Search Results

Search found 9446 results on 378 pages for 'ssh keys'.

Page 346/378 | < Previous Page | 342 343 344 345 346 347 348 349 350 351 352 353  | Next Page >

  • Echoing variable construct instead of content

    - by danp
    I'm merging two different versions of a translations array. The more recent version has a lot of changes, over several thousand lines of code. To do this, I loaded and evaluated the new file (which uses the same structure and key names), then loaded and evaluated the older version, overwriting the new untranslated values in the array with the values we already have translated. So far so good! However, I want to be able to echo out the constructor for this new merged array so I can cut and paste it into the new translation file, and have job done (apart from completing the rest of the translations..). The code looks like this (lots of different keys, not just index): $lang["index"]["chart1_label1"] = "Subscribed"; $lang["index"]["chart1_label2"] = "Unsubscribed"; And the old.. $lang["index"]["chart1_label1"] = "Subscrito"; $lang["index"]["chart1_label2"] = "Não subscrito"; After loading the two files, I end up with a merged $lang array, which I then want to echo out in the same form, so it can be used by the project. However, when I do something like this.. foreach ($lang as $key => $value) { if (is_array($value)) { foreach ($value as $key2 => $value2) { echo "$lang['".$key."']"; // ... etc etc } } } ..obviously I get "ArrayIndex" etc etc instead of "$lang". How to echo out $lang without it being evaluated..? Once this is working, can add in the rest of the brackets etc (I realise they are missing), but just want to make this part work first. If there's a better way to do this, all ears too! Thanks.

    Read the article

  • sed script to remove file name duplicates

    - by dma_k
    Dear community, I hope the below task will be very easy for sed lovers. I am not sed-guru, but I need to express the following task in sed, as sed is more popular on Linux systems. The input text stream is something which is produced by "make depends" and looks like following: pgm2asc.o: pgm2asc.c ../include/config.h amiga.h list.h pgm2asc.h pnm.h \ output.h gocr.h unicode.h ocr1.h ocr0.h otsu.h barcode.h progress.h box.o: box.c gocr.h pnm.h ../include/config.h unicode.h list.h pgm2asc.h \ output.h database.o: database.c gocr.h pnm.h ../include/config.h unicode.h list.h \ pgm2asc.h output.h detect.o: detect.c pgm2asc.h pnm.h ../include/config.h output.h gocr.h \ unicode.h list.h I need to catch only C++ header files (i.e. ending with .h), make the list unique and print as space-separated list prepending src/ as a path-prefix. This is achieved by the following perl script: make libs-depends | perl -e 'while (<>) { while (/ ([\w\.\/]+?\.h)/g) { $a{$1} = 1; } } print join " ", map { "src/$_" } keys %a;' The output is: src/unicode.h src/pnm.h src/progress.h src/amiga.h src/ocr0.h src/ocr1.h src/otsu.h src/barcode.h src/gocr.h src/../include/config.h src/list.h src/pgm2asc.h src/output.h Please, help to express this in sed.

    Read the article

  • Is there a Perl module for parsing numbers, including ranges?

    - by sid_com
    Is there a module, which does this for me? sample_input: 2, 5-7, 9, 3, 11-14 #!/usr/bin/env perl use warnings; use strict; use 5.012; sub aw_parse { my( $in, $max ) = @_; chomp $in; my @array = split ( /\s*,\s*/, $in ); my %zahlen; for ( @array ) { if ( /^\s*(\d+)\s*$/ ) { $zahlen{$1}++; } elsif ( /^\s*(\d+)\s*-\s*(\d+)\s*$/ ) { die "'$1-$2' not a valid input $!" if $1 >= $2; for ( $1 .. $2 ) { $zahlen{$_}++; } } else { die "'$_' not a valid input $!"; } } @array = sort { $a <=> $b } keys ( %zahlen ); if ( defined $max ) { for ( @array ) { die "Input '0' not allowed $!" if $_ == 0; die "Input ($_) greater than $max not allowed $!" if $_ > $max; } } return \@array; } my $max = 20; print "Input (max $max): "; my $in = <>; my $out = aw_parse( $in, $max ); say "@$out";

    Read the article

  • Is there a way to specify a per-host deploy_to path with Capistrano?

    - by Chad Johnson
    I have searched and searched and asked a question already and have not received a clear answer. I have the following deploy script (snippet): set :application, "testapplication" set :repository, "ssh://domain.com//srv/hg/#{application}" set :scm, :mercurial set :deploy_to, "/srv/www/#{application}" role :web, "domain1.com", "domain2.com" role :app, "domain1.com", "domain2.com" role :db, "domain1.com", :primary => true, :norelease => true role :db, "domain2.com", :norelease => true As you see, I have set deploy_to to a specific path. And, I also have specified multiple web servers. However, each web server should have a different deployment path. I want to be able to run "cap deploy" and deploy to all hosts in one shot. I am NOT trying to deploy to staging and then to production. This is all production. My question is: how exactly do I specify a path per server? I have read the "Roles" documentation for Capistrano, and this is unclear. Can someone please post a deploy file example? I have read the documentation, and it is unclear how to do this. Does anyone know? Am I crazy? Am I thinking of this wrong or something? No answers anywhere online. Nowhere. Nothing. Please, someone help.

    Read the article

  • How to translate the fields of a database model?

    - by Tõnis M
    I have some tables/models in a web app that will have multilingual content. For example a university, with it's description in a default language(english) and the user wants he can see the same information in another language( if the object has it's fields translated). If there were only a few languages then I would just add fields like name_en and name_de and so on, but the number of languages isn't fixed, so that' would create a mess. I could also just create a new object with the translated data but then foreign keys wouldn't work, and only some of the fields can be translated so that would create duplicate data. Storing the translations in a file and using gettext or something similar is also not an option since the objects fields can be translated by the website user, not only developers/admins. What would be the best way to design/architect such a database? Searching from the translated data should also be not too complex - as it should not require creating complex joins which would make the queries slower I'm using PostgreSQL and Ruby of Rails but I'm not looking for a technical solution but for a general idea how to design it.

    Read the article

  • Reload mod_fcgid without killing Python Service

    - by Tobias
    Hi I'm currently running a Django project on my school's webserver with FCGI. I did follow the multiple guides that recommends installing a virtual local Python environment and it worked out great. The only issue i had was that "touching" my fcgi-file to reload source-files wasn't enough, but instead i had to kill the python service via SSH. This because mod_fcgid is used. However, the admin didn't think it was a great idea that i ran my own local python. He thought it better if i just told him what modules to install on root, which was a pretty nice service really. But doing this, i can no longer kill python since it's under root(though immoral as I am, I've definitely tried). The admins recommendation was that I should try too make the fcgi script reload itself by checking time stamp. I've tried to find documentation on how to do this, but fund very little and since I'm a absolute beginner i have no idea what would work. Anyone have experience running python/django under mod_fcgid or tips on where to find related guides/documentation?

    Read the article

  • sql queries slower than expected

    - by neubert
    Before I show the query here are the relevant table definitions: CREATE TABLE phpbb_posts ( topic_id mediumint(8) UNSIGNED DEFAULT '0' NOT NULL, poster_id mediumint(8) UNSIGNED DEFAULT '0' NOT NULL, KEY topic_id (topic_id), KEY poster_id (poster_id), ); CREATE TABLE phpbb_topics ( topic_id mediumint(8) UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment ); Here's the query I'm trying to do: SELECT p.topic_id, p.poster_id FROM phpbb_topics AS t LEFT JOIN phpbb_posts AS p ON p.topic_id = t.topic_id AND p.poster_id <> ... WHERE p.poster_id IS NULL; Basically, the query is an attempt to find all topics where the number of times someone other than the target user has posted in is zero. In other words, the topics where the only person who has posted is the target user. Problem is that query is taking a super long time. My general assumption when it comes to SQL is that JOINs of any are super fast and can be done in no time at all assuming all relevant columns are primary or foreign keys (which in this case they are). I tried out a few other queries: SELECT COUNT(1) FROM phpbb_topics AS t JOIN phpbb_posts AS p ON p.topic_id = t.topic_id; That returns 353340 pretty quickly. I then do these: SELECT COUNT(1) FROM phpbb_topics AS t JOIN phpbb_posts AS p ON p.topic_id = t.topic_id AND p.poster_id <> 77198; SELECT COUNT(1) FROM phpbb_topics AS t JOIN phpbb_posts AS p ON p.topic_id = t.topic_id WHERE p.poster_id <> 77198; And both of those take quite a while (between 15-30 seconds). If I change the < to a = it takes no time at all. Am I making some incorrect assumptions? Maybe my DB is just foobar'd?

    Read the article

  • Using an unencoded key vs a real Key, benefits?

    - by user246114
    Hi, I am reading the docs for Key generation in app engine. I'm not sure what effect using a simple String key has over a real Key. For example, when my users sign up, they must supply a unique username: class User { /** Key type = unencoded string. */ @PrimaryKey private String name; } now if I understand the docs correctly, I should still be able to generate named keys and entity groups using this, right?: // Find an instance of this entity: User user = pm.findObjectById(User.class, "myusername"); // Create a new obj and put it in same entity group: Key key = new KeyFactory.Builder( User.class.getSimpleName(), "myusername") .addChild(Goat.class.getSimpleName(), "baa").getKey(); Goat goat = new Goat(); goat.setKey(key); pm.makePersistent(goat); the Goat instance should now be in the same entity group as that User, right? I mean there's no problem with leaving the User's primary key as just the raw String? Is there a performance benefit to using a Key though? Should I update to: class User { /** Key type = unencoded string. */ @PrimaryKey private Key key; } // Generate like: Key key = KeyFactory.createKey( User.class.getSimpleName(), "myusername"); user.setKey(key); it's almost the same thing, I'd still just be generating the Key using the unique username anyway, Thanks

    Read the article

  • MySQL Datefields: duplicate or calculate?

    - by Konerak
    We are using a table with a structure imposed upon us more than 10 years ago. We are allowed to add columns, but urged not to change existing columns. Certain columns are meant to represent dates, but are put in different format. Amongst others: * CHAR(6): YYMMDD * CHAR(6): DDMMYY * CHAR(8): YYYYMMDD * CHAR(8): DDMMYYYY * DATE * DATETIME Since we now would like to do some more complex queries, using advanced date functions, my manager proposed to d*uplicate those problem columns* to a proper FORMATTED_OLDCOLUMNNAME column using a DATE or DATETIME format. Is this the way to go? Couldn't we just use the STR_TO_DATE function each time we accessed the columns? To avoid every query having to copy-paste the function, I could still work with a view or a stored procedure, but duplicating data to avoid recalculation sounds wrong. Solutions I see (I guess I prefer 2.2.1) 1. Physically duplicate columns 1.1 In the same table 1.1.1 Added by each script that does a modification (INSERT/UPDATE/REPLACE/...) 1.1.2 Maintained by a trigger on each modification 1.2 In a separate table 1.2.1 Added by each script that does a modification (INSERT/UPDATE/REPLACE/...) 1.2.2 Maintained by a trigger on each modification 2. On-demand transformation 2.1 Each query has to perform the transformation 2.1.1 Using copy-paste in the source code 2.1.2 Using a library 2.1.3 Using a STORED PROCEDURE 2.2 A view performs the transformation 2.2.1 A separate table replacing the entire table 2.2.2 A separate table just adding the date-fields for the primary keys Am I right to say it's better to recalculate than to store? And would a view be a good solution?

    Read the article

  • Persist data when the table was not mapped (JPA EclipseLink)

    - by enrique
    Hi everybody I need some help in persisting data into a table that has not been mapped... The issue is that the database we have has a table which all of its columns are foreign keys so by mapping the whole database all of the tables are correctly mapped. However that table called "category" is not mapped. The way in which we can browse the data is by passing for the table I mentioned using the @jointable annotation which was set by the system in the other tables with which "category" has a relation. So we can go ahead and using the collections and perform a query. But the issue comes when I want to persist data into that table because there´s no any entity. We tried to persist through the collections but no luck. Then I have just tried by creating the entity with its PK and Facade all by hand. However when I try to persist using the Merge method the system tries to perform an Insert when it is supposed to perform an Update. So obviously it returns an error. Does anybody have an idea on this situation? Thanks.-

    Read the article

  • Return value of a JQuery autocomplete using an array of objects as its source

    - by user2920430
    In a JQuery autocomplete which uses an array of objects as its source, can I display the label in the INPUT and later access the value? The default behavior is that the value is displayed in the INPUT after selection. In this case the values represent indexes to unique keys in rows in a table. <!doctype html> <html lang="en"> <head> <meta charset="utf-8"> <title>autocomplete demo</title> <link rel="stylesheet" href="http://code.jquery.com/ui/1.10.3/themes/smoothness/jquery-ui.css"> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery-1.9.1.js"></script> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/ui/1.10.3/jquery-ui.js"></script> </head> <body> <label for="autocomplete">Select a programming language: </label> <input id="autocomplete"> <script> $( "#autocomplete" ).autocomplete({ source: [ { label:"c++", value:1 }, { label: "java", value:2 }, { label: "javascript", value:3 } ] }); </script> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • PHP transfer files from server to server in LAN

    - by cheapez
    So, I have 5-6 pages of requirements. I'm trying to build this application in PHP based on the requirements. I want to transfer files from one server to the other server in LAN, and then send a shell command to the other server to find out if the file has been transferred successfully. In php, I can transfer files using FTP, and send shell commands using SSH. Using the methods above, I will need to open connection to the server first, but I don't know the ftp server name, domain name, ip address, or anything like that. I only know the the server ID (I'm not sure what this ID is, but I guess it is like the computer's name). An example of the server ID is: "c23bap234" How do I open a connection with just that server ID? These servers are in the same building, have LAN connection, don't have connection to the outside world. These machines have PHP, Apache, ... installed. If my post doesn't make sense to you, it's because I'm a learner. I hope someone can help me on this. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • PHP contact form, am I doing it wrong?

    - by decimal
    I'm learning PHP and I'm trying to write a simple email script. I have a function (checkEmpty) to check if all the forms are filled in and if the email adress is valid (isEmailValid). I'm not sure how to return true checkEmpty funciton. Here's my code: When the submit button is clicked: if (isset($_POST['submit'])) { //INSERT FORM VALUES INTO AN ARRAY $field = array ('name' => $_POST['name'], 'email' => $_POST['email'], 'message' => $_POST['message']); //CONVERT ARRAY KEYS TO VARIABLE NAMES extract ($field); checkEmpty($name, $email, $message); function checkEmpty($name, $email, $message) { global $name_error; global $mail_error; global $message_error; //CHECK IF NAME FIELD IS EMPTY if (isset($name) === true && empty($name) === true) { $name_error = "<span class='error_text'>* Please enter your name</span>"; } //CHECK IF EMAIL IS EMPTY if (isset($email) === true && empty($email) === true) { $mail_error = "<span class='error_text'>* Please enter your email address</span>"; //AND IF IT ISN'T EMPTY CHECK IF IT IS A VALID ONE } elseif (!isValidEmail($email)) { $mail_error = "<span class='error_text'> * Please enter a valid email</span>"; } //CHECK IF MESSAGE IS EMPTY if (isset($message) === true && empty($message) === true) { $message_error = "<span class='error_text'>* Please enter your message</span>"; } } // This function tests whether the email address is valid function isValidEmail($email){ $pattern = "^[_a-z0-9-]+(\.[_a-z0-9-]+)*@[a-z0-9-]+(\.[a-z0-9-]+)*(\.[a-z]{2,3})$"; if (eregi($pattern, $email)) { return true; } else { return false; } } I know I shouldn't be using globals in the function, I don't know an alternative. The error messages are display beside each form element.

    Read the article

  • Recursion Problem in PHP

    - by streetparade
    I need to create a valid xml from a given array(); My Method looks like this, protected function array2Xml($array) { $xml = ""; if(is_array($array)) { foreach($array as $key=>$value) { $xml .= "<$key>"; if(is_array($value)) { $xml .= $this->array2Xml($value); } $xml .= "</$key>"; } return $xml; } else { throw new Exception("in valid"); } } protected function createValidXMLfromArray($array,$node) { $xml = '<?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1"?>'; $xmlArray = $this->array2Xml($array); $xml .= "<$node>$xmlArray</$node>"; return $xml; } if i execute the above i just get keys with empty values; like <node> <name></name> </node> What i need is if i pass this array("name"=>"test","value"=>array("test1"=>33,"test2"=>40)); that it return this <node> <name>test</name> <value> <test1>33</test1> <test2>40</test2> </value> </node> Where is the error what did i wrong in the above recursion?

    Read the article

  • How do I iterate through hierarchical data in a Sql Server 2005 stored proc?

    - by AlexChilcott
    Hi, I have a SqlServer2005 table "Group" similar to the following: Id (PK, int) Name (varchar(50)) ParentId (int) where ParentId refers to another Id in the Group table. This is used to model hierarchical groups such as: Group 1 (id = 1, parentid = null) +--Group 2 (id = 2, parentid = 1) +--Group 3 (id = 3, parentid = 1) +--Group 4 (id = 4, parentid = 3) Group 5 (id = 5, parentid = null) +--Group 6 (id = 6, parentid = 5) You get the picture I have another table, let's call it "Data" for the sake of simplification, which looks something like: Id (PK, int) Key (varchar) Value (varchar) GroupId (FK, int) Now, I am trying to write a stored proc which can get me the "Data" for a given group. For example, if I query for group 1, it returns me the Key-Value-Pairs from Data where groupId = 1. If I query for group 2, it returns the KVPs for groupId = 1, then unioned with those which have groupId = 2 (and duplicated keys are replaced). Ideally, the sproc would also fail gracefully if there is a cycle (ie if group 1's parent is group 2 and group 2's parent is group 1) Has anyone had experience in writing such a sproc, or know how this might be accomplished? Thanks guys, much appreciated, Alex

    Read the article

  • Too many columns to index - use mySQL Partitions?

    - by Christopher Padfield
    We have an application with a table with 20+ columns that are all searchable. Building indexes for all these columns would make write queries very slow; and any really useful index would often have to be across multiple columns increasing the number of indexes needed. However, for 95% of these searches, only a small subset of those rows need to be searched upon, and quite a small number - say 50,000 rows. So, we have considered using mySQL Partition tables - having a column that is basically isActive which is what we divide the two partitions by. Most search queries would be run with isActive=1. Most queries would then be run against the small 50,000 row partition and be quick without other indexes. Only issue is the rows where isActive=1 is not fixed; i.e. it's not based on the date of the row or anything fixed like that; we will need to update isActive based on use of the data in that row. As I understand it that is no problem though; the data would just be moved from one partition to another during the UPDATE query. We do have a PK on id for the row though; and I am not sure if this is a problem; the manual seemed to suggest the partition had to be based on any primary keys. This would be a huge problem for us because the primary key ID has no basis on whether the row isActive.

    Read the article

  • Adding new records in Access without wrecking the form

    - by Matt Parker
    I'm working on a simple Access 2003 application to keep track of things that need to be done for clients for some colleagues. Each colleague has a set of clients, and each client has a set of actions that need to be taken by a certain date. I've set up a form that consists of a combobox for client ID (indexed), a drop-down for the person who is handling that client's case, and a button for adding new clients (a standard Access-created Add Record button). The actions are listed in a subform below these three elements. The problem I've run into is that the first person I tested this on clicked the button to add a new record, then didn't fill it out and tried to select another client from the drop-down list. Access interprets this as an attempt to set the selected Client ID as the ID for the new record and rightfully throws an error for duplicate primary keys. I can think of a couple of ways around this problem, but I'd much rather hear your elegant solutions than kludge together some junk in a language I don't know. Let me know if you have any questions. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • How do I introspect on a SQL Server?

    - by MetaHyperBolic
    I have a server with a vendor application which is heavily database-reliant. I need to make some minor changes to the data in a few tables in the database in an automated fashion. Just INSERTs and UPDATEs, nothing fancy. Vendors being vendors, I can never be quite sure when they change the schema of a database during upgrade. To that end, how do I ask the SQL server, in some scriptable fashion, "Hey, does this table still exist? Yeah, cool, okay, but does it have this column? What's the data type and size on that? Is it nullable? Could you give me a list of tables? In this table, could you give me a list of columns? Any primary keys there?" I do not need to do this for the whole schema, only part of it, just a quick check of the database before I launch into things. We have Microsoft SQL Server 2005 on it currently, but it might easily move to Microsoft SQL Server 2008. I am probably not using the correct terminology when searching. I do know that ORM is not only too much overhead for this sort of thing, but also that I have no chance of pitching it to my coworkers.

    Read the article

  • In Rails 3, how does one render HTML within a JSON response?

    - by ylg
    I'm porting an application from Merb 1.1 / 1.8.7 to Rails 3 (beta) / 1.9.1 that uses JSON responses containing HTML fragments, e.g., a JSON container specifying an update, on a user record, and the updated user row looks like . In Merb, since whatever a controller method returns is given to the client, one can put together a Hash, assign a rendered partial to one of the keys and return hash.to_json (though that certainly may not be the best way.) In Rails, it seems that to get data back to the client one must use render and render can only be called once, so rendering the hash to json won't work because of the partial render. From reading around, it seems one could put that data into a JSON .erb view file, with <%= render partial % in and render that. Is there a Rails-way of solving this problem (return JSON containing one or more HTML fragments) other than that? In Merb: only_provides :json ... self.status = 204 # or appropriate if not async return { 'action' => 'update', 'type' => 'user', 'id' => @user.id, 'html' => partial('user_row', format: :html, user: @user) }.to_json In Rails?

    Read the article

  • printing out dictionnaires

    - by kyril
    I have a rather specific question: I want to print out characters at a specific place using the \033[ syntax. This is what the code below should do: (the dict cells has the same keys as coords but with either '*' or '-' as value.) coords = {'x'+str(x)+'y'+str(y) : (x,y) for x,y, in itertools.product(range(60), range(20))} for key, value in coords.items(): char = cells[key] x,y = value HORIZ=str(x) VERT=str(y) char = str(char) print('\033['+VERT+';'+HORIZ+'f'+char) However, I noticed that if I put this into a infinite while loop, it does not always prints the same characters at the same position. There are only slight changes, but it deletes some and puts them back in after some loops. I already tried it with lists, and there it seems to behave just fine, so I tend to think it has something todo with the dict, but I can not figure out what it could be. You can see the Problem in a console here: SharedConsole.I am happy for every tip on this matter. On a related topic: After the printing, some changes should be made at the values of the cells dict, but for reason unknown to me, the only the first two rules are executed and the rest is ignored. The rules should test how many neighbours (which is in population) are around the cell and apply the according rule. In my implemention of this I have some kind of weird tumor growth (which should not happen, as if there more than three around they should the cell should die) (see FreakingTumor): if cells_copy [coord] == '-': if population == 3: cells [coord] = '*' if cells_copy [coord] == '*': if population > 3: cells [coord] = '-' elif population <= 1: cells [coord] = '-' elif population == 2 or 3: cells [coord] = '*' I checked the population variable several times, so I am quite sure that is not the matter. I am sorry for the slow consoles. Thanks in advance! Kyril

    Read the article

  • Dom Traversal to Automate Keyboard Focus - Spatial Navigation

    - by Steve
    I'm going to start with a little background that will hopefully help my question make more sense. I am developing an application for a television. The concept is simple and basically works by overlaying a browser over the video plane of the TV. Now being a TV, there is no mouse or additional pointing device. All interaction is done through a remote control. Therefore, the user needs to be able to visually tell which element they are currently focused upon. To indicate that an element is focused, I currently append a colored transparent image over the element to indicate focus. Now, when a user hits the arrow keys, I need to respond by focusing on the correct elements according to the key pressed. So, if the down arrow is pressed I need to focus on the next focusable element in the DOM tree (which may be a child or sibling), and if they hit the up arrow, I need to respond to the previous element. This would essentially simulate spatial navigation within a browser. I am currently setting an attribute (focusable=true) on any DOM elements that should be able to receive focus. What I would like to do is determine the previous or next focusable element (i.e. attribute focusable=true) and apply focus to the element. I was hoping to traverse the DOM tree to determine the next and previously focusable elements, but I am not sure how to perform this in JQuery, or in general. I was leaning towards trying to use the JQuery tree travesal methods like next(), prev(), etc. What approach would you take to solve this type of issue? Thanks

    Read the article

  • How to reset keyboard for an entry field?

    - by David.Chu.ca
    I am using tag field as a flag for text fields text view fields for auto-jumping to the next field: - (BOOL)findNextEntryFieldAsResponder:(UIControl *)field { BOOL retVal = NO; for (UIView* aView in mEntryFields) { if (aView.tag == (field.tag + 1)) { [aView becomeFirstResponder]; retVal = YES; break; } } return retVal; } It works fine in terms of auto-jumping to the next field when Next key is pressed. However, my case is that the keyboards are different some fields. For example, one fields is numeric & punctuation, and the next one is default (alphabetic keys). For the numeric & punctuation keyboard is OK, but the next field will stay as the same layout. It requires user to press 123 to go back ABC keyboard. I am not sure if there is any way to reset the keyboard for a field as its keyboard defined in xib? Not sure if there is any APIs available? I guess I have to do something is the following delegate? -(void)textFieldDidBegingEditing:(UITextField*) textField { // reset to the keyboard to request specific keyboard view? .... } OK. I found a solution close to my case by slatvik: -(void) textFieldDidBeginEditing:(UITextField*) textField { textField.keyboardType = UIKeybardTypeAlphabet; } However, in the case of the previous text fields is numeric, the keyboard stays numeric when auto-jumped to the next field. Is there any way to set keyboard to alphabet mode?

    Read the article

  • reading keyboard input without "consuming" it in x86 assembly

    - by Bob
    Ok so here the deal: I have an assignment regarding DOS and interrupts: I need to write a sort of key-logger function that can be called from C code. what it means is a c program would call an assembly function called startlog that would indicate to start logging the keys pressed until a function called endlog is called. the logging should work like this: write the ascii value of any key pressed without disturbing the C code between startlog and endlog, meaning that if the C code also needs to read the input (let's say by scanf, it would work ok). I managed to write the logger by changing the interrupt vector 9th entry (interrupt for keyboard press) to a function I wrote that writes the values to a file, and it works fine. however the C code does not get the input. Basically what i did is read the key pressed using int 21h, however after reading the ascii value it is "consumed" so I need a way to either simulate the key press again or read the value without "consuming" it so next time a key is read it reads the same key. (I described the code in english because it is long and clumsy assembly code)

    Read the article

  • LINQ2SQL: How to let a column accept null values as zero (0) in Self-Relation table

    - by Remon
    As described in the img, I got a parent-Children relation and since the ParentID not accepting null values (and I can't change to nullabel due to some restriction in the UI I have), how can I remove an existence relation between ReportDataSources in order to change the parent for them (here i want to set the parentId for one of them = 0) how could i do that since i cant change the ParentID directly and setting Parent = null is not valid public void SetReportDataSourceAsMaster(ReportDataSource reportDataSource) { //Some logic - not necessarily for this scenario //Reset Master this.ReportDataSources.ToList().ForEach(rds => rds.IsMaster = false); //Set Master reportDataSource.IsMaster = true; //Set Parent ID for the rest of the Reports data sources this.ReportDataSources.Where(rds => rds.ID != reportDataSource.ID).ToList().ForEach(rds => { //Change Parent ID rds.Parent = reportDataSource; //Remove filttering data rds.FilteringDataMembers.Clear(); //Remove Grouping Data rds.GroupingDataMembers.Clear(); }); //Delete parent HERE THE EXCEPTION THROWN AFTER CALLING SUBMITCHANGES() reportDataSource.Parent = null; //Other logic } Exception thrown after calling submitChanges An attempt was made to remove a relationship between a ReportDataSource and a ReportDataSource. However, one of the relationship's foreign keys (ReportDataSource.ParentID) cannot be set to null.

    Read the article

  • Django: Storing ordered, arbitrary references

    - by Sarah
    I'm new to Django, and I'm not sure what I want is possible: I have a number of items that I want each AppUser (extended User model) to be able to reference. That is, given an AppUser, I want to be able to extract its list of items in the way that AppUser has chosen to order them. In general, these items would actually be references to something else in the database, and this led me to one possible solution: Store the keys for the given objects in a CommaSeparatedIntegerField in AppUser. This way, a user could have stored {7, 3, 232, 42, 1} in their items field and both the references and their preferred order would be stored. However, this feels hacky. Since most db backends store CommaSeparatedIntegerField as a VARCHAR internally, the user is not only limited by a number of objects, but also the number of digits in their chosen items. Eg. "you may store 10 items if you choose items with itemID < 10, but only 5 items if 10 < itemID < 100". Is there a better way to do this?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 342 343 344 345 346 347 348 349 350 351 352 353  | Next Page >