Search Results

Search found 13842 results on 554 pages for 'reference identity'.

Page 351/554 | < Previous Page | 347 348 349 350 351 352 353 354 355 356 357 358  | Next Page >

• Recording Audio through RTMP/Rails

  - by Lowgain

  I am in the process of building a rails/flex application which requires audio to be recorded and then stored in our amazon s3 account. I have found no alternative to using some form of RTMP server for recording audio through flash, but our hosting environment will not allow us to install anything like FMS, Red5, etc. Is there any existing Ruby/Rails RTMP solution that will allow audio recording? If not, is it possible for Rails to at least intercept the RTMP stream and then I can hope to reference red5 or something for parsing the data (long shot, I know)? The other alternative I can think of is hosting a red5 server on another host and communicating with our rails app once the saving/uploading is done, which is not preferred. Am I going to have any luck here?

  Read the article

• Is is possible to programmatically change the resourceProviderFactoryType?

  - by Robert Massa

  I have a custom implementation of IResourceProvider and ResourceProviderFactory. Now the default way of making sure ASP.NET uses these custom types is to use the web.config and specify the factory like so: <globalization resourceProviderFactoryType="Product.Globalization.TranslationResourceProviderFactory" /> This works perfectly, except that in my resource provider I need database access. I want to use my IoC-container(Ninject) to inject the repositories needed to access this data into the CustomResourceProvider. But how am I going to do this? I have no control over the instantiation of the factory, so the factory can't get a reference to my IoC. Is there any way to register a custom provider programmatically, in for example the Global.asax?

  Read the article

• WCF Custom WSDL XmlSerializerOperationBehavior

  - by Jeff

  Hi, I have code that builds a custom WCF wsdl on the fly. In one particular scenario, the WSDL exported should use the XmlSerializerOperationBehavior as the IWsdlExportExtension as opposed to the default DataContractSerializerOperationBehavior IWsdlExportExtension. However, every time I try this from the WSDL generation code, I get a null reference exception from the ExportBody method of the XmlSerializerMessageContractExporter (which is used internally in System.ServiceModel by the XmlSerializerOperationBehavior ExportContract method). I've reflector'd it and I can't see anything obviously wrong. For some reason, .NET also doesn't want to work with source stepping in this scenario... Simply, the most basic way I can reproduce this is var c = ContractDescription.GetContract(typeof(IMyService)); foreach (var op in c.Operations) { op.Behaviors.Remove(typeof(DataContractSerializerOperationBehavior)); op.Behaviors.Insert(0, new XmlSerializerOperationBehavior(op)); } new WsdlExporter().ExportContract(c); // throws NullReferenceException Does anyone have any ideas on this? Thanks very much.

  Read the article

• Could the assign function for containers possibly overflow?

  - by Kristo

  I ran into this question today and thought I should post it for the community's reference and/or opinions. The standard C++ containers vector, deque, list, and string provide an assign member function. There are two versions; I'm primarily interested in the one accepting an iterator range. The Josuttis book is a little ambiguous with its description. From p. 237... Assigns all elements of the range [beg,end); this is, is replaces all existing elements with copies of the elements of [beg,end). It doesn't say what happens if the size of the assignee container is different from the range being assigned. Does it truncate? Does it automagically expand? Is it undefined behavior?

  Read the article

• How to troubleshoot dependencies not copying.

  - by AngryHacker

  I have an EXE project A, which references a class library project B (all in the same solution). Project B has a reference to about 10 3rd party DLLs (from DevExpress). All the referenced assemblies have Copy Local set to true. When I build the entire solution, the resulting DLL from project B is copied into the bin/debug of project A. However, none of the dependencies of project B get copied. I looked in the Output window during compile and all looks good. There aren't any errors. How do I troubleshoot this?

  Read the article

• Java annotations for design patterns?

  - by Greg Mattes

  Is there a project that maintains annotations for patterns? For example, when I write a builder, I want to mark it with @Builder. Annotating in this way immediately provides a clear idea of what the code implements. Also, the Javadoc of the @Builder annotation can reference explanations of the builder pattern. Furthermore, navigating from the Javadoc of a builder implementation to @Builder Javadoc is made easy by annotating @Builder with @Documented. I've being slowing accumulating a small set of such annotations for patterns and idioms that I have in my code, but I'd like to leverage a more complete existing project if it exists. If there is no such project, maybe I can share what I have by spinning it off to a separate pattern/idiom annotation project. Update: I've created the Pattern Notes project in response to this discussion. Contributions welcome! Here is @Builder

  Read the article

• Custom tool error: Command.proto:11:18: "Message2" is not defined.

  - by cornerback84

  I am using the latest version of protobuf-net with VS2008 integration. I have created 2 messages (Message1 and Message2), 1 message in 1 proto file. When I try to reference Message2 in Message1 the code generator tool gives me error "Message2" is not defined and won't generate the code file. The package for both messages is same. It look like that because of the integration of the tool with VS2008 it expects all the messages in same .proto file to compile. Currently I have to paste an empty message with same name in Message1.proto file, like this: message Message1 { optional Message2 message2 = 1; } message Message2 { } And then later on remove the declaration of class Message2 from Message1.cs. Are there any settings that I need to do so to avoid this error, or is providing an empty declaration the only way?

  Read the article

• C++11 VS 2012 functor seems to choke when I have more than 5 parameters

  - by bobobobo

  function <void ( int a, int b, int ia, int ib, bool rev, const Vector4f& color )> benchTris = [&pts]( int a, int b, int ia, int ib, bool rev, const Vector4f& color ) { } The error is: error C2027: use of undefined type 'std::_Get_function_impl<_Tx>' with [ _Tx=void (int,int,int,int,bool,const Vector4f &) ] main.cpp(374) : see reference to class template instantiation 'std::function<_Fty>' being compiled with [ _Fty=void (int,int,int,int,bool,const Vector4f &) ] Works ok if I remove ONE parameter, for example a from the front: function <void ( int b, int ia, int ib, bool rev, const Vector4f& color )> benchTris = [&pts]( int b, int ia, int ib, bool rev, const Vector4f& color ) { // ok } Is there some parameter limit I don't know about?

  Read the article

• ASP.NET MVC- Bizarre problem - suddennly lost all LINQTO SQL data context objects

  - by MikeD

  I was making an edit to a long existing project. Specifically I added some fields to a table and had to delete the table from the LINQTOSQL designer and re-add it. doesn't Also had to do the same for a view. Mode some other code changes and went to build . Now my project won't build because it can't resolve any of the data context objects (all tables and views) in my code. I don't know what I did or how this happeened. I have many tables and views in the project's L2S data context so I don't wont to try and do over. Please any suggestions on how to resolve this problem are greatly appreciated. Desparate! The error messages I am getting are the familiar The type or namespace name 'equipment' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?)

  Read the article

• Retrieve Google Calendar Events

  - by Don

  Hi, I'm using the Java API for Google Calendar. The documents show the following example of how to retrieve events from a calendar: URL feedUrl = new URL("http://www.google.com/calendar/feeds/[email protected]/private/full"); CalendarService myService = new CalendarService("exampleCo-exampleApp-1"); myService.setUserCredentials("[email protected]", "mypassword"); // Send the request and receive the response: CalendarEventFeed myFeed = myService.getFeed(feedUrl, CalendarEventFeed.class); This will retrieve all events from the primary calendar of the [email protected] account. However, I need to retrieve events from a secondary calendar. I already have a reference the CalendarEntry object that represents the secondary calendar, but I still can't figure out how to get events from it. I suspect I can do this using the same code as above, but I just need to change the URL to something else. Thanks, Donal

  Read the article

• Spring - MVC - Sanitize URL before redisplaying to the user

  - by Raghav

  In my application , a HTTP GET request URL to the application with script tag is getting redisplayed as it is although it fails the authorization. Example: http://www.example.com/welcome<script>alert("hi")</script> The issue is sanitizing external input entered directly into address bar by modifying existing GET URL. Spring redisplays the submitted URL as it is. Though the script does not get executed in the browser(FF), is there anyway to strip the URL of these values before displaying it back to the user Reference: Spring MVC application filtering HTML in URL - Is this a security issue?

  Read the article

• Visual Studio - 'Browse UDDI Servers' -> 404 ?

  - by southof40

  Hi - I have a ASP.Net application which implements a web service. Within the ASP.Net application there's a test script which consumes the web service and it all works etc. I have built a .NET console application and want to 'Add a Web Reference' so that the console app can consume the web service provided by the ASP.NET application. When I use the 'Browse UDDI Servers on the local network' to do that any plausible URL I use results in a 404. I'm guessing I need to do something to my ASP.Net application so that it acts as an UDDI server ? Does anyone know what ? Update I just wanted to clarify something - I'm not desperate to use UDDI it just seems that's the only option in my circumstances which are : I'm actually doing this for another developer who is used to using Visual Studio to do this stuff The other developers system will need to run on another machine within the same network.

  Read the article

• HTML 5: Is it <br> <br/> or <br />?

  - by Eikern

  I've tried checking other answers, but I'm still confused--especially after seeing W3schools HTML 5 reference. I thought HTML 4.01 was supposed to "allow" single-tags to just be <img> and <br>. Then XHTML came along with <img /> and <br /> (where someone said that the space is there for older browsers). Now I'm wondering how I'm supposed to format my code when practicing HTML 5. <!DOCTYPE HTML> Is it <br>, <br/> or <br />?

  Read the article

• DNS settings for resolving Host name to IP not working?

  - by Hasas Ali Khan

  I want to access my IIS hosted application over LAN. First I installed a DNS server. The DNS configuration steps are: Go to DNS Manager - right click on System Name - click on configure a DNS Server. DNS Server wizard open -, click on next button - Select radio button "forward lookup zone" click on next button. In the second window. click on radio button "The server maintains the zone" and then click next. Give the zone name "example.com" Click on radio button, "Do Not allow dynamic updates". and then click next button. In the next window, click on radio button "No it should not forward query" and then click next button. Complete the configure a DNS server wizard and then click on finish button. After it is managing the DNS records: In DNS server wizard. open tree of forward lookup zone and right click on the new zone name "example.com" - properties and click on "Start of authority" and write values on text boxes serial number=1 primary server=systemname.domainname responsible person=hostmaster.domainname Click on server name, highlight domain name, click on edit button and enter IP address of the server where I host my application. Highlight new zone name and right click on it and click "New Host" option. In this window there are three text boxes: Name(user parent name if blank)=scoring Fully Qualified Domain Name=scoring.example.com IP Address= My IP Address and check on "Create associated pointer(PTR) record" and click on "Add Host" Host button and then click done button. I have host header for my application is "scoring" on port 80 and its working fine on server my application setting are I have change its, Advance setting --> Application Pool Identity --> Local System application can access on server with host name "scoring" but it can not access on machines on LAN. When I change LAN machine host file that is under, C:/windows/system32/driver/etc/host and edit it and enter host name with hosted machine IP like this: scoring 192.168.1.20 By making these changes I can run the application over LAN machines as I mentioned above DNS setting by which I can run App over LAN with out editing the client's host file. What mistake am I doing in this configuration?

  Read the article

• What is resource-ref in web.xml used for?

  - by Denise

  Hi everyone, I'm just wondering when/why you would define a resource-ref element in your web.xml file? I would have thought that it would be defined in your web/app server using JNDI and then look up the JNDI reference in your Java code? The resource-ref definition seems a bit redundant to me and I can't think of when it might be useful. Example: <resource-ref> <description>Primary database</description> <res-ref-name>jdbc/primaryDB</res-ref-name> <res-type>javax.sql.DataSource</res-type> <res-auth>CONTAINER</res-auth> </resource-ref> Thanks!

  Read the article

• Retweet button in asp.net site

  - by Zerotoinfinite

  Hi All, I am using asp.net 3.5 and C# for my personal blog site. I want to include retweet\tweet button on every post I have made, for this I have some query. I have made the account on twitter with my website name. As I want to check the individual tweets for each of my post, do I have to create new account for each post or do I have to include new list for each post. As my post has the url something like this www.mywebsite.net/myblog.aspx?id=9 , with this id I am recognising the post. Then how would I write the reference URL to the retweet button for each & every post. Thanks in advance. Please let me know if the information provided by me requires more details.

  Read the article

• Unable to retrieve data from SQLite database iOS6.0

  - by kunalg

  When i run build ios5.0 or less then Sqlite response correct and retrieve data its work fine but when run on ios6.0 i am trying to fetch data from my.sqlite database but it is not executing my if case. It always enters in else condition. What wrong thing i am doing? I am not able to execute my if case i.e. if(sqlite3_prepare_v2(database, sqlQuerry, -1, &querryStatement, NULL)==SQLITE_OK). for reference check this code . NSLog(@"sqlite3_prepare_v2 = %d SQLITE_OK %d ",sqlite3_prepare_v2(sqlite, [strQuery UTF8String], -1, &compiledStatement, nil),SQLITE_OK); if(sqlite3_prepare_v2(sqlite, [strQuery UTF8String], -1, &compiledStatement, nil)==SQLITE_OK) { NSLog(@"sqlite3_step = %d SQLITE_ROW %d ",sqlite3_step(compiledStatement),SQLITE_ROW); while (sqlite3_step(compiledStatement)==SQLITE_ROW) { if(sqlite3_column_text(compiledStatement, 2) != nil) modelObj.Name = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:(char *)sqlite3_column_text(compiledStatement, 2)]; } } else { } ////////// in ios6.0 log Print sqlite3_prepare_v2 = 1 SQLITE_OK 0 sqlite3_step = 21 SQLITE_ROW 100 in iOS5.0 log Print sqlite3_prepare_v2 = 0 SQLITE_OK 0 sqlite3_step = 100 SQLITE_ROW 100

  Read the article

• JavaScript function binding (this keyword) is lost after assignment

  - by Ding

  this is one of most mystery feature in JavaScript, after assigning the object method to other variable, the binding (this keyword) is lost var john = { name: 'John', greet: function(person) { alert("Hi " + person + ", my name is " + this.name); } }; john.greet("Mark"); // Hi Mark, my name is John var fx = john.greet; fx("Mark"); // Hi Mark, my name is my question is: 1) what is happening behind the assignment? var fx = john.greet; is this copy by value or copy by reference? fx and john.greet point to two diferent function, right? 2) since fx is a global method, the scope chain contains only global object. what is the value of this property in Variable object?

  Read the article

• Rails, using jQuery without jrails

  - by ibuck

  Hello all, I have been trying to convert my rails 2.2.2 app over to jQuery, and would like so without using jrails. The only reference material I can find on the subject is Railscasts Episode 136. Ryan goes over how to use jQuery to post a form and handle the response in a .js.erb file. My questions is has anyone tried to use jQuery with .js.erb files with anchors as the trigger? As a replacement for "link_to_remote". I have gotten jQuery to do a .get to submit this link on click to the controller, but I cannot seem to get it to go into the .js.erb file. Thanks

  Read the article

• referencing a WCF web service

  - by ErnieStings

  Our current project uses an asmx service. We want to keep this service for now, but would like to add an additional wcf service for ajax calls. I followed a procedure i found online to set up the service and it works fine with javascript in aspx files within that particular project but i'm unsure how to reference it in javascript files in a different project (in the same solution). If someone could point me in the right direction it would be much appreciated. Thanks, Shawn EDIT: i wish to make calls in javascript similar to the following: function Button1_onclick() { var service = new AjaxServices.TestService(); service.wcfTest(4, onSuccess, null, null); } function onSuccess(result){ document.getElementById("ajaxPlaceHolder").innerHTML = "<p>" + result + "</p>"; } // ]]> but i'm willing to explore the jQuery option as well.

  Read the article

• How to detect the language of MS Excel from C#

  - by Babba

  If i try to use Excel from C# (interop) i receive error (HRESULT: 0x80028018) when current thread language is different from Excel language: so i need to set thread language, they must be the same. Which is the best method to understand the language of Excel/Office? 1) registry (HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Microsoft\Office\12.0\Common\LanguageResources\UILanguage ? How understand wich version (12.0/14.0/...?) 2) with Application like suggested here (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2804556/how-to-detect-the-language-of-ms-excel) ? It's ok but i need a strong reference to a specific version Microsoft.Office.Core and so i can't do it for different versione of Office: Excel.Application application = new Excel.Application(); int iUi = application.LanguageSettings.get_LanguageID(Microsoft.Office.Core.MsoAppLanguageID.msoLanguageIDUI); MessageBox.Show(iUi.ToString()); 3) other?

  Read the article

• resolve maya crash

  - by knishua

  Hi, I have a file which is crashing while rendering. File contains 50+ reference nodes. polycount : (lks)2,59,49,150; textures : (ths)2,628. It is being rendered in mental ray. All textures are .map. The attached image has the machine cofiguration with page file. here is the log file when the file crashes. what is the line in the log file mean. How to solve this. Exception code: C0000006: IN_PAGE_ERROR Fault address: 7814E420 in C:\WINDOWS\WinSxS\amd64_Microsoft.VC80.CRT_1fc8b3b 9a1e18e3b_8.0.50727.762_x-ww_9D1C6CE0\MSVCR80.dll what does the above mean. how to resolve this. Brgds, kNish

  Read the article

• Issues with absolute paths for js files in website

  - by Vinni

  Hello guys, I have a website which has so many sub folders in it. I have following paths references to my js and css files. <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="css/styles.css" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery.js"></script> the above code is working fine on my local machine. the JS file is not loading when i host the website into production server. Problem in my hosting server is my website is ponted to www.somewebsitename.com instead www.somewebsitename.com/home.aspx . When I load the page with www.somewebsitename.com/home.aspx this url it is loading all the js files it is not loading files only when I load the page with www.somewebsitename.com. Please solve my problem. How to reference JS files so that they ll loaded how ever u visit the page.

  Read the article

• Clarification required re use of .NET Assemblies in GAC - Use to use Globally?

  - by Cognize

  Hi, I've done much reading and experimentation today regarding sigining of assemblies, and their installation into the GAC via various methods (mscorcfg.msc / drag and drop). What I thought, was that once a file was in the GAC, you did not need to make references from projects in Visual studio. I know that you CAN make references via the usual Add Reference, Browse etc, but I thought it was automatic. Testing proves this not to be the case. I came across a forum post looking to achieve the same outcome that suggested adding to the machine.config file under system.web as below. This did not work, it in fact broke visual studio until I removed it. <assemblies> <add assembly="Blah.Framework.Logging, Version=1.0.3806.25580, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=0beed4b631ebc3cd" /> </assemblies> What I want to know, is am I right in my assumed use of assemblies in the GAC, and is there a way of making them globally available?

  Read the article

• How exactly does linking in C# work?

  - by akosch

  I want to use a GPL'd library in my C# application, but not necessarily release my own code under the GPL. If I understand correctly linking against a GPL'd library using dynamic linking and not distributing the library in question means I can license my own app in any way I want (the users of my software would then be required to install the library themselves). Please correct me if I'm wrong. My question is: how can I link against a DLL this way in C#? Do I only need to use C#'s using directive and add the DLL as a reference to the compiler? Is the distribution of the resulting bytecode legal?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 347 348 349 350 351 352 353 354 355 356 357 358  | Next Page >