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  • [ZF & jQuery] How can I access an URL using AJAX, receive no response, but just manipulate HTML?

    - by rasouza
    I don't know if it's better used with AJAX (tell me, otherwise) but here is my problem: Assuming i'm using Zend Framework, I have a table with several registries from a database with a delete button on each row. That's like this [...] <tbody> <?php foreach ($row as $reg) { ?> <tr <?php if ($reg['value'] < 0) { echo "class='error'"; } ?>> <td><?php echo $reg['creditor'] ?></td> <td><?php echo $reg['debtor'] ?></td> <td><?php echo $reg['reason'] ?></td> <td>R$ <?php echo number_format(abs($reg['value']), 2, ',', ' ')?></td> <td><a href="#" id="<?php echo $reg['id']; ?>" class="delete"><img src="http://192.168.0.102/libraries/css/blueprint/plugins/buttons/icons/cross.png" alt=""/></a></td> </tr> <?php } ?> </tbody> [...] I would like to .fadeOut() and delete (through the link history/delete/id/ROW_ID ) a table row when clicked in the respective delete button. My deleteAction() has no render. It really shouldn't have one, it just deletes a row in the database. Still, how can I make it happen? I tried: // TR Fading when deleted $('.delete') .click(function() { $.ajax({ type: 'GET', url: 'history/delete/id/'+$(this).attr('id'), success: function() { $(this).parent().parent().fadeOut(); } }); return false; }); without success

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  • How does jquery display an image received from an ajax request?

    - by Gnee
    I have this working great, but I'd like a deeper understanding of what is actually going on behind the scenes. I am using Jquery's Ajax method to pull 5 blog posts (returning only the title and first photo). A PHP script grabs the blog posts' title and first photo and sticks it in an array and sends it back to my browser as JSON. Upon receiving the JSON object, Jquery grabs the first member of the JSON object and displays it's title and photo. In a gallery I made, using buttons – the user can iterate the 1-5 posts. So the actual AJAX call happens right away, and only once. I am basically using this kind of setup: $('my_div').html(json_obj[i]) and each click does a i++. So jquery is plucking these blog posts from my computers memory, my web browsers cache, or some kind of cache in the Javascript engine? One of the things it's returning is a pretty gnarly animated gif. I just wonder if it constantly running in the background (but not visible), stealing processing cycles...etc. Or Javascript just inserting (say a flash movie) into the DOM, but before hand does nothing but take up a little memory (no processing). Anyway, I'm just curious. If someone is a guru on this, I'd love to hear your take. Thanks!!

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  • How to process AJAX requests more securely in PHP?

    - by animuson
    Ok, so I want to send AJAX requests to my website from my Flash games to process data, but I don't want people downloading them, decompiling them, then sending fake requests to be processed, so I'm trying to figure out the most secure way to process in the PHP files. My first idea was to use Apache's built in Authorization module to require a username and password to access the pages on a separate subdomain of my website, but then you'd have to include that username and password in the AJAX request anyway so that seems kind of pointless to even try. My current option looks pretty promising but I want to make sure it will work. Basically it just checks the IP address being sent using REMOTE_ADDR to make sure it's the IP address that my server runs on. <? $allowed = new Array("64.120.211.89", "64.120.211.90"); if (!in_array($_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR'], $allowed)) header("HTTP/1.1 403 Forbidden"); ?> Both of those IP addresses point to my server. Things I'm worried about: 1) If I send a request from Flash/ActionScript, will that affect the IP address in any way? 2) Is it possible for malicious users to change the IP address that is being sent with REMOTE_ADDR to one of my IP addresses? Any other ways you would suggest that might be more secure?

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  • A little confusion about AJAX and inserting into DOM..

    - by Gnee
    I have this working great, but I'd like a deeper understanding of what is actually going on behind the scenes. I am using Jquery's Ajax method to pull 5 blog posts (returning only the title and first photo). A PHP script grabs the blog posts' title and first photo and sticks it in an array and sends it back to my browser as JSON. Upon receiving the JSON object, Jquery grabs the first member of the JSON object and displays it's title and photo. In a gallery I made, using buttons – the user can iterate the 1-5 posts. So the actual AJAX call happens right away, and only once. I am basically using this kind of setup: $('my_div').html(json_obj[i]) and each click does a i++. So jquery is plucking these blog posts from my computers memory, my web browsers cache, or some kind of cache in the Javascript engine? One of the things it's returning is a pretty gnarly animated gif. I just wonder if it constantly running in the background (but not visible), stealing processing cycles...etc. Or Javascript just inserting (say a flash movie) into the DOM, but before hand does nothing but take up a little memory (no processing). Anyway, I'm just curious. If someone is a guru on this, I'd love to hear your take. THanks!!

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  • Helper class to dynamically modify the Location configuration element

    - by anas
    The location element is used to restrict user or role access on a specific path.The path could be a folder,aspx page,ashx,axd or any other file that is handled by ASP.NET runtime. In most cases, you use that element declarativley in the web.config file of your website.In this case, you are declaratively telling the ASP.NET runtime and specifically the UrlAuthorizationModule or the FileAuthorizationModule (depending on the Authentication Mode) to grant/deny the access to that path for the specified...(read more)

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  • ASP.MVC 1.0 complex ViewModel not populating on Action

    - by Graham
    Hi, I'm 3 days into learning MVC for a new project and i've managed to stumble my way over the multitude of issues I've come across - mainly about something as simple as moving data to a view and back into the controller in a type-safe (and manageable) manner. This is the latest. I've seen this reported before but nothing advised has seemed to work. I have a complex view model: public class IndexViewModel : ApplicationViewModel { public SearchFragment Search { get; private set; } public IndexViewModel() { this.Search = new SearchFragment(); } } public class SearchFragment { public string ItemId { get; set; } public string Identifier { get; set; } } This maps to (the main Index page): %@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<IndexViewModel>" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <% Html.BeginForm("Search", AvailableControllers.Search, FormMethod.Post); %> <div id="search"> <% Html.RenderPartial("SearchControl", Model.Search); %> </div> <% Html.EndForm(); %> </asp:Content> and a UserControl: <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<SearchFragment>" %> <p> <label for="itemId"> <%= Html.Resource("ItemId") %></label> <%= Html.TextBox("itemId", Model.ItemId)%> </p> <p> <label for="title"> <%= Html.Resource("Title") %></label> <%= Html.TextBox("identifier", Model.Identifier)%> </p> <p> <input type="submit" value="<%= Html.Resource("Search") %>" name="search" /> </p> This is returned to the following method: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Search(IndexViewModel viewModel) { .... } My problem is that when the view model is rehydrated from the View into the ViewModel, the SearchFragment elements are null. I suspect this is because the default model binder doesn't realise the HTML ItemId and Identifier elements rendered inline in the View map to the SearchFragment class. When I have two extra properties (ItemId and Identifier) in the IndexViewModel, the values are bound correctly. Unfortunately, as far as I can tell, I must use the SearchFragment as I need this to strongly type the Search UserControl... as the control can be used anywhere it can operate under any parent view. I really don't want to make it use "magic strings". There's too much of that going on already IMO. I've tried prefixing the HTML with "Search." in the hope that the model binder would recognise "Search.ItemId" and match to the IndexViewModel "Search" property and the ItemId within it, but this doesn't work. I fear I'm going to have to write my own ModelBinder to do this, but surely this must be something you can do out-of-the-box?? Failing that is there any other suggestions (or link to someone who has already done this?) Here's hoping....

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  • html button elemenents and onserverclick attribute in asp.net

    - by Adrian Adkison
    I have been experiencing some very strange behavior using html buttons with the onserverclick attribute. What I am trying to do is use jQuery to designate the default button on the page. By default button I mean the button that is "clicked" when a user hits enter. In testing, I would hit enter while in an input field and sometimes the intended "default" button was clicked and the server side method defined in the corresponding onserverclick attribute was hit. Other times a post back was made without hitting the server method. In order to isolate the issue I created a minimal test case and found some very interesting results. client side: <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title>Untitled Page</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="/scripts/jquery-1.4.min.js"></script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:Label ID="_response" runat="server"></asp:Label> <input id="input1" type="text" /> <input id="input2" type="text" /> <button id="first" type="button" class="defaultBtn" runat="server" onserverclick="ServerMethod1">test1</button> <button id="second" type="button" runat="server" onserverclick="ServerMethod2">test2</button> </form> <script type="text/javascript"> jQuery('form input').keyup( function(e) { if ((e.which && e.which == 13) || (e.keyCode && e.keyCode == 13)) { $('button.defaultBtn').click(); return true; } } ); </script> </body> </html> server side: public partial class admin_spikes_ButtonSubmitTest : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { } protected void ServerMethod1(object sender, EventArgs e) { _response.Text = "server method1 was hit"; } protected void ServerMethod2(object sender, EventArgs e) { _response.Text = "server method2 was hit"; } } What I found was that everything worked as expected with this code except when I removed one of the input elements. In Firefox 3.6 and IE 8 when only one input exists on the page, hitting enter does not trigger the onserverclick, it makes a post back without even being jQuery "clicked" or actually "clicked". You can test this by starting with two inputs and clicking "test2". This will output "server method2 was hit". Then just hit enter and the output will be "server method1 was hit. Now take away an input and run the same test. Click "test2" see the results, then hit enter and you will see that nothing will change because the "test1" method was never hit. Does anyone know what is going on? Thanks p.s. Chrome worked as expected

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  • Is asp.net caching my sql results?

    - by Christian W
    I have the following method in an App_Code/Globals.cs file: public static XmlDataSource getXmlSourceFromOrgid(int orgid) { XmlDataSource xds = new XmlDataSource(); var ctx = new SensusDataContext(); SqlConnection c = new SqlConnection(ctx.Connection.ConnectionString); c.Open(); SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(String.Format("select orgid, tekst, dbo.GetOrgTreeXML({0}) as Subtree from tblOrg where OrgID = {0}", orgid), c); var rdr = cmd.ExecuteReader(); rdr.Read(); StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); sb.AppendFormat("&lt;node orgid=\"{0}\" tekst=\"{1}\"&gt;",rdr.GetInt32(0),rdr.GetString(1)); sb.Append(rdr.GetString(2)); sb.Append("&lt;/node&gt;"); xds.Data = sb.ToString(); xds.ID = "treedata"; rdr.Close(); c.Close(); return xds; } This gives me an XML-structure to use with the asp.net treeview control (I also use the CssFriendly extender to get nicer code) My problem is that if I logon on my pc with a code that gives me access on a lower level in the tree hierarchy (it's an orgianization hierarchy), it somehow "remembers" what level i logon at. So when my coworker tests from her computer with another code, giving access to another place in the tree, she get's the same tree as me. (The tree is supposed to show your own level and down.) I have added a html-comment to show what orgid it passes to the function, and the orgid passed is correct. So either the treeview caches something serverside, or the sqlquery caches it's result somehow... Any ideas? Sql function: ALTER function [dbo].[GetOrgTreeXML](@orgid int) returns XML begin RETURN (select org.orgid as '@orgid', org.tekst as '@tekst', [dbo].GetOrgTreeXML(org.orgid) from tblOrg org where (@orgid is null and Eier is null) or Eier=@orgid for XML PATH('NODE'), TYPE) end Extra code as requested: int orgid = int.Parse(Session["org"].ToString()); string orgname = context.Orgs.Where(q => q.OrgID == orgid).First().Tekst; debuglit.Text = String.Format("<!-- Id: {0} \n name: {1} -->", orgid, orgname); var orgxml = Globals.getXmlSourceFromOrgid(orgid); tvNavtree.DataSource = orgxml; tvNavtree.DataBind(); Where "debuglit" is a asp:Literal in the aspx file. EDIT: I have narrowed it down. All functions returns correct values. It just doesn't bind to it. I suspect the CssFriendly adapter to have something to do with it. I disabled the CssFriendly adapter and the problem persists... Stepping through it in debug it's correct all the way, with the stepper standing on "tvNavtree.DataBind();" I can hover the pointer over the tvNavtree.Datasource and see that it actually has the correct data. So something must be faulting in the binding process...

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  • Deep Zoom in Ajax - Possible? Any examples out there?

    - by Phil
    I have an idea to implement a deep zoom type interface hosted in a browser for sports training data (speed, distance, heart rate etc.) However, rather than images I actually want to zoom into a hierarchy of information. For example, the initial display would contain a grid of years - hover over 2008, for example, and spin the mouse wheel (or click) will zoom into that year but during the zoom I want 2008 to fade out and be replaced with a calendar of months. Again zoom into a month and the months are replaced with the months calendar, zoom into a day and you finally see a chart with the training data plotted on it. All the time only dates with actual data would be highlighted in some fashion. My question is whether this would even be possible and whether anyone has seen examples of this already. I'm imagining that most of the time the next level of information could be cached in the browser (in fact, because this is calendar-based, I can calculate most of that and cache the dates to be highlighted.) I could also zoom into an empty chart whilst an Ajax thread is fetching the data to display. I've never tried anything like this before and I'm especially interested in whether DHTML would be capable of this sort of zoom (I suspect not and I would have to resort to Silverlight) and whether the Ajax execution would be uninterrupted whilst the browser rendering thread is kept busy zooming.

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  • PHP check http referer for form submitted by AJAX, secure?

    - by Michael Mao
    Hi all: This is the first time I am working for a front-end project that requires server-side authentication for AJAX requests. I've encountered problems like I cannot make a call of session_start as the beginning line of the "destination page", cuz that would get me a PHP Warning : Warning: session_start() [function.session-start]: Cannot send session cache limiter - headers already sent (output started at C:\xampp\htdocs\comic\app\ajaxInsert Book.php:1) in C:\xampp\htdocs\comic\app\common.php on line 10 I reckon this means I have to figure out a way other than checking PHP session variables to authenticate the "caller" of this PHP script, and this is my approach : I have a "protected" PHP page, which must be used as the "container" of my javascript that posts the form through jQuery $.ajax(); method In my "receiver" PHP script, what I've got is: <?php define(BOOKS_TABLE, "books"); define(APPROOT, "/comic/"); define(CORRECT_REFERER, "/protected/staff/addBook.php"); function isRefererCorrect() { // the following line evaluates the relative path for the referer uri, // Say, $_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'] returns "http://localhost/comic/protected/staff/addBook.php" // Then the part we concern is just this "/protected/staff/addBook.php" $referer = substr($_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'], 6 + strrpos($_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'], APPROOT)); return (strnatcmp(CORRECT_REFERER, $referer) == 0) ? true : false; } //http://stackoverflow.com/questions/267546/correct-http-header-for-json-file header('Content-type: application/json charset=UTF-8'); header('Cache-Control: no-cache, must-revalidate'); echo json_encode(array ( "feedback"=>"ok", "info"=>isRefererCorrect() )); ?> My code works, but I wonder is there any security risks in this approach? Can someone manipulate the post request so that he can pretend that the caller javascript is from the "protected" page? Many thanks to any hints or suggestions.

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  • Proper status codes for JSON responses to Ajax calls?

    - by anonymous coward
    My project is returning JSON to Ajax calls from the browser. I'm wondering what the proper status code is for sending back with responses to invalid (but successfully handled) data submissions. For example, jQuery has the following two particular callbacks when making Ajax requests: success: Fired when a 200/2xx status code is delivered along with the response. error: Fired when 4xx, 5xx, etc, status codes come back with the response. If a user attempts to create a new "Person" object, I send back a JSON representation of the newly created object upon success, thus giving javascript access to the necessary unique ID's for the new object, etc. This, of course, is sent with a 200 status code. If a user submits malformed or invalid data (say, an invalid/incomplete "name" field), I would like to send back the validation error messages via JSON. (I don't see why this would be a bad thing). My question is: in doing so, should I send a 200 status code, because I successfully handled their invalid data? Therefore, I'd be using the jQuery success callback, but simply check for errors... Or, should I use a 4xx status code, perhaps 'Bad Request', because the data they sent me is invalid? (and thus, use the error callback to do the necessary client-side notifications).

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  • ASP.NET Login Page Redirection Problem

    - by Daniel
    Hello everyone! I'm building a silverlight application hosted on ASP.NET Web App. / IIS7 / SSL-enabled website. For security, I put my silverlight page inside a Members folder in the ASP.NET Web Application, and restricted access from anonymous users.(see web.config below) when users try to access pages under Members folder, they get redirected to https://www.ssldemo.com/authenticationtest/login.aspx. (see web.config below) (I've mapped www.ssldemo.com to 127.0.0.1). for security, I'm switching to HTTPS in login.aspx, and back to HTTP after validation. below is the code for login.aspx.cs. protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { LoginControl.LoggedIn += new EventHandler(LoginControl_LoggedIn); } void LoginControl_LoggedIn(object sender, EventArgs e) { //for going to ReturnURL & switching back to HTTP string serverName = HttpUtility.UrlEncode(Request.ServerVariables["SERVER_NAME"]); string returnURL = Request["ReturnURL"]; Response.Redirect(ResolveClientUrl("http://" + serverName + returnURL)); } The problem is, when I deploy another application to http://www.ssldemo.com/authenticationtest/members/AnotherApplication/ and open http://www.ssldemo.com/authenticationtest/members/AnotherApplication/default.aspx, Users get redirected to https://www.ssldemo.com/authenticationtest/login.aspx?ReturnUrl=%2fauthenticationtest%2fmembers%2fanotherapplication%2fdefault.aspx. but even when I enter the correct credentials at login page, I get redirected to the same login page again, not to the ReturnUrl. when I looked into fiddler, it said '302 object moved to here.' Thank you for reading! Any input will be much appreciated. <configuration> <connectionStrings> <add name="CompanyDatabase" connectionString="Data Source=192.168.0.2;Initial Catalog=SomeTable;User ID=Username;Password=P@ssword" /> </connectionStrings> <system.web> <compilation debug="true" targetFramework="4.0" /> <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms slidingExpiration="true" timeout="15" loginUrl="https://www.ssldemo.com/authenticationtest/login.aspx" defaultUrl="~/Members/Default.aspx" > </forms> </authentication> <!--Custom Membership Provider--> <membership defaultProvider="MyMembershipProvider" userIsOnlineTimeWindow="15"> <providers> <clear /> <add name="MyMembershipProvider" type="AuthenticationTest.Web.MyMembershipProvider" connectionStringName="CompanyDatabase" applicationName="AuthenticationTest.Web"/> </providers> </membership> </system.web> <!--securing folders--> <location path="Members"> <system.web> <authorization> <deny users="?"/> </authorization> </system.web> </location> </configuration>

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  • Why do browsers encode special characters differently with ajax requests?

    - by Andrei Oniga
    I have a web application that reads the values of a few input fields (alphanumeric) and constructs a very simple xml that is passes to the server, using jQuery's $.ajax() method. The template for that xml is: <request> <session>[some-string]</session> <space>[some-string]</space> <plot>[some-string]</plot> ... </request> Sending such requests to the server when the inputs contain Finnish diacritical characters (such as ä or ö) raises a problem in terms of character encoding with different browsers. For instance, if I add the word Käyttötarkoitus" in one of the inputs, here's how Chrome and Firefox send EXACTLY the same request to the server: Chrome: <request> <session>{string-hidden}</session> <space>2080874</space> <plot>Käyttötarkoitus</plot> ... </request> FF 12.0: <request> <session>{string-hidden}</session> <space>2080874</space> <plot>Käyttötarkoitus</plot> ... </request> And here is the code fragment that I use to send the requests: $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: url, dataType: 'xml;charset=UTF-8', data: xml, success: function(xml) { // }, error: function(jqXHR, textStatus, errorThrown) { // } }); Why do I get different encodings and how do I get rid of this difference? I need to fix this problem because it's causing other on the server-side.

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  • Is this state-of-the-art Ajax/jQuery, or should I do it differently?

    - by AP257
    Hi everyone: I'm using Ajax and jQuery to do some cool client-side stuff. Basically, if the user chooses a subject from a from a drop-down list, I want to auto-populate the page with a set of book details. However, I've built the Ajax from Google results and bits of string. I don't know if what I've done is up-to-date, or whether there are now much neater ways of doing it! Here's what I have: can it be improved? $("#subjectlist").change(function() { if (window.XMLHttpRequest) { xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } else { xmlhttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { var book_details = eval(xmlhttp.responseText); alert(book_details[0]["url"]); // To be added: extra code to populate HTML results. document.getElementById("book_results").innerHTML=xmlhttp.responseText; } } xmlhttp.open("GET","/subject_json/?id=" + $("#subjectlist").val(),true); xmlhttp.send(); }); Thanks for any advice!

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  • When I try to pass large amounts of information using jquery $.ajax(post) method. it throws potenti

    - by dotnetrocks
    I am trying to create a preview window for my texteditor in my blog page. I need to send the content to the server to clean up the text entered before I can preview it on the preview window. I was trying to use $.ajax({ type: method, url: url, data: values, success: LoadPageCallback(targetID), error: function(msg) { $('#' + targetID).attr('innerHTML', 'An error has occurred. Please try again.'); } }); Whenever I tried to click on the preview button it returns an XMLHTTPRequest error. The error description - Description: Request Validation has detected a potentially dangerous client input value, and processing of the request has been aborted. This value may indicate an attempt to compromise the security of your application, such as a cross-site scripting attack. You can disable request validation by setting validateRequest=false in the Page directive or in the configuration section. However, it is strongly recommended that your application explicitly check all inputs in this case. The ValidateRequest for the page is set to false. Is there a way I can set validaterequest to false for the ajax call.Please advise Thank you for reading my post.

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  • Does IE completely ignore cache control headers for AJAX requests?

    - by Joshua Hayworth
    Hello there, I've got, what I would consider, a simple test web site. A single page with a single button. Here is a copy of the source I'm working with if you would like to download it and play with it. When that button is clicked, it creates a JavaScript timer that executes once a second. When the timer function is executed, An AJAX call is made to retrieve a text value. That text value is then placed into the DOM. What's my problem? IE Caching. Crack open Task Manager and watch what happens to the iexplorer.exe process (IE 8.0.7600.16385 for me) while the timer in that page is executing. See the memory and handle count getting larger? Why is that happening when, by all accounts, I have caching turned off. I've got the jQuery cache option set to false in $.ajaxSetup. I've got the CacheControl header set to no-cache and no-store. The Expires header is set to DateTime.Now.AddDays(-1). The headers are set in both the page code-behind as well as the HTTP Handler's response. Anybody got any ideas as to how I could prevent IE from caching the results of the AJAX call? Here is what the iexplorer.exe process looks like in ProcessMonitor. I believe that the activity shown in this picture is exactly what I'm attempting to prevent.

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  • Repeater not repeating :0) (asp.net)(vb)

    - by Phil
    Morning stackoverflow, I have a repeater, with the following code in my aspx page; <asp:Repeater ID="Contactinforepeater" runat="server"> <HeaderTemplate> <h1>Contact Information</h1> </HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <table width="50%"> <tr> <td colspan="2"><%#Container.DataItem("position")%></td> </tr> <tr> <td>Name:</td> <td><%#Container.DataItem("surname")%></td> </tr> <tr> <td>Telephone:</td> <td><%#Container.DataItem("telephone")%></td> </tr> <tr> <td>Fax:</td> <td><%#Container.DataItem("fax")%></td> </tr> <tr> <td>Email:</td> <td><%#Container.DataItem("email")%></td> </tr> </table> </ItemTemplate> <SeparatorTemplate> <br /><hr /><br /> </SeparatorTemplate> </asp:Repeater> Then I have this code in my aspx.vb to get the data; If did = 0 Then s = "sql works on db server" x = New SqlCommand(s, c) x.Parameters.Add("@contentid", Data.SqlDbType.Int) x.Parameters("@contentid").Value = contentid c.Open() r = x.ExecuteReader r.Read() Contactinforepeater.DataSource = r Contactinforepeater.DataBind() End If c.Close() r.Close() If Not did = 0 Then s = "sql works on db server" x = New SqlCommand(s, c) x.Parameters.Add("@contentid", SqlDbType.Int) x.Parameters("@contentid").Value = contentid x.Parameters.Add("@did", SqlDbType.Int) x.Parameters("@did").Value = did c.Open() r = x.ExecuteReader r.Read() Contactinforepeater.DataSource = r Contactinforepeater.DataBind() End If r.Close() c.Close() If 'did' is or is not '0' I still get no data outputted to the page. I just get the 'contact information' h1 header from the header template. I've tested the value of s in sqlsms and it works fine. Position, surname, telephone, fax, email all exist in the db. The particular page I am checking exists and has 1 set of contact information attached. Where am I going wrong? Thanks! ps. Does my syntax appear correct? pps. I am also open to different ways of achieving the same result. I tried via an sqldatasource but ran into problems when using variables as params (there is no option to select them, only controls, querystring etc)

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  • Why ajax doesn't work unless I refresh or use location.href?

    - by Connor Tang
    I am working on a html project, which will eventually package by Phonegap. So I am trying to encode the data from html form to JSON format, then use ajax send to a php file resides on server, and receive the response to do something else. Now I use <a href='login.html'> in my index.html to open the login page. In my login page, I have this <script> $(document).ready(function(e) { $('#loginform').submit(function(){ var jData = { "email": $('#emailLogin').val(), "password": $('#Password').val()}; $.ajax({ url: 'PHP/login.php', type:'POST', data: jData, dataType: 'json', async: false, error: function(xhr,status){ //reload(); location.href='index.html'; alert('Wrong email and password'); }, success: function(data){ if(data[1] == 1){ var Id_user = data[0]; location.href='loginSuccess.html'; } } }); }); }); </script> to send my data to server. But I found that it won't work, it's still in the login page. I tried to enter data and submit again, it's still nothing happen. Until I refresh the login page and enter data again, it can give an error message or go to the loginsuccess page. However, when I use <script> function loadLogin(){ location.href='login.html'; } </script> to open the login page, everything works well. So what cause this? How can I modify this piece of code to make it better?

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  • virtualizing a .net application

    - by vvavepacket
    My professor ask me to create an application and it will be run on a machine without .NET installed. My application utilizes .NET 4.0 (just basic c# necessites but without the LINQ and complicated references) and he only wants executable file. So how can we run this application on his machine without install .NET (like the setup files and stuff)???? I was thinking of virtualizing via VMware ThinApp, but I find it difficult since it requires the application to be installed, yet my professor only wants the application to be in exe format (so thinapp cannot track the changes in my system). Any alternative? suggestions?

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  • Looking for a reliable web provider that supports ASP.NET? Shared LAMP account a plus.

    - by Cory Charlton
    My title is probably not very clear but here's the deal. I'm a software engineer with experience in many languages but my current focus is Windows/Web applications using C# and .NET. I'm currently running a personal blog using WordPress and love it. I need to setup a website for my consulting company and, while I enjoy the canned benefits of a CMS like WordPress, would like to build a custom ASP.NET site. Either way my current LAMP host is not secure so I'm looking to switch and looking for a reliable alternative. My ultimate wish list of requirements would be a cost-effective (currently spending ~$120/yr for web+domain hosting) host that would allow me to deploy my own ASP.NET code and host a WordPress blog (IIS w/ PHP to external MySQL or separate LAMP site). Thanks in advance for your recommendations (Google is not good for this type of search :-D) Edit: I'm fine if I have to ditch WordPress. Really I'm just looking for a good ASP.NET host, the WordPress compatibility would be a plus.

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  • How to configure IIS 7.5 to allow special chars in Url for ASP.NET 3.5?

    - by Sebastian P.R. Gingter
    I'm trying to configure my IIS 7.5 to allow specials chars in the url for ASP.NET. This is important to support wide-spread legacy url's on a new system. Sample url: http://mydomain.com/FileWith%inTheName.html This would be encoded in the url and requested as http://mydomain.com/FileWith25%inTheName.html This simply works, when creating a new web in IIS 7.5, placing a file with the percentage sign in the file name in the web root and pointing the browser to it. This does not work, however, when the web site is an ASP.NET application. ASP.NET always returns a 400.0 - Bad Request error in the WindowsAuthentication module from the StaticFile handler, when pointing to that url. It however displays the requested url correctly and also resolves correctly to the correct physical file (the information from the field 'Physical Path' from the Server error page points to the physically available file). There are hints on how to enable this, so I followed the instructions on these websites step by step: http://dirk.net/2008/06/09/ampersand-the-request-url-in-iis7/ http://adorr.net/2010/01/configure-iis-to-accept-url-with-special-characters.html The second one actually sums up the information from the first post and adds some more information about x64 systems (we're running x64) and on an additional web.config change for this. I tried all that, and still can't get this running from an asp.net web application. And yes: I rebooted after applying the registry changes. So, what do I have to do in addition to the settings described in above posts, to support the legacy url's which contain percentage characters? Additional info: Application Pool mode is integrated. Push after some days. No idea anyone?

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  • How do I repair the .Net Framework on Windows 7

    - by Micah
    So I ran spyware doctor and it had a bunch of malware stuff. I clicked "Remove" but failed to create a restore point first. Now my websites running on .net 2.0 as well as visual studio 2008 are not working. My websites running .net 4 and visual studio 2010 are working just fine. I'm assuming I need to restore either .net 2.0/3.5 or something. Any idea on how to do this? Thanks!

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  • "Turn Windows Features on or off" when installing .NET 3.5 SP1?

    - by user1413
    I am trying to install a program on my Win7 machine and it says that I need to have .NET 2.0 or later installed. Since Win7 comes with .NET pre-installed, I called support and they told me to just re-install .NET since my .NET install is probably corrupted. The program I am trying to install is SNGWiz (http://www.sngwiz.com/). I do not think its installer is borked. However, when I install .NET 3.5 SP1 using the download from the Microsoft .NET web site, I get the following error: "You must use 'Turn Windows features on or off' in the Control Panel to install or configure Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5 SP1." I have gone to the Windows Features on/off panel and have turned 3.5 both on and off and have tried to re-install .NET 3.5 SP1 under both situations. But it has failed with the same error. What to do?

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  • Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio not working after installing .Net Framework 4

    - by smith watson
    Yesterday I installed .Net Framework 4 as it was required by Liquid XML Studio, but just after installing it, My SQL Server Management Studio stopped working. As soon as open the IDE I get package microsoft sql management studio package failed to load I tried pretty much all the solution posted on the internet but could not get it working, today when I removed the .Net Framework 4, SQL server management studio started working again. Then just to test, I installed the .Net Framework 4 back ... and I started getting the same problem in management studio. I want both on my machine ! how can i do it ? PS : OS is Windows 7

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