two textboxes and on whichever site I use this code (in a web part) the new site will be a subsite to this site. I would now like to be able to select a parent site so that the new site can sit anywhere in the site collection, not just as a subsite to the site where I use the web part. I created the following function to get all the sites in the site collection and populate a drop down with the name and url for every site private void getSites() { SPSite oSiteCollection = SPContext.Current.Site; SPWebCollection collWebsite = oSiteCollection.AllWebs; for (int i = 0; i < collWebsite.Count; i++) { ddlParentSite.Items.Add(new ListItem(collWebsite[i].Title, collWebsite[i].Url)); } oSiteCollection.Dispose(); } If the user selects a site in the dropdown, is it possible to use that URL in newSiteUrl so decide where the new site should be? I don't get it to work really and the new site still becomes a subsite to the current one. I guess it has to do with HttpContext.Current? Any ideas on how I should do it instead? It's the first time I write custom web parts and the sharepoint object model is a bit overwhelming at the moment. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Xpath query to select node when attribute does not exist? [closed]

    - by Antoine
    I want to select nodes for which a specific attribute does not exist. I've tried the Not() function, but it doesn't work. Is there a way for this? Example: The following Xpath query: group/msg[not(@owner)] Should retrieve the first node but not the 2nd one. However, both SketchPath (tool to test Xpath queries) and my C# code consider that the 2 nodes are ok. <group> <msg id="EVENTDATA_CCFLOADED_XMLCONTEXT" numericId="14026" translate="False" topicId="302" status="translated" > <text>Context</text> <comment></comment> </msg> <msg id="EVENTDATA_CCFLOADED_XMLCONTEXT_HELP" numericId="14027" translate="False" topicId="302" status="translated" owner="EVENTDATA_CCFLOADED_XMLCONTEXT" > <text>Provides the new data displayed in the Object.</text> <comment></comment> </msg> </group> In fact the Not() function works correctly, it's just that I had other conditions and parentheses weren't set correctly. errare humanum est.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 344 345 346 347 348 349 350 351 352 353 354 355  | Next Page >