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  • Coding style in .NET: whether to refactor into new method or not?

    - by Dione
    Hi As you aware, in .NET code-behind style, we already use a lot of function to accommodate those _Click function, _SelectedIndexChanged function etc etc. In our team there are some developer that make a function in the middle of .NET function, for example: public void Button_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) {     some logic here..     some logic there..     DoSomething();     DoSomethingThere();     another logic here..     DoOtherSomething(); } private void DoSomething() { } private void DoSomethingThere() { } private void DoOtherSomething() { } public void DropDown_SelectedIndexChanged() { } public void OtherButton_Click() { } and the function listed above is only used once in that function and not used anywhere else in the page, or called from other part of the solution. They said it make the code more tidier by grouping them and extract them into additional sub-function. I can understand if the sub-function is use over and over again in the code, but if it is only use once, then I think it is not really a good idea to extract them into sub-function, as the code getting bigger and bigger, when you look into the page and trying to understand the logic or to debug by skimming through line by line, it will make you confused by jumping from main function to the sub-function then to main function and to sub-function again. I know this kind of grouping by method is better when you writing old ASP or Cold fusion style, but I am not sure if this kind of style is better for .NET or not. Question is: which is better when you developing .NET, is grouping similar logic into a sub-method better (although they only use once), or just put them together inside main function and add //explanation here on the start of the logic is better? Hope my question is clear enough. Thanks.

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  • Java: "cannot find symbol" error of a String[] defined within a while-loop

    - by David
    Here's the relevant code: public static String[] runTeams (String CPUcolor) { boolean z = false ; //String[] a = new String[6] ; boolean CPU = false ; while (z == false) { while (CPU==false) { String[] a = assignTeams () ; printOrder (a) ; for (int i = 1; i<a.length; i++) { if (a[i].equals(CPUcolor)) CPU = true ; } if (CPU==false) { System.out.println ("ERROR YOU NEED TO INCLUDE THE COLOR OF THE CPU IN THE TURN ORDER") ; } } System.out.println ("is this turn order correct? (Y/N)") ; String s = getIns () ; while (!((s.equals ("y")) || (s.equals ("Y")) || (s.equals ("n")) || (s.equals ("N")))) { System.out.println ("try again") ; s = getIns () ; } if (s.equals ("y") || s.equals ("Y") ) z = true ; } return a ; } the error i get is: Risk.java:416: cannot find symbol symbol : variable a location: class Risk return a ; ^ Why did i get this error? It seems that a is clearly defined in the line String[] a = assignTeams () ; and if anything is used by the lineprintOrder (a) ;` it seems to me that if the symbol a really couldn't be found then the compiler should blow up there and not at the return statment. (also the method assignTeams returns an array of Strings.)

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  • What's the point of indicating AllowMultiple=false on an abstract Attribute class?

    - by tvanfosson
    On a recent question about MVC attributes, someone asked whether using HttpPost and HttpDelete attributes on an action method would result in either request type being allowed or no requests being allowed (since it can't be both a Post and a Delete at the same time). I noticed that ActionMethodSelectorAttribute, from which HttpPostAttribute and HttpDeleteAttribute both derive is decorated with [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Method, AllowMultiple = false, Inherited = true)] I had expected it to not allow both HttpPost and HttpDelete on the same method because of this, but the compiler doesn't complain. My limited testing tells me that the attribute usage on the base class is simply ignored. AllowMultiple seemingly only disallows two of the same attribute from being applied to a method/class and doesn't seem to consider whether those attributes derive from the same class which is configured to not allow multiples. Moreover, the attribute usage on the base class doesn't even preclude your from changing the attribute usage on a derived class. That being the case, what's the point of even setting the values on the base attribute class? Is it just advisory or am I missing something fundamental in how they work? FYI - it turns out that using both basically precludes that method from ever being considered. The attributes are evaluated independently and one of them will always indicate that the method is not valid for the request since it can't simultaneously be both a Post and a Delete.

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  • Silverlight ~ MVVM ~ Dynamic setting of Style property based on model value

    - by eponymous23
    I have a class called Question that represents a question and it's answer. I have an application that renders an ObservableCollection of Question objects. Each Question is rendered as a StackPanel that contains a TextBlock for the question verbiage, and a TextBox for the user to enter in an answer. The questions are rendered using an ItemsControl, and I have initially set the Style of the Questions's StackPanel using a StaticResource key called 'IncorrectQuestion' (defined in UserControl.Resources section of the page). In the UserControl.Resources section, I've also defined a key calld 'CorrectQuestion' which I need to somehow apply to the Question's StackPanel when the user correctly answers the question. My problem is I'm not sure how to dynamically change the Style of the StackPanel, specifically within the constraints of a ViewModel class (i.e. I don't want to put any style selection code in the View's code-behind). My Question class has an IsCorrect property which is accurately being set when the correction is answered. I'd like to somehow reflect the IsCorrect value in the form of a Style selection. How do I do that?

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  • What is good about php/what is php good for?

    - by Roman A. Taycher
    I have often seen php bashed around the webs as a loosely typed(loose typing as in a lot of type coercion and/or easy(and perhaps common) to cast object all over not dynamic typing) language without a great compiler/interpreter/vm, with even the standard library using a number of different naming conventions. A lot of people complain about perl but many (including a lot of the complainers) also give it a lot of credit for its regexes and general flexibility and power. Other then legacy code , giant web frameworks that can do tons(drupal,ect.), and easy cheap hosting what is good about php (,also what criticism are unfair, and how is the language evolving to overcome its problems). Why would i want to learn it? why would I want to do an independent project in it? The main thing I have heard is that its php codes simplicity is sometimes easier then the over-engineered complexity you find in certain Java frameworks and applications. I'm not just trolling, i'm genuinly curious what makes php programmers use it. try to convince me to put it on my languages to dabble in and languages to learn more in depth lists.

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  • How to make sure an action completes before you continue

    - by HurkNburkS
    I am trying to close a UIView thats in one method from another method by calling it, The UIView closes fine but not untill after all of the processes are finished in the current method. I would like to know if there is a way to force the first thing to happen first (i.e. close UIviews) then continue the current method? This is what my method looks like - (void)selectDeselectAllPressed:(UIButton*)button { int id = button.tag; [SVProgressHUD showWithStatus:@"Updating" maskType:SVProgressHUDMaskTypeGradient]; [self displaySelected]; // removes current view so you can load hud will not be behind it if (id == 1) { [self selectAllD]; } else if (id == 2) { [self deselectAllD]; } else if (id == 3) { [self selectAllI]; } else if (id == 4) { [self deselectAllI]; } } as you can see what happens is this method is called when a button is pressed, I would like for the displaySelected method to do what it needs to do before any of the other methods are called? Currently what happes when i debug this is displaySelected method is called the thread walks through that then continues to the if statment then after the method in the if statment has finished then displaySelected changes are made... its so weird. any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Is Maven really flexible?

    - by Dima
    I understand how Maven works with .java files in src/java/main. But may it be used for a more general case? Let us put it more abstract: Suppose I already have some a.exe that read some (not necessarily only .java) sources from directories A1, A2, A3 and puts some files (maybe some are generated .java) to directories B1, B2. I also have some b.exe that currently reads files from B1, B2, B3 and generates something else. Some more similar steps. (A real life problem stands behind). I would like to right POM.xml file so that maven will do this work. Is that possible? I assume that a.exe and b.exe should be warped as maven plugings. Next, in Maven docs I see : <build> <sourceDirectory>${basedir}/src/main/java</sourceDirectory> <scriptSourceDirectory>${basedir}/src/main/scripts</scriptSourceDirectory> <testSourceDirectory>${basedir}/src/test/java</testSourceDirectory> <outputDirectory>${basedir}/target/classes</outputDirectory> <testOutputDirectory>${basedir}/target/test-classes</testOutputDirectory> ... </build> What bothers me is that "sourceDirectory" looks by itself as a hard coded name. Will Maven accept A1 and A2 tags instead?

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  • Why can't these generic type parameters be inferred?

    - by Jon M
    Given the following interfaces/classes: public interface IRequest<TResponse> { } public interface IHandler<TRequest, TResponse> where TRequest : IRequest<TResponse> { TResponse Handle(TRequest request); } public class HandlingService { public TResponse Handle<TRequest, TResponse>(TRequest request) where TRequest : IRequest<TResponse> { var handler = container.GetInstance<IHandler<TRequest, TResponse>>(); return handler.Handle(request); } } public class CustomerResponse { public Customer Customer { get; set; } } public class GetCustomerByIdRequest : IRequest<CustomerResponse> { public int CustomerId { get; set; } } Why can't the compiler infer the correct types, if I try and write something like the following: var service = new HandlingService(); var request = new GetCustomerByIdRequest { CustomerId = 1234 }; var response = service.Handle(request); // Shouldn't this know that response is going to be CustomerResponse? I just get the 'type arguments cannot be inferred' message. Is this a limitation with generic type inference in general, or is there a way to make this work?

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  • Choose 'better' or more familiar technologies for a new project?

    - by John
    I am looking to start work on a brand-new project, something I've been thinking about for a while as my first independent sellable project. It's broadly speaking a web-based service application, and my first choice, server-language is quite easy... I know Java pretty well from working on Java web-apps in the past. However my experience doing web-apps involved JSP, Servlets and JSTL... I know the ideas behind newer technologies like Hibernate/Spring but have never used them. So we wrote our own DAOs, handled AJAX by writing special mini-JSP pages that generated XML/JSON pages, etc. I'm not hugely into the idea that Spring/Hibernate are the 'only' or 'right' way to do any Java web-project, but they are widely used. On the other hand, not only would trying to learn these increase initial development time, but I'd be using my learning attempts to build a production system. I remember one of Joel's early articles said (I'll paraphrase since I can't find it) "regardless what's cool, always use the technologies that the lead developer (or dev team?) knows best" I wondered what people thought about that? ps: should this be CW?

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  • Java getMethod with subclass parameter

    - by SelectricSimian
    I'm writing a library that uses reflection to find and call methods dynamically. Given just an object, a method name, and a parameter list, I need to call the given method as though the method call were explicitly written in the code. I've been using the following approach, which works in most cases: static void callMethod(Object receiver, String methodName, Object[] params) { Class<?>[] paramTypes = new Class<?>[params.length]; for (int i = 0; i < param.length; i++) { paramTypes[i] = params[i].getClass(); } receiver.getClass().getMethod(methodName, paramTypes).invoke(receiver, params); } However, when one of the parameters is a subclass of one of the supported types for the method, the reflection API throws a NoSuchMethodException. For example, if the receiver's class has testMethod(Foo) defined, the following fails: receiver.getClass().getMethod("testMethod", FooSubclass.class).invoke(receiver, new FooSubclass()); even though this works: receiver.testMethod(new FooSubclass()); How do I resolve this? If the method call is hard-coded there's no issue - the compiler just uses the overloading algorithm to pick the best applicable method to use. It doesn't work with reflection, though, which is what I need. Thanks in advance!

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  • How can I be a Guru? Is it possible? [closed]

    - by Kev
    Before 1999, I heard about computer. But, I don't know what it look like. TV? Maybe! Before 2001, I only saw it in book. It looks like a TV. Before 2005, I touched it in reality. It still looks like a TV + Black Box. In 2005, I entered university. I had a cource about Mathematica.I loved programming since then. In 2006, I owned a computer. I was coding C every day. if...else..., for..., while..., switch... entered my life. Since 2007, I have learned Data Structures, Algorithms...Then, C#, Java, Python, HTML/CSS/JavaScript, F#... A lot of languages. I'm still learning new lang. Unfortunately, I only know syntax! I'm always a novice(??)! I know some guru start programming at age of 8 or 12. I admire these gurus who are compiler writers, language designers, architecture designers, Linux hackers... Is it possible to become a guru like me. If possible, how? what should I do now? Any advice? Thank you very much.

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  • Passing huge amounts of data as an hexadecimal (0x123AB...) parameter of a clr stored procedure in s

    - by user193655
    I post this question has followup of This question, since the thread is not recieving more answers. I'm trying to understand if it is possible to pass as a parameter of a CLR stored procedure a large amount of data as "0x5352532F...". This is to avoid to send the data directly to the CLR stored procedure, instead of sending ti to a temporary DB field and from there passing it as varbinary(max) parmeter to the CLR stored procedure. I have a triple question: 1) is it possible, if yes how? Let's say i want to pass a pdf file to the CLR stored procedure (not the path, the full bits that make up the file). Something like: exec MyCLRStoredProcs.dbo.insertfile @file_remote_path ='c:\temp\test_file.txt' , @file_contents=0x4D5A90000300000004000.... --(this long list is the file content) where insertfile is a stored proc that writes to the server path (at file_remote_path) the binary data I pass as (file_contents). 2) is it there corruption risk of adopting this approach (or it is the same approach that sql server uses behind the scenes)? 3) how to convert the content of a file into the "0x23423..." hexadecimal representation

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  • Manipulate method functionality call

    - by danrichardson
    Hello, is it possibly in c# to have some sort of base class functionality which is manipulated slightly based on the class. For instance say i have the following code (which will quite obviously not compile it's meant to only be for demonstrative purposes) class BaseFunctionality { public virtual bool adminCall public static string MethodName(int id, string parameter) { if (adminCall) return dbcall.Execute(); else return dbcall.ExecuteMe(); } } class Admin : BaseFunctionality { override bool adminCall = true; } class Front : BaseFunctionality { override bool adminCall = false; } Now what i would like to be able to do is; string AdminCall = Admin.MethodName(1, "foo"); string FrontCall = Front.MethodName(2, "bar"); Is their any way to do something like this? I'm trying to do everything with static methods so i do not have to instantiate classes all the time, and have nice clean code which is only being manipulated in one place. The idea behind this is so that there is minimal code repeating and makes things easier to expand on, so for instance another class could implement the BaseFunctionality later on. Thanks Dan

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  • determining the starting speed for an accelerated animation (in flash/actionscript but it's a math question)

    - by vulkanino
    This question burns my brain. I have an object on a plane, but for the sake of simplicity let's work just on a single dimension, thus the object has a starting position xs. I know the ending position xe. The object has to move from starting to ending position with an accelerated (acceleration=a) movement. I know the velocity the object has to have at the ending position (=ve). In my special case the ending speed is zero, but of course I need a general formula. The only unknown is the starting velocity vs. The objects starts with vs in xs and ends with ve in xe, moving along a space x with an acceleration a in a time t. Since I'm working with flash, space is expressed in pixels, time is expressed in frames (but you can reason in terms of seconds, it's easy to convert knowing the frames-per-second). In the animation loop (think onEnterFrame) I compute the new velocity and the new position with (a=0.4 for example): vx *= a (same for vy) x += vx (same for y) I want the entire animation to last, say, 2 seconds, which at 30 fps is 60 frames. Now you know that in 60 frames my object has to move from xs to xe with a constant deceleration so that the ending speed is 0. How do I compute the starting speed vs? Maybe there's a simpler way to do this in Flash, but I am now interested in the math/physics behind this.

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  • Elegent methods for caching search results from RESTful service?

    - by Paul
    I have a RESTful web service which I access from the browser using JavaScript. As an example, say that this web service returns a list of all the Message resources assigned to me when I send a GET request to /messages/me. For performance reasons, I'd like to cache this response so that I don't have to re-fetch it every time I visit my Manage Messages web page. The cached response would expire after 5 minutes. If a Message resource is created "behind my back", say by the system admin, it's possible that I won't know about it for up to 5 minutes, until the cached search response expires and is re-fetched. This is acceptable, because it creates no confusion for me. However if I create a new Message resource which I know should be part of the search response, it becomes confusing when it doesn't appear on my Manage Messages page immediately. In general, when I knowingly create/delete/update a resource that invalidates a cached search response, I need that cached response to be expired/flushed immediately. The core problem which I can't figure out: I see no simple way of connecting the task of creating/deleting/updating a resource with the task of expiring the appropriate cached responses. In this example it seems simple, I could manually expire the cached search response whenever I create/delete/update a(ny) Message resource. But in a more complex system, keeping track of which search responses to expire under what circumstances will get clumsy quickly. If someone could suggest a simple solution or some clarifying thoughts, I'd appreciate it.

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  • C++ const qualifier

    - by avd
    I have a Point2D class as follows: class Point2D{ int x; int y; public: Point2D(int inX, int inY){ x = inX; y = inY; }; int getX(){return x;}; int getY(){return y;}; }; Now I have defined a class Line as: class Line { Point2D p1,p2; public: LineVector(const Point2D &p1,const Point2D &p2):p1(p1),p2(p2) { int x1,y1,x2,y2; x1=p1.getX();y1=p1.getY();x2=p2.getX();y2=p2.getY(); } }; Now the compiler gives the error in the last line( where getX() etc are called): error: passing `const Point2D' as `this' argument of `int Point2D::getX()' discards qualifiers If I remove the const keyword at both places, then it compiles successfully. What is the error? Is it because getX() etc are defined inline? Is there any way to recify this retaining them inline?

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  • When are temporaries created as part of a function call destroyed?

    - by Michael Mrozek
    Is a temporary created as part of an argument to a function call guaranteed to stay around until the called function ends, even if the temporary isn't passed directly to the function? There's virtually no chance that was coherent, so here's an example: class A { public: A(int x) : x(x) {printf("Constructed A(%d)\n", x);} ~A() {printf("Destroyed A\n");} int x; int* y() {return &x;} }; void foo(int* bar) { printf("foo(): %d\n", *bar); } int main(int argc, char** argv) { foo(A(4).y()); } If A(4) were passed directly to foo it would definitely not be destroyed until after the foo call ended, but instead I'm calling a method on the temporary and losing any reference to it. I would instinctively think the temporary A would be destroyed before foo even starts, but testing with GCC 4.3.4 shows it isn't; the output is: Constructed A(4) foo(): 4 Destroyed A The question is, is GCC's behavior guaranteed by the spec? Or is a compiler allowed to destroy the temporary A before the call to foo, invaliding the pointer to its member I'm using?

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  • How do I get a reference to a rootViewController to a sub-view?

    - by Andy
    An answer posted for one of my previous questions brings up another question; I am calling a new view controller, "RuleBuilder," from my rootViewController. The rootViewController holds a reference to a contacts array. How do I get a reference to that array into the RuleBuilder? I tried adding UITableViewController *rootViewController; ... @property (nonatomic, retain) UITableViewController *rootViewController; to RuleBuilder.h, and then @synthesize rootViewController; in RuleBuilder.m. When I instantiate and push the RuleBuilder from within rootViewController, I do this: ruleBuilder.rootViewController = self; But when I try this [rootViewController.contacts addObject:newContact]; from within RuleBuilder, I get a compiler error to the effect of "request for 'contacts' in something not a struct" (or very similar; I haven't implemented this exact snippet of code, but I tried an identical approach not an hour ago for a couple of different references that I never was able to get working). Thanks, again, for your help.

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  • Why does defined(X) not work in a preprocessor definition without a space?

    - by Devin
    A preprocessor definition that includes defined(X) will never evaluate to true, but (defined X) will. This occurs in MSVC9; I have not tested other preprocessors. A simple example: #define FEATURE0 1 #define FEATURE1 0 #define FEATURE2 1 #define FEATURE3 (FEATURE0 && !FEATURE1 && (defined(FEATURE2))) #define FEATURE4 (FEATURE0 && !FEATURE1 && (defined FEATURE2)) #define FEATURE5 (FEATURE0 && !FEATURE1 && (defined (FEATURE2))) #if FEATURE3 #pragma message("FEATURE3 Enabled") #elif (FEATURE0 && !FEATURE1 && (defined(FEATURE2))) #pragma message("FEATURE3 Enabled (Fallback)") #endif #if FEATURE4 #pragma message("FEATURE4 Enabled") #elif (FEATURE0 && !FEATURE1 && (defined FEATURE2)) #pragma message("FEATURE4 Enabled (Fallback)") #endif #if FEATURE5 #pragma message("FEATURE5 Enabled") #elif (FEATURE0 && !FEATURE1 && (defined (FEATURE2))) #pragma message("FEATURE5 Enabled (Fallback)") #endif The output from the compiler is: 1FEATURE3 Enabled (Fallback) 1FEATURE4 Enabled 1FEATURE5 Enabled Working cases: defined (X), defined( X ), and defined X. Broken case: defined(X) Why is defined evaluated differently when part of a definition, as in the #if cases in the example, compared to direct evaluation, as in the #elif cases in the example?

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  • Obj-c method override/polymorphism problem

    - by Rod
    Ok, so I'm using Objective-C. Now, say I have: TopClass : NSObject - (int) getVal {return 1;} MidClass : TopClass - (int) getVal {return 2;} BotClass : MidClass - (int) getVal {return 3;} I then put objects of each type into an NSMutableArray and take one out. What I want to do is run the getVal func on the appropriate object type, but when I put id a = [allObjects objectAtIndex:0]; if ([a isKindOfClass:[TopClass class]]) { int i; i = [a getVal]; } I get firstly a warning about multiple methods called getVal (presumably because the compiler can't determine the actual object type until runtime). But more seriously I also get an error "void value not ignored as it should be" and it won't compile. If I don't try and use the return from [a getVal] then it compiles fine e.g. [a getval]; //obviously no good if I want to use the return value It will also work if I use isMemberOfClass statements to cast the object to a class before running the function e.g. if ([a isMemberOfClass:[BotClass]) i = [(BotClass*) a getVal]; But surely I shouldn't have to do this to get the functionality I require? Otherwise I'll have to put in a statement for every single subclass, and worse have to add a new line if I add a new sub class, which rather defeats the point of method overriding doesn't it? Surely there is a better way?

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  • Extending abstract classes in c#

    - by ng
    I am a Java developer and I have noticed some differences in extending abstract classes in c# as opposed to Java. I was wondering how a c# developer would achived the following. 1) Covarience public abstract class A { public abstract List<B> List(); } public class BList : List<T> where T : B { } public abstract class C : A { public abstract BList List(); } So in the above hierarchy, there is covarience in C where it returns a type compatible with what A returns. However this gives me an error in Visual Studio. Is there a way to specify a covarient return type in c#? 2) Adding a setter to a property public abstract class A { public abstract String Name { get; } } public abstract class B : A { public abstract String Name { get; set } } Here the compiler complains of hiding. Any suggestions? Please do not suggest using interfaces unless that is the ONLY way to do this.

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  • Is there any alternative way of writing this switch statement(C#3.0)

    - by Newbie
    Can it be done in a better way public static EnumFactorType GetFactorEnum(string str) { Standardization e = new Standardization(); switch (str.ToLower()) { case "beta": e.FactorType = EnumFactorType.BETA; break; case "bkp": e.FactorType = EnumFactorType.BOOK_TO_PRICE; break; case "yld": e.FactorType = EnumFactorType.DIVIDEND_YIELD; break; case "growth": e.FactorType = EnumFactorType.GROWTH; break; case "mean": e.FactorType = EnumFactorType.MARKET_CAP; break; case "momentum": e.FactorType = EnumFactorType.MOMENTUM; break; case "size": e.FactorType = EnumFactorType.SIZE; break; case "stat_fact1": e.FactorType = EnumFactorType.STAT_FACT_1; break; case "stat_fact2": e.FactorType = EnumFactorType.STAT_FACT_2; break; case "value": e.FactorType = EnumFactorType.VALUE; break; } return e.FactorType; } If I create a Static class(say Constatant) and declare variable like public static string BETA= "beta"; and then if I try to put that in the Case expression like Case Constants.BETA : e.FactorType = EnumFactorType.BETA; break; then the compiler will report error.(quite expected) So is there any other way?(I canot change the switch statement) Using C#3.0 Thanks

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  • Is there such a thing as a MemberExpression that handles a many-to-many relationship?

    - by Jaxidian
    We're trying to make it easy to write strongly-typed code in all areas of our system, so rather than setting var sortColumn = "FirstName" we'd like to say sortOption = (p => p.FirstName). This works great if the sortOption is of type Expression<Func<Person, object>> (we actually use generics in our code but that doesn't matter). However, we run into problems for many-to-many relationships because this notation breaks down. Consider this simple code: internal class Business { public IQueryable<Address> Addresses { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } internal class Address { public State MyState { get; set; } } internal class State { public string Abbreviation { get; set; } public int StateID { get; set; } } Is it possible to have this sort of MemberExpression to identify the StateID column off of a business? Again, the purpose of using this is not to return a StateID object, it's to just identify that property off of that entity (for sorting, filtering, and other purposes). It SEEMS to me that there should be some way to do this, even if it's not quite as pretty as foo = business.Addresses.SomeExtension(a => a.State.StateID);. Is this really possible? If more background is needed, take a look at this old question of mine. We've since updated the code significantly, but this should give you the general detailed idea of the context behind this question.

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  • Misaligned Pointer Performance

    - by Elite Mx
    Aren't misaligned pointers (in the BEST possible case) supposed to slow down performance and in the worst case crash your program (assuming the compiler was nice enough to compile your invalid c program). Well, the following code doesn't seem to have any performance differences between the aligned and misaligned versions. Why is that? /* brutality.c */ #ifdef BRUTALITY xs = (unsigned long *) ((unsigned char *) xs + 1); #endif ... /* main.c */ #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #define size_t_max ((size_t)-1) #define max_count(var) (size_t_max / (sizeof var)) int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { unsigned long sum, *xs, *itr, *xs_end; size_t element_count = max_count(*xs) >> 4; xs = malloc(element_count * (sizeof *xs)); if(!xs) exit(1); xs_end = xs + element_count - 1; sum = 0; for(itr = xs; itr < xs_end; itr++) *itr = 0; #include "brutality.c" itr = xs; while(itr < xs_end) sum += *itr++; printf("%lu\n", sum); /* we could free the malloc-ed memory here */ /* but we are almost done */ exit(0); } Compiled and tested on two separate machines using gcc -pedantic -Wall -O0 -std=c99 main.c for i in {0..9}; do time ./a.out; done

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  • const object in c++

    - by Codenotguru
    I have a question on constant objects. In the following program: class const_check{ int a; public: const_check(int i); void print() const; void print2(); }; const_check::const_check(int i):a(i) {} void const_check::print() const { int a=19; cout<<"The value in a is:"<<a; } void const_check::print2() { int a=10; cout<<"The value in a is:"<<a; } int main(){ const_check b(5); const const_check c(6); b.print2(); c.print(); } void print() is constant member function of the class const_check, so according to the definition of constants if any attempt to change int a it should result in an error but the program works fine for me.I think i am having some confusion here, can anybody tell me why the compiler is not flagging it as an error??

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