Search Results

Search found 11954 results on 479 pages for 'gets'.

Page 348/479 | < Previous Page | 344 345 346 347 348 349 350 351 352 353 354 355  | Next Page >

• LaTex: why partially showing up references?

  - by HH

  The bib.style part may be the problem. If I do not reference to references, do they show up? I have listed all errors below, the file compiles so I don't know whether they are related to partially-showing-up-references. For example, work with many authors gets only one author listed. I want to see references fully, not partially. Headers $ grep bib header.tex \usepackage{natbib} \bibliographystyle{abbrvnat} Errors $ grep -n -A 7 -B 7 Error *.log combined.log-505-! Illegal unit of measure (pt inserted). combined.log-506-<to be read again> combined.log-507- \futurelet combined.log-508-l.353 \hline combined.log-509- combined.log-510-? combined.log-511- combined.log:512:! Package caption Error: cite undefined. combined.log-513- combined.log-514-See the caption package documentation for explanation. combined.log-515-Type H <return> for immediate help. combined.log-516- ... combined.log-517- combined.log-518-l.374 ...n={CPU O(mlog(n))}, cite={topcoder:node}] combined.log-519- -- combined.log-559- [] combined.log-560- combined.log-561-) [10] combined.log-562-\openout2 = `references.aux'. combined.log-563- combined.log-564- (./references.tex combined.log-565- combined.log:566:! LaTeX Error: \include cannot be nested. combined.log-567- combined.log-568-See the LaTeX manual or LaTeX Companion for explanation. combined.log-569-Type H <return> for immediate help. combined.log-570- ... combined.log-571- combined.log-572-l.1 \include{timeUse.tex} Bibs.bib @misc{ Gundersen, author = "G. Gundersen", title = "Data Structures in Java for Matrix Computations", year = "2002" } @book{ Lennart, author = "R. Lennart", title = "Mathematics Handbook for Science and Engineering BETA", year = "2004" }

  Read the article

• Find all substrings of a string - StringIndexOutOfBoundsException

  - by nazar_art

  I created class Word. Word has a constructor that takes a string argument and one method getSubstrings which returns a String containing all substring of word, sorted by length. For example, if the user provides the input "rum", the method returns a string that will print like this: r u m ru um rum I want to concatenate the substrings in a String, separating them with a newline ("\n"). Then return the string. Code: public class Word { String word; public Word(String word) { this.word = word; } /** * Gets all the substrings of this Word. * @return all substrings of this Word separated by newline */ public String getSubstrings() { String str = ""; int i, j; for (i = 0; i < word.length(); i++) { for (j = 0; j < word.length(); j++) { str = word.substring(i, i + j); str += "\n"; } } return str; } But it throws exception: java.lang.StringIndexOutOfBoundsException: String index out of range: -1 at java.lang.String.substring(String.java:1911) I stuck at this point. Maybe, you have other suggestions according this method signature public String getSubstrings(). How to solve this issue?

  Read the article

• Windows console

  - by b-gen-jack-o-neill

  Hello. Well, I have a simple question, at least I hope its simple. I was interested in win32 console for a while. Our teacher told us, that windows console is just for DOS and real mode emulation purposes. Well, I know it is not true, becouse DOS applications are runned by emulator which only uses console to display output. Another thing I learned is that console is built into Windows since NT. Well. But what I could not find is, how actually are console programs written to use console. I use Visual C++ for programming (well, for learning). So, the only thing I need to do for using console is select console project. I first thought that windows decides wheather it run app in console or tries to run app in window mode. So I created win32 program and tried printf(). Well, I could not compile it. I know that by definition printf() prints text or variables to stdout. I also found that stdout is the console interface for output. But, I could not find what actually stdout is. So, basicly what I want to ask is, where is the difference between console app and win32 app. I thought that windows starts console when it gets command from "console-family" functions. But obvisously it does not, so there must be some code that actually commands windows to create console interface. And the second question is, when the console is created, how does windows recognize which console terminal is used for what app? I mean, what actually is stdout? Is it a area in memory , or some windows routine that is called? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Locating memory leak in Apache httpd process, PHP/Doctrine-based application

  - by Sam

  I have a PHP application using these components: Apache 2.2.3-31 on Centos 5.4 PHP 5.2.10 Xdebug 2.0.5 with Remote Debugging enabled APC 3.0.19 Doctrine ORM for PHP 1.2.1 using Query Caching and Results Caching via APC MySQL 5.0.77 using Query Caching I've noticed that when I start up Apache, I eventually end up 10 child processes. As time goes on, each process will grow in memory until each one approaches 10% of available memory, which begins to slow the server to a crawl since together they grow to take up 100% of memory. Here is a snapshot of my top output: PID USER PR NI VIRT RES SHR S %CPU %MEM TIME+ COMMAND 1471 apache 16 0 626m 201m 18m S 0.0 10.2 1:11.02 httpd 1470 apache 16 0 622m 198m 18m S 0.0 10.1 1:14.49 httpd 1469 apache 16 0 619m 197m 18m S 0.0 10.0 1:11.98 httpd 1462 apache 18 0 622m 197m 18m S 0.0 10.0 1:11.27 httpd 1460 apache 15 0 622m 195m 18m S 0.0 10.0 1:12.73 httpd 1459 apache 16 0 618m 191m 18m S 0.0 9.7 1:13.00 httpd 1461 apache 18 0 616m 190m 18m S 0.0 9.7 1:14.09 httpd 1468 apache 18 0 613m 190m 18m S 0.0 9.7 1:12.67 httpd 7919 apache 18 0 116m 75m 15m S 0.0 3.8 0:19.86 httpd 9486 apache 16 0 97.7m 56m 14m S 0.0 2.9 0:13.51 httpd I have no long-running scripts (they all terminate eventually, the longest being maybe 2 minutes long), and I am working under the assumption that once each script terminates, the memory it uses gets deallocated. (Maybe someone can correct me on that). My hunch is that it could be APC, since it stores data between requests, but at the same time, it seems weird that it would store data inside the httpd process. How can I track down which part of my app is causing the memory leak? What tools can I use to see how the memory usage is growing inside the httpd process and what is contributing to it?

  Read the article

• How can I edit an exe's resources (File Description, Icon, etc.) using a command line utility?

  - by Coder7862396

  The whole story: I have created a fancy .NET program which has an installer created by the Visual Studio Installer (VSI). The VSI creates 2 files (setup.exe and MyProgramSetup.msi). I understand the reasons for both files being needed, however, I only want to distribute a SINGLE executable installer to users. I do not want them to see 2 files and have to choose between them. In order to do this I have merged the 2 files into a self-extracting archive using IExpress (as seen in this answer: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/535966/merge-msi-and-exe). This works well, however, the self-extracting archive that gets created has an ugly icon and confusing file info (the File Description is "Win32 Cabinet Self-Extractor" with 43 black spaces after it). I need to replace the icon with my custom one and change some of the file properties like "Description", "Company", etc. I would like to have this automatically done as a build step so having a program which is a command line/console utility would be great. I've searched for a while now and can only find one program which does exactly what I want (ResourceTuner Console: http://www.heaventools.com/command-line_resource_editor.htm) but it costs an arm and a leg and my budget is $0. Does anyone know a better way to achieve what I want, or know of a program which can replace an executable's resources without having to use a GUI? By the way, I have also tried "SiComponents Resource Builder 3" which can't even open the executable, and "Julien Audo's ResEdit" which just crashes when I execute the command: "resedit.exe -convert "Modified Resources.rc" "MyProgramSetup.exe"

  Read the article

• Adding a class to the $tag surrounding a <label> in a Zend_Form with the Label decorator

  - by Roderik

  I'm trying to get the following html out of Zend_Form <div class="group wat-cf"> <div class="left"> <label class="label right">Username</label> </div> <div class="right"> <input type="text" class="text_field"> </div> </div> Using the following code: $username->setAttrib("class", "text_field") ->setDecorators(array( 'ViewHelper', 'Description', 'Errors', array(array('data'=>'HtmlTag'), array('tag' => 'div', 'class' => 'right')), array('Label', array('tag' => 'div', 'class' => 'label right')), array(array('row'=>'HtmlTag'),array('tag'=>'div', 'class' => 'group wat-cf')) )); I can get the next fragment <div class="group wat-cf"> <div id="username-label"> <label for="username" class="label right required">Username:</label> </div> <div class="right"> <input type="text" name="username" id="username" value="" class="text_field"> </div> </div> so apart from some extra id's and required classes i don't mind, i need to get a class "left" on div id="username-label" Now adding class to the Label line, gets the class added on the element. I also don't see and option to do this in the Label decorator code itself. So i need a custom Label decorator, or is there some other way i'm missing?

  Read the article

• Knowing the selections made on a 'multichooser' box in a mechanical turk hit (using Command Line Too

  - by gveda

  Hi All, I am new to Amazon Mechanical Turk, and wanted to create a hit with a qualification task. I am using the command line tools interface. One of the questions in my qualification task involves users selecting a number of options. I use a 'multichooser' selection type. Now I want to grade the responses based on the selections, where each selection has a different score. So for example, s1 has a score of 5, s2 of 10, s3 of 6, and so on. If the user selects s1 and s3, he/she gets a score of 11. Unfortunately, doing something like the following does not work: <AnswerOption> <SelectionIdentifier>s1</SelectionIdentifier> <AnswerScore>5</AnswerScore> </AnswerOption> <AnswerOption> <SelectionIdentifier>s2</SelectionIdentifier> <AnswerScore>10</AnswerScore> </AnswerOption> <AnswerOption> <SelectionIdentifier>s3</SelectionIdentifier> <AnswerScore>6</AnswerScore> </AnswerOption> If I do this, when I select multiple things, I get a score of 0. If I select only one option, say s1, then I get the appropriate score. Can you please help me on how to go about this? I could ask the same question 5 times with the same options, but then users might choose the same answer multiple times - something I wish to avoid. Thanks! Gaurav

  Read the article

• SSIS - How do I use a resultset as input in a SQL task and get data types right?

  - by thursdaysgeek

  I am trying to merge records from an Oracle database table to my local SQL table. I have a variable for the package that is an Object, called OWell. I have a data flow task that gets the Oracle data as a SQL statment (select well_id, well_name from OWell order by Well_ID), and then a conversion task to convert well_id from a DT_STR of length 15 to a DT_WSTR; and convert well_name from a DT_STR of length 15 to DT_WSTR of length 50. That is then stored in the recordset OWell. The reason for the conversions is the table that I want to add records to has an identity field: SSIS shows well_id as a DT_WSTR of length 15, well_name a DT_WSTR of length 50. I then have a SQL task that connects to the local database and attempts to add records that are not there yet. I've tried various things: using the OWell as a result set and referring to it in my SQL statement. Currently, I have the ResultSet set to None, and the following SQL statment: Insert into WELL (WELL_ID, WELL_NAME) Select OWELL_ID, OWELL_NAME from OWell where OWELL_ID not in (select WELL.WELL_ID from WELL) For Parameter Mapping, I have Paramater 0, called OWell_ID, from my variable User::OWell. Parameter 1, called OWell_Name is from the same variable. Both are set to VARCHAR, although I've also tried NVARCHAR. I do not have a Result set. I am getting the following error: Error: 0xC002F210 at Insert records to FLEDG, Execute SQL Task: Executing the query "Insert into WELL (WELL_ID, WELL_NAME) Select OWELL..." failed with the following error: "An error occurred while extracting the result into a variable of type (DBTYPE_STR)". Possible failure reasons: Problems with the query, "ResultSet" property not set correctly, parameters not set correctly, or connection not established correctly. I don't think it's a data type issue, but rather that I somehow am not using the resultset properly. How, exactly, am I supposed to refer to that recordset in my SQL task, so that I can use the two recordset fields and add records that are missing?

  Read the article

• TextRenderer.DrawText renders Arial differently on XP vs Vista

  - by Michael

  I have a c# application that does text rendering, something on par with a simple wysiwyg text editor. I'm using TextRenderer.DrawText to render the text to the screen and GetTextExtentPoint32 to measure text so I can position different font styles/sizes on the same line. In Vista this all works fine. In XP however, Arial renders differently, certain characters like 'o' and 'b' take up more width than in Vista. GetTextExtentPoint32 seems to be measuring the string as it would in Vista though, with the smaller widths. The end result is that every now and then a run of text will overlap the text preceding it because the preceding text gets measured as smaller than it actually is on the screen. Also, my text rendering code mimics ie's text rendering exactly (for simple formatting and english language only) and ie text rendering seems to be consistent between vista and xp - that's how I noticed the change in size of the different characters. Anyone have any ideas about what's going on? In short, TextRenderer.DrawText and GetTextExtentPoint32 don't match up in xp for Arial. DrawText seems to draw certain characters larger and/or smaller than it does in Vista but GetTextExtentPoint32 seems to be measuring the text as it would in Vista (which seems to match the text rendering in ie on both xp and vista). Hope that makes sense. Note: unfortunately TextRenderer.MeasureString isn't fast or accurate enough to meet my requirements. I tried using it and had to rip it out.

  Read the article

• Should I have different models and views for no user data than for some user data?

  - by Sam Holder

  I'm just starting to learn asp.net mvc and I'm not sure what the right thing to do is. I have a user and a user has a collection of (0 or more) reminders. I have a controller for the user which gets the reminders for the currently logged in user from a reminder service. It populates a model which holds some information about the user and the collection of reminders. My question is should I have 2 different views, one for when there are no reminders and one for when there are some reminders? Or should I have 1 view which checks the number of reminders and displays different things? Having one view seems wrong as then I end up with code in my view which says if (Model.Reminders.Count==0){//do something} else {do something else}, and having logic in the view feels wrong. But if I want to have 2 different views then I'd like to have some code like this in my controller: [Authorize] public ActionResult Index() { MembershipUser currentUser = m_membershipService.GetUser(); IList<Reminder> reminders = m_reminderRepository.GetReminders(currentUser); if (reminders.Count == 0) { var model = new EmptyReminderModel { Email = currentUser.Email, UserName = currentUser.UserName }; return View(model); } else { var model = new ReminderModel { Email = currentUser.Email, UserName = currentUser.UserName, Reminders = reminders }; return View(model); } but obviously this doesn't compile as the View can't take both different types. So if I'm going to do this should I return a specific named view from my controller, depending on the emptiness of the reminders, or should my Index() method redirect to other actions like so: [Authorize] public ActionResult Index() { MembershipUser currentUser = m_membershipService.GetUser(); IList<Reminder> reminders = m_reminderRepository.GetReminders(currentUser); if (reminders.Count == 0) { return RedirectToAction("ShowEmptyReminders"); } else { return RedirectToAction("ShowReminders"); } } which seems nicer but then I need to re-query the reminders for the current user in the ShowReminders action. Or should I be doing something else entirely?

  Read the article

• Jquery insertAfter() doesn't seem to work for me...

  - by Pandiya Chendur

  I have created a parent div and inserted div's after the parent div using jquery insertAfter() method.... What happens is My first record goes to the bottom and next record gets inserted above it.... Here is my function... function Iteratejsondata(HfJsonValue) { var jsonObj = eval('(' + HfJsonValue + ')'); for (var i = 0, len = jsonObj.Table.length; i < len; ++i) { var employee = jsonObj.Table[i]; $('<div class="resultsdiv"><br /><span id="EmployeeName" style="font-size:125%;font-weight:bolder;">' + employee.Emp_Name + '</span><span style="font-size:100%;font-weight:bolder;padding-left:100px;">Category&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span>' + employee.Desig_Name + '</span><br /><br /><span id="SalaryBasis" style="font-size:100%;font-weight:bolder;">Salary Basis&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span>' + employee.SalaryBasis + '</span><span style="font-size:100%;font-weight:bolder;padding-left:25px;">Salary&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span>' + employee.FixedSalary + '</span><span style="font-size:100%;font-weight:bolder;padding-left:25px;">Address&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span>' + employee.Address + '</span></div>').insertAfter('#ResultsDiv'); } } And my result is, Palani must be next to my parent div but it is at the bottom... Because insertAfter() inserts every record next to the #ResultsDiv ... Any suggestion how to insertafter the newly generated div...

  Read the article

• How does initializing inherited members inside base class constructor reduce the calls to…?

  - by flockofcode

  I’ve read that instead of initializing inherited members ( _c1 in our example ) inside derived constructor: class A { public int _c; } class B:A { public B(int c) { _c = c; } } we should initialize them inside base class constructor, since that way we reduce the calls to inherited members ( _c ): class A { public A(int c) { _c = c; } public int _c; } class B:A { public B(int c) : base(c) { } } If _c field is initialized inside base constructor, the order of initialization is the following: 1) First the field initializers of derived class B are called 2) Then field initializers of base class A are called (at this point _c is set to value 0) 3) B’s constructor is called, which in turn calls A’s custom constructor 4) _c field gets set to value of a parameter c ( inside A’s custom constructor ) 5) Once A’s custom constructor returns, B’s constructor executes its code. If _c field is initialized inside B's constructor, the order of initialization is the following: 1) First the field initializers of a derived class B are called 2) Then field initializers of a base class A are called(at this point _c is set to value 0) 3) B’s constructor is called, which in turn calls A’s default constructor 4) Once A’s custom constructor returns, B’s constructor sets _c field to a value of parameter c As far as I can tell, in both cases was _c called two times, so how exactly did we reduce calls to inherited member _c? thanx

  Read the article

• Django Template tag, generating template block tag

  - by Issy

  Hi Guys, Currently a bit stuck, wondering if anyone can assist. I am using django-adminfiles. Which is a near little application. I want to use it to insert images into posts/articles/pages for a site i am building. How django-adminfiles works is it inserts a placeholder i.e <<< ImageFile and this gets rendered using a django template. It also has the feature of inserting custom options i.e (Insert Medium Image) , i figured i would used this to automatically resize images and include it in the post (similar to how WP does it). Django-adminfiles makes use of sorl.thumbnail app to generate thumbnails. So i have tried testing generating thumbnails: The current template that is used to render the inserted image is: {% spaceless %} <img src="{{ upload.upload.url }}" width="{{ upload.width }}" height="{{ upload.height }}" class="{{ options.class }}" class="{{ options.size }}" alt="{% if options.alt %}{{ options.alt }}{% else %}{{ upload.title }}{% endif %}" /> {% endspaceless %} I tried modifying this to: {% load thumbnail %} {% spaceless %} <img src="{% thumbnail upload.upload.url 200x50 %}" width="{{ upload.width }}" height="{{ upload.height }}" class="{{ options.class }}" class="{{ options.size }}" alt="{% if options.alt %}{{ options.alt }}{% else %}{{ upload.title }}{% endif %}" /> {% endspaceless %} I get the error: Exception Value: Caught an exception while rendering: Source file: '/media/uploads/DSC_0014.jpg' does not exist. I figured the thumbnail needs the absolute path so tried putting that in the template, and that works. i.e this works: {% thumbnail '/Users/me/media/uploads/DSC_0014.jpg' 200x50 %} So basically i need to generate the absolute path to the file give the relative path (to web root). You could do this by passing the MEDIA_ROOT setting to the template, but the reason i want to do a template tag is to programmatically set the image size.

  Read the article

• JSP Document/JSPX: what determines how tabs/space/linebreaks are removed in the output?

  - by NoozNooz42

  I've got a "JSP Document" ("JSP in XML") nicely formatted and when the webpage is generated and sent to the user, some linebreaks are removed. Now the really weird part: apparently the "main" .jsp always gets all its linebreak removed but for any subsequent .jsp included from the main .jsp, linebreaks seems to be randomly removed (some are there, others aren't). For example, if I'm looking at the webpage served from Firefox and ask to "view source", I get to see what is generated. So, what determines when/how linebreaks are kept/removed? This is just an example I made up... Can you force a .jsp to serve this: <body><div id="page"><div id="header"><div class="title">... or this: <body> <div id="page"> <div id="header"> <div class="title">... ? I take it that linebreaks are removed to save on bandwidth, but what if I want to keep them? And what if I want to keep the same XML indentation as in my .jsp file? Is this doable? EDIT Following skaffman's advice, I took a look at the generated .java files and the "main" one doesn't have lots of out.write but not a single one writing tabs nor newlines. Contrary to that file, all the ones that I'm including from that main .jsp have lots of lines like: out.write("\t...\n"); So I guess my question stays exactly the same: what determines how tabs/space/linebreaks are included/removed in the output?

  Read the article

• iphone menu navigation with buttons help requested

  - by David

  Hi, I'm trying to program an iphone app that will have several different (sub)apps. Ideally, I want to know how to make the main menu for this app look and behave like the iphone's own app menu, but I can't figure it out. If any one knows a package or library that does this, please let me know. Plan B is to mock one using UIButtons, and here is where I'm having problems. Basically, when I press a button that should push a new view, it calls the push method, but I still see the top view. in the app delegate, I have something like: AppViewController *viewController; App1ViewController *app1ViewController; UINavigationController *navController; and in didFinishLaunching method, something like: viewController = [ [ AppViewController alloc ] initWithAppDelegate: self ]; app1ViewController = [ [App1ViewController alloc ] initWithAppDelegate: self ]; navController = [ [ UINavigationController alloc ] initWithRootViewController:viewController]; [window addSubview:viewController.view]; and 2 methods -(void)app1{[ navController pushViewController: app1ViewController animated:YES ];} -(void)back{[ navController popViewControllerAnimated:YES ];} then I have 2 viewcontrollers in AppViewController.h @interface AppViewController : UIViewController { UINavigationController *navController; UIButton *appbtn1, *appbtn2, *appbtn3, *appbtn4; } -(id)initWithAppDelegate:(id)appDelegate; @end @interface App1ViewController : UIViewController { UITextView *textView; UINavigationController *navController; } -(id)initWithAppDelegate:(id)appDelegate; @end and define a loadView for each viewcontroller. However, when I press the app1 button and the app1 method gets called, it says the view hasa been pushed, but my view remains the buttons view, i.e. the root view. If I press the button again, it tells me I can't repush the app1view, the one I can't see. Any ideas? I can post the full code if that helps. Thank you for your time.

  Read the article

• PHP Streaming CSV always adds UTF-8 BOM

  - by Mustafa Ashurex

  The following code gets a 'report line' as an array and uses fputcsv to tranform it into CSV. Everything is working great except for the fact that regardless of the charset I use, it is putting a UTF-8 bom at the beginning of the file. This is exceptionally annoying because A) I am specifying iso and B) We have lots of users using tools that show the UTF-8 bom as characters of garbage. I have even tried writing the results to a string, stripping the UTF-8 BOM and then echo'ing it out and still get it. Is it possible that the issue resides with Apache? If I change the fopen to a local file it writes it just fine without the UTF-8 BOM. header("Content-type: text/csv; charset=iso-8859-1"); header("Cache-Control: no-store, no-cache"); header("Content-Disposition: attachment; filename=\"report.csv\""); $outstream = fopen("php://output",'w'); for($i = 0; $i < $report-rowCount; $i++) { fputcsv($outstream, $report-getTaxMatrixLineValues($i), ',', '"'); } fclose($outstream); exit;

  Read the article

• Doing large updates against indexed view

  - by user217136

  We have an indexed view that runs across three large tables. Two of these tables (A & B) are constantly getting updated with user transactions and the other table (C) contains data product info that is needs to be updated once a week. This product table contains over 6 million records. We need this view across these three tables for our core business process and unfortunately we cannot change this aspect. We even had a sql server MVP come in to help test under load to make sure we have the most efficient configuration. There is one column in the product table that gets utilized in the view and has to be updated each week. The problem we are now encountering is that as volume is increasing on our transactions against tables A & B, the update to Table C is causing deadlocks. I have tried several different methods to no avail: 1) I was hoping that we could change the view so that table C could be a dirty read "WITH (NOLOCK)" but apparently that functionality is not available with indexes views. 2) I thought about updating a new column in Table C and then just renaming it when the process is done but you cannot do that due to the dependency in the view. 3) I also entertained the idea of writing this value to a temporary product table, and then running an ALTER statement against the view to have it point to my new table. however when i did that the indexes on my view were dropped and it took quite a bit of time to recreate them. 4) we tried to do the weekly update in small chunks (as small as 100 records at a time) but we still run into dead locks. questions: a) we are using sql server 2005. Does sql server 2008 have a new functionality with their indexed views that would help us? Is there now a way to do dirty reads w/ an indexed view? b) a better approach to altering an existing view to point to a new table? thanks!

  Read the article

• Are there size limitations to the .NET Assembly format?

  - by McKAMEY

  We ran into an interesting issue that I've not experienced before. We have a large scale production ASP.NET 3.5 SP1 Web App Project in Visual Studio 2008 SP1 which gets compiled and deployed using a Website Deployment Project. Everything has worked fine for the last year, until after a check-in yesterday the app started critically failing with BadImageFormatException. The check-in in question doesn't change anything particularly special and the errors are coming from areas of the app not even changed. Using Reflector we inspected the offending methods to find that there were garbage strings in the code (which .NET Reflector humorously interpreted as Chinese characters). We have consistently reproduced this on several machines so it does not appear to be hardware related. Further inspection showed that those garbage strings did not exist in the Assemblies used as inputs to aspnet_merge.exe during deployment. aspnet_merge.exe / Web Deployment Project Output Assemblies Properties: Merge all outputs to a single assembly Merge each individual folder output to its own assembly Merge all pages and control outputs to a single assembly Create a separate assembly for each page and control output In the web deployment project properties if we set the merge options to the first option ("Merge all outputs to a single assembly") we experience the issue, yet all of the other options work perfectly! My question: does anyone know why this is happening? Is there a size-limit to aspnet_merge.exe's capabilities (the resulting merged DLL is around 19.3 MB)? Are there any other known issues with merging the output of WAPs? I would love it if any Assembly format / aspnet_merge.exe gurus know about any such limitations like this. Seems to me like a 25MB Assembly, while big, isn't outrageous.

  Read the article

• svn import, dont modify revision OR modify the list of files in a transaction

  - by Vaughan Durno

  Hi Ive gained so much knowledge/insight from this site in the past few years, now im actually hoping to get some enlightenment. The scenario is as follows: You have the general structure of the repo (trunk,branches,tags) but added to the layout you have another directory called 'db_revs'. Now in the pre-commit, you take a dump of a specific database (the specifics are irrelevant) into a temporary file, say /tmp/REV.sql (REV being the HEAD revision number of the repo, or the transaction). K all is well and you can just import that temp file into the repo at /db_revs/REV.sql Now obviously that import, even tho its happening during a commit, increments the revision of the repo. So when u do a commit at some point to say 'test.php' in the trunk and it completes at say revision 159, then the pre-commit runs as it should and the DB dump gets imported but then u r sitting with a tree in the repo-browser where 'trunk' is at revision 159, and 'db_revs', which has the imported dump, is at 158 (Ive made it so that the filename matches the revision ie: 159.sql but that file is then at revision 158). NB If you're doing an import in a pre-commit, you need to add some logic to not perform the import, say by checking first for the existence of the temp file, otherwise it will cause, um, a stack overflow and your PC will quickly crawl to a stand still So I wanted to know if it was possible to make an import to not commit its changes. I realise I might be barking up the wrong tree to begin with so I have another idea of doing this so that brings me to the 2nd part of my question, would it be possible to modify the list of files that the transaction is about to commit to the repo. I know this can be done to a WC but that wont help as a WC is a checked out copy of say the trunk so im not sure how u would add a file to the 'db_revs' folder which is above trunk? Any help is greatly appreciated Cheers Vaughan

  Read the article

• Internet Explorer Warning when embedding Youtube on HTTPS site?

  - by pellepim

  Our application is run over HTTPS which rarely presents any problems for us. When it comes to youtube however, the fact that they do not present any content over SSL connections is giving us some head ache when trying to embed clips. Mostly because of Internet Explorers famous little warning message: "Do you want to view only the webpage content that was delivered securely? This page contains content that will not be delivered using a secure HTTPS ... etc" I've tried to solve this in several ways. The most promising one was to use the ProxyPass functionality in Apache to map to YouTube. Like this: ProxyPass: /youtube/ http://www.youtube.com ProxyPassReverse: /youtube/ http://www.youtube.com This gets rid of the annoying warning. However, the youtube SWF fails to start streaming The SWF i manage to load into the browser simply states : "An error occurred, please try again later". Potential solutions are perhaps: Download youtube FLV:s and serve them out of own domain (gah) Use custom FLV-player and stream only FLV:s from youtube over a https proxy? Update 10 March: I've tried to use Googles Youtube API for ActionScript to load a player. It looked promising at first and I was able to load a player through my https:// proxy. However, the SWF that is loaded contains loads of explicit calls to different non-ssl urls to create authentication links for the FLV-stream and for loading different crossdomain policies. It really seems like we're not supposed to access flv-streams directly. This makes it very hard to bypass the Internet Explorer warning, short of ripping out the FLV:s from youtube and serving them out of your own domain. There are solutions out there for downloading youtubes FLV:s. But that is not compliant with the Youtube terms of use and is really not an option for us.

  Read the article

• Rails - Logic for finding info from a :has_many :through needed!

  - by Jty.tan

  I have 3 relevant tables. User, Orders, and Viewables The idea is that each User has got many Orders, but at the same time, each User can View specific other Orders that belong to other Users. So Viewables has the attributes of user_id and order_id. Orders has a :has_many :Users, :through => :viewables Is it possible to do a find through an Order's view? So something like @viewable_orders = Orders.find(:all, :conditions = ["Viewable.user_id=?",1]) To get a list of Orders which are viewable by user_id=1. (This doesn't work, else I won't be asking. :( ) The idea being that I can do something like a sidebar where the current user (the logged-in one) can view a list of other people's orders that he can view. For example Three other Users who have some Orders that he can view should be eventually displayed like this: Jack (2) Basic Order (registry_id: 1) New Order (registry_id: 29) Amy (4) Short Order (registry_id: 12) Jill (5) Hardware Order (14) Pink Order (17) Software Order (76) (The number in brackets are the respective user_id or registry_id) So to find the list of all of the orders that the current user can find (assuming user_id of the current user is 1), would be found by doing @viewable_orders = Viewable.find(:all, :conditions => ["user_id=?", 1]) And that would give me the collection of the above 6 registries. Now, the easiest way to do this, is for me to just have a list of + Jill's Hardware Order + Jill's Pink Order + Amy's Short Order + etc But that gets ugly for long lists. Thanks!

  Read the article

• Optimize inserts

  - by ikerib

  Hi! I did an importer in VB .Net witch get data from an SQLServer an inserts this data throught ADSL connection in a remote MySQL server. in the first time, it was like 200 records, but now there are more than 500.000 records and it expends like 11hours exporting all the data and that is bad, veryyy bad. I need to optimize my importer, witch now gets the data into a datatable an them i have a function witch with a loop (row to row) inserts the data with a "insert into" query... like this: For Each dr As DataRow In dt.Rows Console.Write(".") Dim sql As String = "INSERT INTO clientes(id,nombrefis,nombrecom,direccion,codpos,municipio_id,telefono,fax,cif)" & _ "VALUES (@id,@nombrefis,@nombrecom,@direccion,@codpos,@municipio_id,@telefono,@fax,@cif)" cmd = New MySqlCommand(sql, cnn) cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("id", Int32.Parse(dr("ID EMPRESA").ToString)) cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("nombrefis", dr("NOMEMP")) cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("nombrecom", dr("EMPRESA")) cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("direccion", dr("DIRECC")) cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("codpos", dr("CODPOS")) cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("municipio_id", Int32.Parse(dr("CODIGO MUNICIPIO")).ToString) cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("telefono", dr("TELEF")) cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("fax", dr("FAX")) cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("cif", dr("CIF")) cmd.ExecuteNonQuery() Next any ideas or advices? thanks so much

  Read the article

• Rails : fighting long http response times with ajax. Is it a good idea? Please, help with implementa

  - by baranov

  Hi, everybody! I've googled some tutorials, browsed some SO answers, and was unable to find a recipe for my problem. I'm writing a web site which is supposed to display almost realtime stock chart. Data is stored in constantly updating MySQL database, I wrote a find_by_sql query code which fetches all the data I need to get my chart drawn. Everything is ok, except performance - it takes from one second to one minute for different queries to fetch all the data from the database, this time includes necessary (My)SQL-server side calculations. This is simply unacceptable. I got the following idea: if the data is queried from the MySQL server one point a time instead of entire dataset, it takes only about 1-100ms to get an individual point. I imagine the data fetch process might be browser-driven. After the user presses the button in order to get a chart drawn, controller makes one request to the database and renders, say, a progress bar, say 1% ready. When the browser gets the response, it immediately makes an (ajax) request, and the server fetches the next piece of data and renders "2%". And so on, until all the data is ready and the server displays the requested chart. Could this be implemented in rails+js, is there a tutorial for solving a similar problem on the Web? I suppose if the thing is feasible at all, somebody should have already done this before. I have read several articles about ajax, I believe I do understand general principles, but never did nontrivial ajax programming myself. Thanks for your time!

  Read the article

• iPhone and Core Data: how to retain user-entered data between updates?

  - by Shaggy Frog

  Consider an iPhone application that is a catalogue of animals. The application should allow the user to add custom information for each animal -- let's say a rating (on a scale of 1 to 5), as well as some notes they can enter in about the animal. However, the user won't be able to modify the animal data itself. Assume that when the application gets updated, it should be easy for the (static) catalogue part to change, but we'd like the (dynamic) custom user information part to be retained between updates, so the user doesn't lose any of their custom information. We'd probably want to use Core Data to build this app. Let's also say that we have a previous process already in place to read in animal data to pre-populate the backing (SQLite) store that Core Data uses. We can embed this database file into the application bundle itself, since it doesn't get modified. When a user downloads an update to the application, the new version will include the latest (static) animal catalogue database, so we don't ever have to worry about it being out of date. But, now the tricky part: how do we store the (dynamic) user custom data in a sound manner? My first thought is that the (dynamic) database should be stored in the Documents directory for the app, so application updates don't clobber the existing data. Am I correct? My second thought is that since the (dynamic) user custom data database is not in the same store as the (static) animal catalogue, we can't naively make a relationship between the Rating and the Notes entities (in one database) and the Animal entity (in the other database). In this case, I would imagine one solution would be to have an "animalName" string property in the Rating/Notes entity, and match it up at runtime. Is this the best way to do it, or is there a way to "sync" two different databases in Core Data?

  Read the article

• How can I get the dimensions of a drawn string without padding?

  - by Dan Herbert

  I'm trying to create an image with some text on it and I want the image's size to match the size of the rendered text. When I use System.Windows.Forms.TextRenderer.MeasureText(...) to measure the text, I get dimensions that include font padding. When the text is rendered, it seems to use the same padding. Is there any way to determine the size of a string of text and then render it without any padding? This is the code I've tried: // Measure the text dimensions var text = "Hello World"; var fontFamily = new Font("Arial", 30, FontStyle.Regular); var textColor = new SolidBrush(Color.Black); Size textSize = TextRenderer.MeasureText(text, fontFamily, Size.Empty, TextFormatFlags.NoPadding); // Render the text with the given dimensions Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(textSize.Width, textSize.Height); Graphics g = Graphics.FromImage(bmp); g.TextRenderingHint = TextRenderingHint.AntiAliasGridFit; g.DrawString(text, fontFamily, textColor, new PointF(0, 0)); bmp.Save("output.png", ImageFormat.Png); This is what currently gets rendered out: This is what I want to render: I also looked into Graphics.MeasureString(...), but that can only be used on an existing Graphics object. I want to know the size before creating the image. Also, calling Graphics.MeasureString(...) returns the same dimensions, so it doesn't help me any.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 344 345 346 347 348 349 350 351 352 353 354 355  | Next Page >