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• MySQL Split Time Ranges into Smaller Chunks

  - by Neren

  Hello all, I've recently been tasked with finishing a PHP/MySQL web app when the developer quit last week. I'm no MySQL expert, so I apologize if this is an intensely simple question. I've searched SO for the better part of two days trying to find a relatively easy solution to my problem, which is as follows. Problem in a Nutshell: I have a MySQL table full of start and end datetime (GMT -5) & UNIX Timestamp values covering durations of irregular length and need to break/split/divide them into more-regular time chunks (5 minutes). I'm not after a count of row entries per time chunk/bucket/period, if that makes any sense. Data Example: started, ended, started_UNIX, ended_UNIX 2010-10-25 15:12:33, 2010-10-25 15:47:09, 1288033953, 1288036029 What I'm hoping to get: 2010-10-25 15:12:33, 2010-10-25 15:15:00, 1288033953, 1288037700 2010-10-25 15:15:00, 2010-10-25 15:20:00, 1288037700, 1288038000 2010-10-25 15:20:00, 2010-10-25 15:25:00, 1288038000, 1288038300 2010-10-25 15:25:00, 2010-10-25 15:30:00, 1288038300, 1288038600 2010-10-25 15:30:00, 2010-10-25 15:35:00, 1288038600, 1288038900 2010-10-25 15:35:00, 2010-10-25 15:40:00, 1288038900, 1288039200 2010-10-25 15:40:00, 2010-10-25 15:45:00, 1288039200, 1288039500 2010-10-25 15:45:00, 2010-10-25 15:47:09, 1288039500, 1288039629 If you're interested, here's the quick & dirty on the app and why I need the data: App overview: The application receives very simple POST requests generated by a basic sensor device when its input pins go to ground, which submits an INSERT query to the database where MySQL records a timestamp (as started). When the input pins return from a grounded state, the device submits a different POST request, which causes the PHP app to submit an UPDATE query, where a modification time timestamp is inserted (as ended). My employer recently changed the periodic reporting unit of measure from Seconds "On" Per Day to Seconds "On" Per 5 Minute Interval. I had formulated what I thought would be a workable solution, but when I looked at it on paper, it looked like Rube Goldberg's nightmare constructed in MySQL, so that was out. Any suggestions as to how to break these spans into 5 minute blocks? Keeping it all in MySQL would be my preference, though I'll take any suggestions. Thank you for any suggestions you may have. Again, I apologize if this is a no-brainer. If I ask any additional questions of the SO collective consciousness in the future, I'll try to word them a bit better. Any help will be happily welcomed. Thanks, Neren

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• How to design service that can provide interface as JAX-WS web service, or via JMS, or as local meth

  - by kevinegham

  Using a typical JEE framework, how do I develop and deploy a service that can be called as a web service (with a WSDL interface), be invoked via JMS messages, or called directly from another service in the same container? Here's some more context: Currently I am responsible for a service (let's call it Service X) with the following properties: Interface definition is a human readable document kept up-to-date manually. Accepts HTTP form-encoded requests to a single URL. Sends plain old XML responses (no schema). Uses Apache to accept requests + a proprietary application server (not servlet or EJB based) containing all logic which runs in a seperate tier. Makes heavy use of a relational database. Called both by internal applications written in a variety of languages and also by a small number of third-parties. I want to (or at least, have been told to!): Switch to a well-known (pref. open source) JEE stack such as JBoss, Glassfish, etc. Split Service X into Service A and Service B so that we can take Service B down for maintenance without affecting Service A. Note that Service B will depend on (i.e. need to make requests to) Service A. Make both services easier for third parties to integrate with by providing at least a WS-I style interface (WSDL + SOAP + XML + HTTP) and probably a JMS interface too. In future we might consider a more lightweight API too (REST + JSON? Google Protocol Buffers?) but that's a nice to have. Additional consideration are: On a smaller deployment, Service A and Service B will likely to running on the same machine and it would seem rather silly for them to use HTTP or a message bus to communicate; better if they could run in the same container and make method calls to each other. Backwards compatibility with the existing ad-hoc Service X interface is not required, and we're not planning on re-using too much of the existing code for the new services. I'm happy with either contract-first (WSDL I guess) or (annotated) code-first development. Apologies if my terminology is a bit hazy - I'm pretty experienced with Java and web programming in general, but am finding it quite hard to get up to speed with all this enterprise / SOA stuff - it seems I have a lot to learn! I'm also not very used to using a framework rather than simply writing code that calls some packages to do things. I've got as far as downloading Glassfish, knocking up a simple WSDL file and using wsimport + a little dummy code to turn that into a WAR file which I've deployed.

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• SVG via dynamic XML+XSL

  - by Daniel

  This is a bit of a vague notion which I have been running over in my head, and which I am very curious if there is an elegant method of solving. Perhaps it should be taken as a thought experiment. Imagine you have an XML schema with a corresponding XSL transform, which renders the XML as SVG in the browser. The XSL generates SVG with appropriate Javascript handlers that, ultimately, implement editing-like functionality such that properties of the objects or their locations on the SVG canvas can be edited by the user. For instance, an element can be dragged from one location to another. Now, this isn't particularly difficult - the drag/drop example is simply a matter of changing the (x,y) coordinates of the SVG object, or a resize operation would be a simple matter of changing its width or height. But is there an elegant way to have Javascript work on the DOM of the source XML document instead of the rendered SVG? Why, you ask? Well, imagine you have very complex XSL transforms, where the modification of one property results in complex changes to the SVG. You want to maintain simplicity in your Javascript code, but also a simple way to persist the modified XML back to the server. Some possibilities of how this may function: After modification of the source DOM, simply re-run the XSL transform and replace the original. Downside: brute force, potentially expensive operation. Create id/class naming conventions in the source and target XML/SVG so elements can be related back to each other, and do an XSL transform on only a subset of the new DOM. In other words, modify temporary DOM, apply XSL to it, remove changed elements from SVG, and insert the new one. Downside: May not be possible to apply XSL to temporary in-browser DOMs(?). Also, perhaps a bit convoluted or ugly to maintain. I think that it may be possible to come up with a framework that handles the second scenario, but the challenge would be making it lightweight and not heavily tied to the actual XML schema. Any ideas or other possibilities? Or is there maybe an existing method of doing this which I'm not aware of? UPDATE: To clarify, as I mentioned in a comment below, this aids in separating the draw code from the edit code. For a more concrete example of how this is useful, imagine an element which determines how it is drawn dependent on the value of a property of an adjacent element. It's better to condense that logic directly in the draw code instead of also duplicating it in the edit code.

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• Commitment to Zend Framework - any arguments against?

  - by Pekka

  I am refurbishing a big CMS that I have been working on for quite a number of years now. The product itself is great, but some components, the Database and translation classes for example, need urgent replacing - partly self-made as far back as 2002, grown into a bit of a chaos over time, and might have trouble surviving a security audit. So, I've been looking closely at a number of frameworks (or, more exactly, component Libraries, as I do not intend to change the basic structure of the CMS) and ended up with liking Zend Framework the best. They offer a solid MVC model but don't force you into it, and they offer a lot of professional components that have obviously received a lot of attention (Did you know there are multiple plurals in Russian, and you can't translate them using a simple ($number == 0) or ($number > 1) switch? I didn't, but Zend_Translate can handle it. Just to illustrate the level of thorougness the library seems to have been built with.) I am now literally at the point of no return, starting to replace key components of the system by the Zend-made ones. I'm not really having second thoughts - and I am surely not looking to incite a flame war - but before going onward, I would like to step back for a moment and look whether there is anything speaking against tying a big system closely to Zend Framework. What I like about Zend: As far as I can see, very high quality code Extremely well documented, at least regarding introductions to how things work (Haven't had to use detailed API documentation yet) Backed by a company that has an interest in seeing the framework prosper Well received in the community, has a considerable user base Employs coding standards I like Comes with a full set of unit tests Feels to me like the right choice to make - or at least, one of the right choices - in terms of modern, professional PHP development. I have been thinking about encapsulating and abstracting ZF's functionality into own classes to be able to switch frameworks more easily, but have come to the conclusion that this would not be a good idea because: it would be an unnecessary level of abstraction it could cost performance the big advantage of using a framework - the existence of a developer base that is familiar with its components - would partly be cancelled out therefore, the commitment to ZF would be a deep one. Thus my question: Is there anything substantial speaking against committing to the Zend Framework? Do you have insider knowledge of plans of Zend Inc.'s to go evil in 2011, and make it a closed source library? Is Zend Inc. run by vampires? Are there conceptual flaws in the code base you start to notice when you've transitioned all your projects to it? Is the appearance of quality code an illusion? Does the code look good, but run terribly slow on anything below my quad-core workstation?

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• Avoiding explicit recursion in Haskell

  - by Travis Brown

  The following simple function applies a given monadic function iteratively until it hits a Nothing, at which point it returns the last non-Nothing value. It does what I need, and I understand how it works. lastJustM :: (Monad m) => (a -> m (Maybe a)) -> a -> m a lastJustM g x = g x >>= maybe (return x) (lastJustM g) As part of my self-education in Haskell I'm trying to avoid explicit recursion (or at least understand how to) whenever I can. It seems like there should be a simple non-explicitly recursive solution in this case, but I'm having trouble figuring it out. I don't want something like a monadic version of takeWhile, since it could be expensive to collect all the pre-Nothing values, and I don't care about them anyway. I checked Hoogle for the signature and nothing shows up. The m (Maybe a) bit makes me think a monad transformer might be useful here, but I don't really have the intuitions I'd need to come up with the details (yet). It's probably either embarrassingly easy to do this or embarrassingly easy to see why it can't or shouldn't be done, but this wouldn't be the first time I've used self-embarrassment as a pedagogical strategy. Background: Here's a simplified working example for context: suppose we're interested in random walks in the unit square, but we only care about points of exit. We have the following step function: randomStep :: (Floating a, Ord a, Random a) => a -> (a, a) -> State StdGen (Maybe (a, a)) randomStep s (x, y) = do (a, gen') <- randomR (0, 2 * pi) <$> get put gen' let (x', y') = (x + s * cos a, y + s * sin a) if x' < 0 || x' > 1 || y' < 0 || y' > 1 then return Nothing else return $ Just (x', y') Something like evalState (lastJustM (randomStep 0.01) (0.5, 0.5)) <$> newStdGen will give us a new data point.

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• Separation of domain and ui layer in a composite

  - by hansmaad

  Hi all, i'm wondering if there is a pattern how to separate the domain logic of a class from the ui responsibilities of the objects in the domain layer. Example: // Domain classes interface MachinePart { CalculateX(in, out) // Where do we put these: // Draw(Screen) ?? // ShowProperties(View) ?? // ... } class Assembly : MachinePart { CalculateX(in, out) subParts } class Pipe : MachinePart { CalculateX(in, out) length, diamater... } There is an application that calculates the value X for machines assembled from many machine parts. The assembly is loaded from a file representation and is designed as a composite. Each concrete part class stores some data to implement the CalculateX(in,out) method to simulate behaviour of the whole assembly. The application runs well but without GUI. To increase the usability a GUi should be developed on top of the existing implementation (changes to the existing code are allowed). The GUI should show a schematic graphical representation of the assembly and provide part specific dialogs to edit several parameters. To achieve these goals the application needs new functionality for each machine part to draw a schematic representation on the screen, show a property dialog and other things not related to the domain of machine simulation. I can think of some different solutions to implement a Draw(Screen) functionality for each part but i am not happy with each of them. First i could add a Draw(Screen) method to the MachinePart interface but this would mix-up domain code with ui code and i had to add a lot of functionality to each machine part class what makes my domain model hard to read and hard to understand. Another "simple" solution is to make all parts visitable and implement ui code in visitors but Visitor does not belong to my favorite patterns. I could derive UI variants from each machine part class to add the UI implementation there but i had to check if each part class is suited for inheritance and had to be careful on changes to the base classes. My currently favorite design is to create a parallel composite hierarchy where each component stores data to define a machine part, has implementation for UI methods and a factory method which creates instances of the corresponding domain classes, so that i can "convert" a UI assembly to a domain assembly. But there are problems to go back from the created domain hierarchy to the UI hierarchy for showing calculation results in the drawing for example (imagine some parts store some values during the calculation i want to show in the schematic representation after the simluation). Maybe there are some proven patterns for such problems?

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• How to store array of NSManagedObjects in an NSManagedObject

  - by David Tay

  I am loading my app with a property list of data from a web site. This property list file contains an NSArray of NSDictionaries which itself contains an NSArray of NSDictionaries. Basically, I'm trying to load a tableView of restaurant menu categories each of which contains menu items. My property list file is fine. I am able to load the file and loop through the nodes structure creating NSEntityDescriptions and am able to save to Core Data. Everything works fine and expectedly except that in my menu category managed object, I have an NSArray of menu items for that category. Later on, when I fetch the categories, the pointers to the menu items in a category is lost and I get all the menu items. Am I suppose to be using predicates or does Core Data keep track of my object graph for me? Can anyone look at how I am loading Core Data and point out the flaw in my logic? I'm pretty good with either SQL and OOP by themselves, but am a little bewildered by ORM. I thought that I should just be able to use aggregation in my managed objects and that the framework would keep track of the pointers for me, but apparently not. NSError *error; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:@"http://foo.com"]; NSArray *categories = [[NSArray alloc] initWithContentsOfURL:url]; NSMutableArray *menuCategories = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; for (int i=0; i<[categories count]; i++){ MenuCategory *menuCategory = [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"MenuCategory" inManagedObjectContext:[self managedObjectContext]]; NSDictionary *category = [categories objectAtIndex:i]; menuCategory.name = [category objectForKey:@"name"]; NSArray *items = [category objectForKey:@"items"]; NSMutableArray *menuItems = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; for (int j=0; j<[items count]; j++){ MenuItem *menuItem = [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"MenuItem" inManagedObjectContext:[self managedObjectContext]]; NSDictionary *item = [items objectAtIndex:j]; menuItem.name = [item objectForKey:@"name"]; menuItem.price = [item objectForKey:@"price"]; menuItem.image = [item objectForKey:@"image"]; menuItem.details = [item objectForKey:@"details"]; [menuItems addObject:menuItem]; } [menuCategory setValue:menuItems forKey:@"menuItems"]; [menuCategories addObject:menuCategory]; [menuItems release]; } if (![[self managedObjectContext] save:&error]) { NSLog(@"An error occurred: %@", [error localizedDescription]); }

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• A few problems with Delphi involving Mail Merge, SQL + Databases.

  - by Daniel

  My first problem is with mail merge. I have created a a Data File and a table, yet I am not able to fill my table with information from my Data File. The << just seems to be inserted after wherever the cursor is on the page, which is not where the table is. All that is entered into the actual table is a '59'. Therefore I think I either need to to change the code or be able to move the cursor. Here is the code I am currently using: wrdDoc.Tables.Add(wrdSelection.Range, ADOTable1.FieldCount, 3); wrdDoc.Tables.Item(1).Columns.Item(1).SetWidth(51,wdAdjustNone); wrdDoc.Tables.Item(1).Columns.Item(2).SetWidth(20,wdAdjustNone); wrdDoc.Tables.Item(1).Columns.Item(3).SetWidth(100,wdAdjustNone); // Set the shading on the first row to light gray wrdDoc.Tables.Item(1).Rows.Item(1).Cells .Shading.BackgroundPatternColorIndex := wdGray25; // BOLD the first row wrdDoc.Tables.Item(1).Rows.Item(1).Range.Bold := True; // Center the text in Cell (1,1) wrdDoc.Tables.Item(1).Cell(1,1).Range.Paragraphs.Alignment := wdAlignParagraphCenter; // Fill each row of the table with data wrdDoc.Tables.Item(1).Cell(1, 1).Range.InsertAfter('Time'); wrdDoc.Tables.Item(1).Cell(1, 2).Range.InsertAfter(''); wrdDoc.Tables.Item(1).Cell(1, 3).Range.InsertAfter('Teacher'); For Count := 1 to (ADOTable1.FieldCount - 1) do begin wrdDoc.Tables.Item(1).Cell((Count + 1), 1).Range.InsertAfter(wrdSelection.Range,'Time' + IntToStr(Count)); wrdDoc.Tables.Item(1).Cell((Count + 1), 2).Range.InsertAfter(wrdSelection.Range,'THonorific' + IntToStr(Count)); wrdDoc.Tables.Item(1).Cell((Count + 1), 3).Range.InsertAfter(wrdSelection.Range,'TSurname' + IntToStr(Count)); end; My second problem is that I do not know what the correct SQL syntax is for editing the name of a column in the database (I am using Delphi 7 and Microsoft Jet Engine if that makes a difference). The third problem is that when I add a new column to my database manually (which I need to do) I get a 'violation' error in one of my units when I activate an ADOTable. This only happens on one unit and it happens when I add a column with any name anywhere in the table. I know that is vague but I can't seem to narrow down the problem any further than that. If you could help with me with any of those it would be great. Thanks.

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• Objective-C memory management issue

  - by Toby Wilson

  I've created a graphing application that calls a web service. The user can zoom & move around the graph, and the program occasionally makes a decision to call the web service for more data accordingly. This is achieved by the following process: The graph has a render loop which constantly renders the graph, and some decision logic which adds web service call information to a stack. A seperate thread takes the most recent web service call information from the stack, and uses it to make the web service call. The other objects on the stack get binned. The idea of this is to reduce the number of web service calls to only those appropriate, and only one at a time. Right, with the long story out of the way (for which I apologise), here is my memory management problem: The graph has persistant (and suitably locked) NSDate* objects for the currently displayed start & end times of the graph. These are passed into the initialisers for my web service request objects. The web service call objects then retain the dates. After the web service calls have been made (or binned if they were out of date), they release the NSDate*. The graph itself releases and reallocates new NSDates* on the 'touches ended' event. If there is only one web service call object on the stack when removeAllObjects is called, EXC_BAD_ACCESS occurs in the web service call object's deallocation method when it attempts to release the date objects (even though they appear to exist and are in scope in the debugger). If, however, I comment out the release messages from the destructor, no memory leak occurs for one object on the stack being released, but memory leaks occur if there are more than one object on the stack. I have absolutely no idea what is going wrong. It doesn't make a difference what storage symantics I use for the web service call objects dates as they are assigned in the initialiser and then only read (so for correctness' sake are set to readonly). It also doesn't seem to make a difference if I retain or copy the dates in the initialiser (though anything else obviously falls out of scope or is unwantedly released elsewhere and causes a crash). I'm sorry this explanation is long winded, I hope it's sufficiently clear but I'm not gambling on that either I'm afraid. Major big thanks to anyone that can help, even suggest anything I may have missed?

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• Boxy Submit Form

  - by jornbjorndalen

  I am using the boxy jQuery plugin in my page to display a form on a clickEvent for the fullCalendar plugin. It is working all right , the only problem I have is that the form in boxy brings up the confirmation dialog the first time the dialog is opened and when the user clicks "Ok" it submits the form a second time which generates 2 events on my calendar and 2 entries in my database. My code looks like this inside fullCalendar: dayClick: function(date, allDay, jsEvent, view) { var day=""+date.getDate(); if(day.length==1){ day="0"+day; } var year=date.getFullYear(); var month=date.getMonth()+1; var month=""+month; if(month.length==1){ month="0"+month; } var defaultdate=""+year+"-"+month+"-"+day+" 00:00:00"; var ele = document.getElementById("myform"); new Boxy(ele,{title: "Add Task", modal: true}); document.getElementById("title").value=""; document.getElementById("description").value=""; document.getElementById("startdate").value=""+defaultdate; document.getElementById("enddate").value=""+defaultdate; } I also use validators on the forms fields: $.validator.addMethod( "datetime", function(value, element) { // put your own logic here, this is just a (crappy) example return value.match(/^([0-9]{4})-([0-1][0-9])-([0-3][0-9])\s([0-1][0-9]|[2][0-3]):([0-5][0-9]):([0-5][0-9])$/); }, "Please enter a date in the format YYYY-mm-dd hh:MM:ss" ); var validator=$("#myform").validate({ onsubmit:true, rules: { title: { required: true }, startdate: { required: true, datetime: true }, enddate: { required: true, datetime: true } }, submitHandler: function(form) { //this function renders a new event and makes a call to a php script that inserts it into the db addTask(form); } }); And the form looks like this: <form id ='myform'> <table border='1' width='100%'> <tr><td align='right'>Title:</td><td align='left'><input id='title' name='title' size='30'/></td></tr> <tr><td align='right'>Description:</td><td align='left'><textarea id='description' name='description' rows='4' cols='30'></textarea></td></tr> <tr><td align='right'>Start Date:</td><td align='left'><input id='startdate' name='startdate' size='30'/></td></tr> <tr><td align='right'>End Date:</td><td align='left'><input id='enddate' name='enddate' size='30' /></td></tr> <tr><td colspan='2' align='right'><input type='submit' value='Add' /></td></tr> </table> </form>

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• Writing a mini-language with haskell, trouble with "while" statements and blocks { }

  - by Nibirue

  EDIT: problem partially solved, skip to the bottom for update. I'm writing a small language using haskell, and I've made a lot of progress, but I am having trouble implementing statements that use blocks, like "{ ... }". I've implemented support for If statements like so in my parser file: stmt = skip +++ ifstmt +++ assignment +++ whilestmt ifstmt = symbol "if" >> parens expr >>= \c -> stmt >>= \t -> symbol "else" >> stmt >>= \e -> return $ If c t e whilestmt = symbol "while" >> parens expr >>= \c -> symbol "\n" >> symbol "{" >> stmt >>= \t -> symbol "}" >> return $ While c t expr = composite +++ atomic And in the Syntax file: class PP a where pp :: Int -> a -> String instance PP Stmt where pp ind (If c t e) = indent ind ++ "if (" ++ show c ++ ") \n" ++ pp (ind + 2) t ++ indent ind ++ "else\n" ++ pp (ind + 2) e pp ind (While c t) = indent ind ++ "while (" ++ show c ++") \n" ++ "{" ++ pp (ind + 2) t ++ "}" ++ indent ind Something is wrong with the while statement, and I don't understand what. The logic seems correct, but when I run the code I get the following error: EDIT: Fixed the first problem based on the first reply, now it is not recognizing my while statment which I assume comes from this: exec :: Env -> Stmt -> Env exec env (If c t e) = exec env ( if eval env c == BoolLit True then t else e ) exec env (While c t) = exec env ( if eval env c == BoolLit True then t ) The file being read from looks like this: x = 1; c = 0; if (x < 2) c = c + 1; else ; -- SEPARATE FILES FOR EACH x = 1; c = 1; while (x < 10) { c = c * x; x = x + 1; } c I've tried to understand the error report but nothing I've tried solves the problem.

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• Visual studio 2010 colourizers, intellisense and the rest. Where to start!!

  - by Owen

  Ok, before I begin I realize that there is a lot of documentation on this subject but I have thus far failed to get even basic colourization working for VS2010. My goal is to simply get to a point where I can open a document and everything is coloured red, from here I can implement the relevant parsing logic. Here's what I have tried/found: 1) Downloaded all the relevent SDK's and such- Found the ook sample (http://code.msdn.microsoft.com/ookLanguage) - didn't build, didn't work. 2) Knowing almost nothing about MEF read through "Implementing a Language Service By Using the Managed Package Framework" - http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb166533(v=VS.100).aspx This was pretty much a copy and paste of all the basic stuff here, and also updating some references which were out of date with the sample see: http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/vsx/thread/a310fe67-afd2-4592-b295-3fc86fec7996 Now, I have got to a point where when running the package MEF appears to have hooked up correctly (I know this because with the debugger open I can see that the packages initialize and FDoIdle methods are being hit). When I open a file of the extension I have registered with the ProvideLanguageExtensionAttribute everything dies as if in an endless loop, yet no debug symbols hit (though they are loaded). Looking at the ook sample and the MEF examples they seem to be totally different approaches to the same problem. In the ook sample there are notions of Clasifications and Completion controllers which aren't mentioned in the MEF example. Also, they don't seem to create a Package or Language service, so I have no idea how it should work? With the MEF example, my assumption is that I need to hook into the "IScanner.ScanTokenAndProvideInfoAboutIt" to provide syntax highlighting? Which would be fine if I could ever hit this method. So my first question I guess is which approach should I be taking here? Or do they both somehow tie together? My second questions is, where can I find a basic fully working project that implements bog standard basic syntax highlighting and intellisense or VS2010? Thirdly, in the MEF example when I created a Package there were a bunch of test projects created for me. I appears that the integration tests launch the VS2010 test rig somehow, but the test fails. It would be good to write my service with tests but I have no idea what/how I can test each interaction so any references to testing Language services would be helpful. Finally, please throw any resource/book links my way that I may find useful. Cheers, Chris. N.B. Sorry I realize this is part question part rant, but I have never been so confused.

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• Declare Locally or Globally in Delphi?

  - by lkessler

  I have a procedure my program calls tens of thousands of times that uses a generic structure like this: procedure PrintIndiEntry(JumpID: string); type TPeopleIncluded = record IndiPtr: pointer; Relationship: string; end; var PeopleIncluded: TList<TPeopleIncluded>; PI: TPeopleIncluded; begin { PrintIndiEntry } PeopleIncluded := TList<TPeopleIncluded>.Create; { A loop here that determines a small number (up to 100) people to process } while ... do begin PI.IndiPtr := ...; PI.Relationship := ...; PeopleIncluded.Add(PI); end; DoSomeProcess(PeopleIncluded); PeopleIncluded.Clear; PeopleIncluded.Free; end { PrintIndiEntry } Alternatively, I can declare PeopleIncluded globally rather than locally as follows: unit process; interface type TPeopleIncluded = record IndiPtr: pointer; Relationship: string; end; var PeopleIncluded: TList<TPeopleIncluded>; PI: TPeopleIncluded; procedure PrintIndiEntry(JumpID: string); begin { PrintIndiEntry } { A loop here that determines a small number (up to 100) people to process } while ... do begin PI.IndiPtr := ...; PI.Relationship := ...; PeopleIncluded.Add(PI); end; DoSomeProcess(PeopleIncluded); PeopleIncluded.Clear; end { PrintIndiEntry } procedure InitializeProcessing; begin PeopleIncluded := TList<TPeopleIncluded>.Create; end; procedure FinalizeProcessing; begin PeopleIncluded.Free; end; My question is whether in this situation it is better to declare PeopleIncluded globally rather than locally. I know the theory is to define locally whenever possible, but I would like to know if there are any issues to worry about with regards to doing tens of thousands of of "create"s and "free"s? Making them global will do only one create and one free. What is the recommended method to use in this case? If the recommended method is to still define it locally, then I'm wondering if there are any situations where it is better to define globally when defining locally is still an option.

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• Can I mix declarative and programmatic layout in GWT 2.0?

  - by stuff22

  I'm trying to redo an existing panel that I made before GWT 2.0 was released. The panel has a few text fields and a scrollable panel below in a VerticalPanel. What I'd like to do is to make the scrollable panel with UIBinder and then add that to a VerticalPanel Below is an example I created to illustrate this: public class ScrollTablePanel extends ResizeComposite{ interface Binder extends UiBinder<Widget, ScrollTablePanel > { } private static Binder uiBinder = GWT.create(Binder.class); @UiField FlexTable table1; @UiField FlexTable table2; public Test2() { initWidget(uiBinder.createAndBindUi(this)); table1.setText(0, 0, "testing 1"); table1.setText(0, 1, "testing 2"); table1.setText(0, 2, "testing 3"); table2.setText(0, 0, "testing 1"); table2.setText(0, 1, "testing 2"); table2.setText(0, 2, "testing 3"); table2.setText(1, 0, "testing 4"); table2.setText(1, 1, "testing 5"); table2.setText(1, 2, "testing 6"); } } then the xml: <ui:UiBinder xmlns:ui='urn:ui:com.google.gwt.uibinder' xmlns:g='urn:import:com.google.gwt.user.client.ui' xmlns:mail='urn:import:com.test.scrollpaneltest'> <g:DockLayoutPanel unit='EM'> <g:north size="2"> <g:FlexTable ui:field="table1"></g:FlexTable> </g:north> <g:center> <g:ScrollPanel> <g:FlexTable ui:field="table2"></g:FlexTable> </g:ScrollPanel> </g:center> </g:DockLayoutPanel> </ui:UiBinder> Then do something like this in the EntryPoint: public void onModuleLoad() { VerticalPanel vp = new VerticalPanel(); vp.add(new ScrollTablePanel()); vp.add(new Label("dummy label text")); vp.setWidth("100%"); RootLayoutPanel.get().add(vp); } But when I add the ScrollTablePanel to the VerticalPanel, only the first FlexTable (test1) is visible on the page, not the whole ScrollTablePanel. Is there a way to make this work where it is possible to mix declarative and programmatic layout in GWT 2.0?

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• Twisted + SQLAlchemy and the best way to do it.

  - by Khorkrak

  So I'm writing yet another Twisted based daemon. It'll have an xmlrpc interface as usual so I can easily communicate with it and have other processes interchange data with it as needed. This daemon needs to access a database. We've been using SQL Alchemy in place of hard coding SQL strings for our latest projects - those mostly done for web apps in Pylons. We'd like to do the same for this app and re-use library code that makes use of SQL Alchemy. So what to do? Well of course since that library was written for use in a Pylons app it's all the straight-forward blocking style code that everyone is accustomed to and all of the non-blocking is magically handled by Pylons via threading, thread locals, scoped sessions and so on. So now for Twisted I guess I'm a bit stuck. I could: Just write the sql I need directly if it's minimal and use the dbapi pool in twisted to do runInteractions etc when I need to hit the db. Use the objects and inherently blocking methods in our library and block now and then in my Twisted daemon. Bah. Use sAsync which was last updated in 2008 and kind of reuse the models we have defined already but not really and it does address code that needs to work in Pylons either. Does that even work with the latest version SQL Alchemy? Who knows. That project looked great though - why was it apparently abandoned? Spawn a separate subprocess and have it deal with the library code and all it's blocking, the results being returned back to my daemon when ready as objects marshalled via YAML over xmlrpc. Use deferToThread and then expunge the objects returned having made sure to do eager loads so that I have all my stuff that I might need. Seems kind of ugha to me. I'm also stuck using Python 2.5.4 atm so no 2.6 yet and I don't think I can just do an import from future to get access to the cool new multiprocessing module stuff in there. That's OK though I guess as we've got dealing with interprocess communication down pretty well. So I'm leaning towards option 4 mostly as that would avoid the mortal sin of logic duplication with option 1 while also staying the heck away from threads. Any better ideas?

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• WCF App using Peer Chat app as example does not work.

  - by splate

  I converted a VB .Net 3.5 app to use peer to peer WCF using the available Microsoft example of the Chat app. I made sure that I copied the app.config file for the sample(modified the names for my app), added the appropriate references. I followed all the tutorials and added the appropriate tags and structure in my app code. Everything runs without any errors, but the clients only get messages from themselves and not from the other clients. The sample chat application does run just fine with multiple clients. The only difference I could find is that the server on the sample is targeting the framework 2.0, but I assume that is wrong and it is building it in at least 3.0 or the System.ServiceModel reference would break. Is there something that has to be registered that the sample is doing behind the scenes or is the sample a special project type? I am confused. My next step is to copy all my classes and logic from my app to the sample app, but that is likely a lot of work. Here is my Client App.config: <client><endpoint name="thldmEndPoint" address="net.p2p://thldmMesh/thldmServer" binding="netPeerTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="PeerTcpConfig" contract="THLDM_Client.IGameService"></endpoint></client> <bindings><netPeerTcpBinding> <binding name="PeerTcpConfig" port="0"> <security mode="None"></security> <resolver mode="Custom"> <custom address="net.tcp://localhost/thldmServer" binding="netTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="TcpConfig"></custom> </resolver> </binding></netPeerTcpBinding> <netTcpBinding> <binding name="TcpConfig"> <security mode="None"></security> </binding> </netTcpBinding> </bindings> Here is my server App.config: <services> <service name="System.ServiceModel.PeerResolvers.CustomPeerResolverService"> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="net.tcp://localhost/thldmServer"/> </baseAddresses> </host> <endpoint address="net.tcp://localhost/thldmServer" binding="netTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="TcpConfig" contract="System.ServiceModel.PeerResolvers.IPeerResolverContract"> </endpoint> </service> </services> <bindings> <netTcpBinding> <binding name="TcpConfig"> <security mode="None"></security> </binding> </netTcpBinding> </bindings> Thanks ahead of time.

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• Representation of a DateTime as the local to remote user

  - by TwoSecondsBefore

  Hello! I was confused in the problem of time zones. I am writing a web application that will contain some news with dates of publication, and I want the client to see the date of publication of the news in the form of corresponding local time. However, I do not know in which time zone the client is located. I have three questions. I have to ask just in case: does DateTimeOffset.UtcNow always returns the correct UTC date and time, regardless of whether the server is dependent on daylight savings time? For example, if the first time I get the value of this property for two minutes before daylight savings time (or before the transition from daylight saving time back) and the second time in 2 minutes after the transfer, whether the value of properties in all cases differ by only 4 minutes? Or here require any further logic? (Question #1) Please see the following example and tell me what you think. I posted the news on the site. I assume that DateTimeOffset.UtcNow takes into account the time zone of the server and the daylight savings time, and so I immediately get the correct UTC server time when pressing the button "Submit". I write this value to a MS SQL database in the field of type datetime2(0). Then the user opens a page with news and no matter how long after publication. This may occur even after many years. I did not ask him to enter his time zone. Instead, I get the offset of his current local time from UTC using the javascript function following way: function GetUserTimezoneOffset() { var offset = new Date().getTimezoneOffset(); return offset; } Next I make the calculation of the date and time of publication, which will show the user: public static DateTime Get_Publication_Date_In_User_Local_DateTime( DateTime Publication_Utc_Date_Time_From_DataBase, int User_Time_Zone_Offset_Returned_by_Javascript) { int userTimezoneOffset = User_Time_Zone_Offset_Returned_by_Javascript; // For // example Javascript returns a value equal to -300, which means the // current user's time differs from UTC to 300 minutes. Ie offset // is UTC +6. In this case, it may be the time zone UTC +5 which // currently operates summer time or UTC +6 which currently operates the // standard time. // Right? (Question #2) DateTimeOffset utcPublicationDateTime = new DateTimeOffset(Publication_Utc_Date_Time_From_DataBase, new TimeSpan(0)); // get an instance of type DateTimeOffset for the // date and time of publication for further calculations DateTimeOffset publication_DateTime_In_User_Local_DateTime = utcPublicationDateTime.ToOffset(new TimeSpan(0, - userTimezoneOffset, 0)); return publication_DateTime_In_User_Local_DateTime.DateTime;// return to user } Is the value obtained correct? Is this the right approach to solving this problem? (Question #3)

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• PHP Based session variable not retaining value. Works on localhost, but not on server.

  - by Foo

  I've been trying to debug this problem for many hours, but to no avail. I've been using PHP for many years, and got back into it after long hiatus, so I'm still a bit rusty. Anyways, my $_SESSION vars are not retaining their value for some reason that I can't figure out. The site worked on localhost perfectly, but uploading it to the server seemed to break it. First thing I checked was the PHP.ini server settings. Everything seems fine. In fact, my login system is session based and it works perfectly. So now that I know $_SESSIONS are working properly and retaining their value for my login, I'm presuming the server is setup and the problem is in my script. Here's a stripped version of the code that's causing a problem. $type, $order and $style are not being retained after they are set via a GET variable. The user clicks a link, which sets a variable via GET, and this variable is retained for the remainder of their session. Is there some problem with my logic that I'm not seeing? <?php require_once('includes/top.php'); //first line includes a call to session_start(); require_once('includes/db.php'); $type = filter_input(INPUT_GET, 't', FILTER_VALIDATE_INT); $order = filter_input(INPUT_GET, 'o', FILTER_VALIDATE_INT); $style = filter_input(INPUT_GET, 's', FILTER_VALIDATE_INT); /* According to documentation, filter_input returns a NULL when variables are undefined. So, if t, o, or s are not set via URL, $type, $order and $style will be NULL. */ print_r($_SESSION); /* All other sessions, such as the login session, etc. are displayed here. After the sessions are set below, they are displayed up here to... simply with no value. This leads me to believe the problem is with the code below, perhaps? */ // If $type is not null (meaning it WAS set via the get method above) // or it's false because the validation failed for some reason, // then set the session to the $type. I removed the false check for simplicity. // This code is being successfully executed, and the data is being stored... if(!is_null($type)) { $_SESSION['type'] = $type; } if(!is_null($order)) { $_SESSION['order'] = $order; } if(!is_null($style)) { $_SESSION['style'] = $style; } $smarty->display($template); ?> If anyone can point me in the right direction, I'd greatly appreciate it. Thanks.

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• Adding a clustered index to a SQL table: what dangers exist for a live production system?

  - by MoSlo

  Right, keep in mind i need to describe this by abstracting all possible confidential info: I've been put in charge of a 10-year old transactional system of which the majority business logic is implemented at database level (triggers, stored procedures etc). Win2000 server, MSSQL 2000 Enterprise. No immediate plans for replacing/updating the system are being considered :( The core process is a program that executes transactions - specifically, it executes a stored procedure with various parameters, lets call it sp_ProcessTrans. The program executes the stored procedure at asynchronous intervals. By itself, things work fine. But there are 30 instances of this program on remotely located workstations, all of them asynchronously executing sp_ProcessTrans and then retrieving data from the SQL server (execution is pretty regular - ranging 0 to 60 times a minute, depending on what items the program instance is responsible for) . Performance of the system has dropped considerably with 10 yrs of data growth: the reason is the deadlocks and specifically deadlock wait times. The deadlock is on the Employee table. I have discovered: In sp_ProcessTrans' execution, it selects from an Employee table 7 times (dont ask) The select is done on a field that is NOT the primary key No index exists on this field. Thus a table scan is performed. 7 times. per transaction So the reason for deadlocks is clear. I created a non-unique ordered clustered index on the field (field looks good, almost unique, NUM(7), very rarely changes). Immediate improvement in the test environment. The problem is that i cannot simulate the deadlocks in a test environment (I'd need 30 workstations; i'd need to simulate 'realistic' activity on those stations, so visualization is out). I need to know if i must schedule downtime. Creating an index shouldn't be a risky operation for MSSQL, but is there any danger (data corruption in transactions/select statements/extra wait time etc) to create this field index on the production database while the transactions are still taking place? (although i can select a time when transactions are fairly quiet through the 30 stations) Are there any hidden dangers i'm not seeing (not looking forward to needing to restore the DB if something goes wrong, restoring would take a lot of time with 10yrs of data).

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• How should I organize my C# classes? [closed]

  - by oscar.fimbres

  I'm creating an email generator system. I'm creating some clases and I'm trying to make things right. By the time, I have created 5 classes. Look at the class diagram: I'm going to explain you each one. Person. It's not a big deal. Just have two constructors: Person(fname, lname1, lname2) and Person(token, fname, lname1, lname2). Note that email property stays without value. StringGenerator. This is a static class and it has only a public function: Generate. The function receives a Person class and it will return a list of patterns for the email. MySql. It contains all the necessary to connect to a database. Database. This class inherits from MySql class. It has particular functions for the database. This gets all the registries from a table (function GetPeople) and return a List. Each person from the list contains all data except Email. Also it can add records (List but this must contains an available email). An available email is when an email doesn't have another person. For that reason, I have a method named ExistsEmail. Container. This is the class which is causing me some problems. It's like a temporary container. It supposed to have a people list from GetPeople (in Database class) and for each person it adds, it must generate a list of possible names (StringGenerator.Generate), then it selects one of the list and it must check out if exists in the database or in the same container. As I told above this is temporal, it may none of the possible emails is available. So the user can modify or enter a custom email available and update the list in this container. When all the email's people are available, it sends a list to add in the database, It must have a Flush method, to insert all the people in the database. I'm trying to design correct class. I need a little help to improve or edite the classes, because I want to separate the logic and visual, and learn of you. I hope you've been able to understand me. Any question or doubt, please let me know. Anyway, I attached the solution here to better understand it: http://www.megaupload.com/?d=D94FH8GZ

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• Unable to find assembly, C#

  - by PlasmaCube

  So, here's the deal. I've got two ASP.NET applications, both of which use SQLServer Session State management. They also both use the same server. I've got a custom session class in an external DLL, which fully implements serialization, and which both applications have referenced. Each application, in turn, has a class which inherits from the DLL class, and both applications use their own respective classes for their session state. Now, what I was trying to accomplish was that if you wanted to go to the other application, it could look in the session (they all use the same session key) and treat the existing object there as the base (the one from the DLL), extract whatever login info you need, then overwrite the session object with your own. Unfortunately, when the second application attempts to read the session, it seems that it looks for the DLL of the first application, and when it can't find it, it throws an exception. Is there a flaw in my logic? Here's an example: // Global.asax of the 1st app protected void Session_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { Session.Add( "UserSessionKey", new FirstUserSession()); // FirstUserSession inherits from BaseUserSession } Now the second application: // Global.asax of 2nd app protected void Session_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (Session["UserSessionKey"] != null) { BaseUserSession existing = (BaseUserSession)Session["UserSessionKey"]; SecondUserSession session = new SecondUserSession(); // This also inherits from BaseUserSession session.Authenticated = existing.Authenticated; session.Id = existing.Id; session.Role = existing.Role; Session.Add("UserSessionKey", session); } else { Session.Add("UserSessionKey", new SecondUserSession()); } } Here's the exception stack trace. In this case, "MyCBC" is the real name of the first app, and "ASPTesting" is the second app. [SerializationException: Unable to find assembly 'MyCBC, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null'.] System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.BinaryAssemblyInfo.GetAssembly() +1871092 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.ObjectReader.GetType(BinaryAssemblyInfo assemblyInfo, String name) +7545734 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.ObjectMap..ctor(String objectName, String[] memberNames, BinaryTypeEnum[] binaryTypeEnumA, Object[] typeInformationA, Int32[] memberAssemIds, ObjectReader objectReader, Int32 objectId, BinaryAssemblyInfo assemblyInfo, SizedArray assemIdToAssemblyTable) +120 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.ObjectMap.Create(String name, String[] memberNames, BinaryTypeEnum[] binaryTypeEnumA, Object[] typeInformationA, Int32[] memberAssemIds, ObjectReader objectReader, Int32 objectId, BinaryAssemblyInfo assemblyInfo, SizedArray assemIdToAssemblyTable) +52 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.__BinaryParser.ReadObjectWithMapTyped(BinaryObjectWithMapTyped record) +190 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.__BinaryParser.ReadObjectWithMapTyped(BinaryHeaderEnum binaryHeaderEnum) +61 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.__BinaryParser.Run() +253 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.ObjectReader.Deserialize(HeaderHandler handler, __BinaryParser serParser, Boolean fCheck, Boolean isCrossAppDomain, IMethodCallMessage methodCallMessage) +168 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.BinaryFormatter.Deserialize(Stream serializationStream, HeaderHandler handler, Boolean fCheck, Boolean isCrossAppDomain, IMethodCallMessage methodCallMessage) +203 System.Web.Util.AltSerialization.ReadValueFromStream(BinaryReader reader) +788 System.Web.SessionState.SessionStateItemCollection.ReadValueFromStreamWithAssert() +55 System.Web.SessionState.SessionStateItemCollection.DeserializeItem(String name, Boolean check) +281 System.Web.SessionState.SessionStateItemCollection.get_Item(String name) +19 System.Web.SessionState.HttpSessionStateContainer.get_Item(String name) +13 System.Web.SessionState.HttpSessionState.get_Item(String name) +13 ASPTesting._Default.Page_Load(Object sender, EventArgs e) in C:\Documents and Settings\sarsstu\My Documents\Projects\Testing\ASPTesting\ASPTesting\Default.aspx.cs:20 System.Web.Util.CalliHelper.EventArgFunctionCaller(IntPtr fp, Object o, Object t, EventArgs e) +14 System.Web.Util.CalliEventHandlerDelegateProxy.Callback(Object sender, EventArgs e) +35 System.Web.UI.Control.OnLoad(EventArgs e) +99 System.Web.UI.Control.LoadRecursive() +50 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +627 Thanks to everyone in advance.

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• Correct use of a "for...in" loop in javascript?

  - by jnkrois

  Hello everybody, before I ask my question I wanted to let everybody know that I appreciate the fact that there's always somebody out there willing to help, and on my end I'll try to give back to the community as much as I can. Thanks Now, I would like to get some pointers as to how to properly take advantage of the "for...in" loop in JavaScript, I already did some research and tried a couple things but it is still not clear to me how to properly use it. Let's say I have a random number of "select" tags in an HTML form, and I don't require the user to select an option for all of them, they can leave some untouched if they want. However I need to know if they selected none or at least one. The way I'm trying to find out if the user selected any of them is by using the "for...in" loop. For example: var allSelected = $("select option:selected"); var totalSelected = $("select option:selected").length; The first variable produces an array of all the selected options. The second variable tells me how many selected options I have in the form (select tags could be more than one and it changes every time). Now, in order to see if any has been selected I loop through each element (selected option), and retrieve the "value" attribute. The default "option" tag has a value="0", so if any selected option returns a value greater than 0, I know at least one option has been selected, however it does not have to be in order, this is my loop so far: for(var i = 0; i < totalSelected; i++){ var eachOption = $(allSelected[i]).val(); var defaultValue = 0; if(eachOption == defaultValue){ ...redirect to another page }else if(eachOption > defaultValue){ ... I display an alert } } My problem here is that as soon as the "if" matches a 0 value, it sends the user to the next page without testing the rest of the elements in the array, and the user could have selected the second or third options. What I really want to do is check all the elements in the array and then take the next action, in my mind this is how I could do it, but I'm not getting it right: var randomValue = 25; for(randomValue in allSelected){ var found = true; var notFound = false if(found){ display an alert }else{ redirect to next page } } This loop or the logic I'm using are flawed (I'm pretty sure), what I want to do is test all the elements in the array against a single variable and take the next action accordingly. I hope this makes some sense to you guys, any help would be appreciated. Thanks, JC

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• Unity JS - simple if statements not behaving as expected?

  - by IHazABone

  I have a simple script (please no remarks on the fact that I'm not using a switch statement or better code, this is the earliest version and written this way by a peer, I am improving it) that takes an object and moves it back and forth. For some reason, the variable time gets stuck at 249. It is probably an obvious bug with this inefficient logic, but I cannot seem to find it. var speed = 1; private var time = 0; function Start() { } function Update() { if(condition == true)moveStuff(); } function moveStuff() { var timeSwitch = false; if(time == 0)timeSwitch = false; if(time == timeSet)timeSwitch = true; if(direction == 1) { if(timeSwitch == false) { transform.Translate(Vector3.up * (Time.deltaTime * speed)); time += 1; Debug.Log(time); }else if(timeSwitch == true) { transform.Translate(Vector3.up * ((Time.deltaTime * speed) * -1)); time -= 1; Debug.Log(time); } } else if(direction == 2) { if(timeSwitch == false) { transform.Translate(Vector3.down * (Time.deltaTime * speed)); time += 1; Debug.Log("Moved down. "); }else if(timeSwitch == true){ transform.Translate(Vector3.down * ((Time.deltaTime * speed) * -1)); time -= 1; } } else if(direction == 3) { if(timeSwitch == false) { transform.Translate(Vector3.forward * (Time.deltaTime * speed)); time += 1; Debug.Log("Moved forward. "); }else if(timeSwitch == true){ transform.Translate(Vector3.forward * ((Time.deltaTime * speed) * -1)); time -= 1; } } else if(direction == 4) { if(timeSwitch == false) { transform.Translate(Vector3.back * (Time.deltaTime * speed)); time += 1; Debug.Log("Moved back. "); }else if(timeSwitch == true){ transform.Translate(Vector3.back * ((Time.deltaTime * speed) * -1)); time -= 1; } } else if(direction == 5) { if(timeSwitch == false) { transform.Translate(Vector3.right * (Time.deltaTime * speed)); time += 1; Debug.Log("Moved right. "); }else if(timeSwitch == true){ transform.Translate(Vector3.right * ((Time.deltaTime * speed) * -1)); time -= 1; } } else if(direction == 6) { if(timeSwitch == false) { transform.Translate(Vector3.left * (Time.deltaTime * speed)); time += 1; Debug.Log("Moved left. "); }else if(timeSwitch == true){ transform.Translate(Vector3.left * ((Time.deltaTime * speed) * -1)); time -= 1; } } }

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• Passing arguments between classes - use public properties or pass a properties class as argument?

  - by devoured elysium

  So let's assume I have a class named ABC that will have a list of Point objects. I need to make some drawing logic with them. Each one of those Point objects will have a Draw() method that will be called by the ABC class. The Draw() method code will need info from ABC class. I can only see two ways to make them have this info: Having Abc class make public some properties that would allow draw() to make its decisions. Having Abc class pass to draw() a class full of properties. The properties in both cases would be the same, my question is what is preferred in this case. Maybe the second approach is more flexible? Maybe not? I don't see here a clear winner, but that sure has more to do with my inexperience than any other thing. If there are other good approaches, feel free to share them. Here are both cases: class Abc1 { public property a; public property b; public property c; ... public property z; public void method1(); ... public void methodn(); } and here is approach 2: class Abc2 { //here we make take down all properties public void method1(); ... public void methodn(); } class Abc2MethodArgs { //and we put them here. this class will be passed as argument to //Point's draw() method! public property a; public property b; public property c; ... public property z; } Also, if there are any "formal" names for these two approaches, I'd like to know them so I can better choose the tags/thread name, so it's more useful for searching purposes. That or feel free to edit them.

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• PHP MSSQL : How to display output when query return no row

  - by vamps

  i have a problem with my PHP-MSSQL query. i have a join table that need to give a result something be like this: Department Group A Group B Total A+B WORKHOUR A OTHOUR A WORKHOUR B OTHOUR B WORKHOUR OTHOUR HR 10 15 25 0 35 15 IT 5 5 5 5 Admin 12 12 12 12 the query will count how many employee as per given date (admin will enter data and once submitted, the query will give the above result). The problem is, the final output is a mess when there's no row to be displayed. the column is shifted to the right. i.e: only Group A in IT only Group B in Admin Department Group A Group B Total A+B WORKHOUR A OTHOUR A WORKHOUR B OTHOUR B WORKHOUR OTHOUR HR 10 15 25 0 35 15 IT 5 5 5 5 Admin 12 12 12 12 my question is, how to prevent this to happen? i've tried everything with While.... if else.. but the result is still the same. how to display output "0" if no rows to return? echo "0"; this is my QUERY: select DD.DPT_ID,DPT.DEPARTMENT_NAME,TU.EMP_GROUP, sum(DD.WORK_HOUR) AS WORK_HOUR, sum(DD.OT_HOUR) AS OT_HOUR FROM DEPARTMENT_DETAIL DD left join DEPARTMENT DPT ON (DD.DEPT_ID=DPT.DEPT_ID) LEFT JOIN TBL_USERS TU ON (TU.EMP_ID=DD.EMP_ID) WHERE DD_DATE>='2012-01-01' AND DD_DATE<='2012-01-31' AND TU.EMP_GROUP!=2 GROUP BY DD.DEPT_ID, DPT.DEPARTMENT_NAME,TU.EMP_GROUP ORDER BY DPT.DEPARTMENT_NAME this is one of the logic that i've used, but doesn't return the result that i want:: while($row = mssql_fetch_array($displayResult)) { if ((!$row["WORK_HOUR"])&&(!$row["OT_HOUR"])) { echo "<td >"; echo "empty"; echo "&nbsp;</td>"; echo "<td >"; echo "empty"; echo "&nbsp;</td>"; } else { echo "<td>"; echo $row["WORK_HOUR"]; echo "&nbsp;</td>"; echo "<td>"; echo $row["OT_HOUR"]; echo "&nbsp;</td>"; } } please help. i've been doing this for 2 days. @__@

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