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  • VS2008 asp.net spits out gibberish, possibly wrong encoding issue.

    - by Edward M Meshuris
    Hello, I have inherited a project, it was originally written in VS2005. I have made a few changes, but all are design. Now when I run the project using the visual studio's web server, in IE8, the page shows up just fine, however in FireFox 3.6.3, I get gibberish (a full page of this): ?I?%&/m?{J?J??t??$?@?????iG#)?*??eVe]f@?? ??{???{??;?N'????\fdl??J??!????~|?"~???????7????t?.???WO???? m???{'w?}?4??????x'}??W?{???G?G?]=?{???j|uo\?w???Pv??? My setup: Windows 7 Proffesional (All patches) VS2008 SP1 (I think all patches) Thank you for your help! -Edward

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  • Why do ASP.NET applications appear to be running in a terminal server session?

    - by Heinzi
    Running the following ASPX page (IIS 6, Server 2003 R2) <%@ Page Language="vb" AutoEventWireup="false" %> <% Response.Write("Am I running in a terminal server session: " & _ System.Windows.Forms.SystemInformation.TerminalServerSession) %> yields the following output: Am I running in a terminal server session: True Why? IIS is running as a service, not as a Terminal Services application... (BTW, according to Reflector, SystemInformation.TerminalServerSession is just a wrapper for GetSystemMetrics(SM_REMOTESESSION).)

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  • asp.net mvc client side validation; manually calling validation via javascript for ajax posts

    - by Jopache
    Under the built in client side validation (Microsoft mvc validation in mvc 2) using data annotations, when you try to submit a form and the fields are invalid, you will get the red validation summary next to the fields and the form will not post. However, I am using jquery form plugin to intercept the submit action on that form and doing the post via ajax. This is causing it to ignore validation; the red text shows up; but the form posts anyways. Is there an easy way to manually call the validation via javascript when I'm submitting the form? I am still kind of a javascript n00b. I tried googling it with no results and looking through the js source code makes my head hurt trying to figure it out. Or would you all recommend that I look in to some other validation framework? I liked the idea of jquery validate; but would like to define my validation requirements only in my viewmodel. Any experiences with xval or anything of the sort?

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  • In ASP.NET MVC, why wouldn't I tack on HandleError on a base controller and be done with it?

    - by Jiho Han
    Since HandleError is inherited by the derived Controllers, why wouldn't I just create (or have) a base controller, and apply HandleError on it so that any controllers that inherits from the base controller will automatically be handled as well? And then I would tack on overriding HandleError on controllers and individual actions. Can anyone think of any reason why I wouldn't want to apply HandleError to the base controller?

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  • How to create custom asp.net validator that works with UpdatePanel?

    - by Goran
    I think that subject summs it pretty well... I have created my custom validators that work great when I put them on page in design mode. However if I place them in a usercontrol, and then try to add this user control to the parent page via updatepanel, then my custom validators just won't trigger. They simply don't work. Does anyone have any clue on what I have to do here? .net 3.5

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  • Duplicate content in ASP.NET MVC because of custom routes MapRoute(), are areas the rescue?

    - by artvolk
    I use custom routes for my URLs and my action become accessible via two URLs (not counting trailing slash and lower\upper case letters): one via my custom route /my-custom-route-url/ and one via default /controller/action. I see one possible solution -- put all controllers which use default routing (they are mostly backend) in one area, and place all others in separate area and use it without default route. May be there is a better way?

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  • How to Open a Remote Text File using Server.MapPath in ASP.Net?

    - by NJTechGuy
    This is what I have right now for a file residing on the same server and it works. Dim FILENAME as String = Server.MapPath("Output.txt") Dim objStreamWriter as StreamWriter objStreamWriter = File.CreateText(FILENAME) dr = myCommand.ExecuteReader() While dr.Read() objStreamWriter.WriteLine("{0}|{1}|{2:yyyy-MM-dd}|{3:yyyy-MM-dd}", dr(0), dr(1), dr(2), dr(3)) End While objStreamWriter.Close() I was planning on FTPing the file to another server once done but is there a way to do it on a remote server? i.e create a text file on a remote server and write to it? Did not find any instances of that usage. How to use ServerXMLHTTP to replace Server.MapPath in this instance? Thank you so much for your time.

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2.0 RTM cannot work with VWD 2008 Express on a new Windows 7 Pro

    - by silent
    The MVC 2.0 RTM works great on my old Vista computer with VWD 2008 Express, but I just bought a new computer with Windows 7 Pro, I installed VWD 2008 Express SP1 and MVC 2.0 RTM by using Web PI 2.0. but after installation, I found the VWD doesn't have any MVC options, that means I can't either create new MVC projects or compile existing MVC projects. Why? What other steps I need to do to make it work? I'm sure the MVC has been installed properly since my MVC site on the new computer works well (so the IIS side has no problem), just the VWD can't 'realize' that the MVC framework is already installed... (tried to uninstall and install many times, and I also tried to install MVC separately without Web PI, but it just won't work)

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  • jqgrid ASP.NET MVC -- getting data right for the grid.

    - by SamM09
    Here is my dilemma, I have not been able to manipulate my data to a form fitting to jqgrid standards. This is my first time using the jqgrid and I've spent a lot of time reading up on it. My js code is as follows: jQuery("#list").jqGrid({ url: '/Home/ListContacts/', dataType: "json", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", mtype: 'POST', colNames: ['First Name', 'MI', 'Last Name'], colModel: [ { name: 'First Name', index: 'FName', width: 40, align: 'left' }, { name: 'MI', index: 'MInitial', width: 40, align: 'left' }, { name: 'Last Name', index: 'LName', width: 400, align: 'left'}], pager: jQuery('#pager'), rowNum: 10, rowList: [5, 10, 20, 50], sortname: 'Id', sortorder: "desc", repeatitems: false, viewrecords: true, imgpath: '/scripts/themes/basic/images', caption: 'My first grid' }); }); what im getting from the database: [["4","Jenna","Mccarthy"],["56","wer","weoiru"]] Now correct me if I am wrong, but the index: in my colModel refers to the column names in my database right? Could someone point to a reference that is straight forward or just start me off with this I would be most grateful.

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  • ASP .NET Login Session How to destroy session object when logging out from Home Page??

    - by Vinodh Kumar
    I have created a website. I login with username and password and after authenticating i redirect the user to Home Page. When the user clicks Logout, they are redirected to the Login Page. But after this when i click the BACK button on the browser, it again goes back to the Home Page with that user's login credentials. I have used Session["username"]=null in the Page_Load function of Home Page. How to avoid going back to the Home Page when the BACK button is clicked by the User??

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  • How to perform two-way data binding of controls in a user control inside a FormView

    - by Sandor Drieënhuizen
    I'm trying to perform two-way data binding on the controls in my user control, which is hosted inside a FormView template. FormView: <asp:ObjectDataSource runat="server" ID="ObjectDataSource" TypeName="WebApplication1.Data" SelectMethod="GetItem" UpdateMethod="UpdateItem"> </asp:ObjectDataSource> <asp:FormView runat="server" ID="FormView" DataSourceID="ObjectDataSource"> <ItemTemplate> <uc:WebUserControl1 runat="server"></uc:WebUserControl1> </ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <uc:WebUserControl1 runat="server"></uc:WebUserControl1> </EditItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> User control: <%@ Control Language="C#" ... %> <asp:TextBox runat="server" ID="TitleTextBox" Text='<%# Bind("Title") %>'> </asp:TextBox> The binding works fine when the FormView is in View mode but when I switch to Edit mode, upon calling UpdateItem on the FormView, the bindings are lost. I know this because the FormView tries to call an update method on the ObjectDataSource that does not have an argument called 'Title'. I tried to solve this by implementing IBindableTemplate to load the controls that are inside my user control, directly into the templates (just like I had entered them declaratively like in the code above). However, when calling UpdateItem in edit mode, the container that gets passed into the ExtractValues method of the template, does not contain the TextBox anymore. It did in view mode! I have found some questions on SO that relate to this problem but they are rather dated and they don't provide any answers that helped me solve this problem. How do you think I could solve this problem? It seems to be such a simple requirement but apparently it's more like opening a can of worms...

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  • UpdatePanel with GridView with LinkButton with Image Causes Full Postback

    - by Chris
    So this might be a fairly specific issue but I figured I'd post it since I spent hours struggling with it before I was able to determine the cause. <asp:GridView ID="gvAttachments" DataKeyNames="UploadedID" AutoGenerateColumns="false" OnSelectedIndexChanged="gvAttachments_SelectedIndexChanged" runat="server"> <EmptyDataTemplate>There are no attachments associated to this email template.</EmptyDataTemplate> <Columns> <asp:TemplateField ItemStyle-Width="100%"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:LinkButton CommandName="Select" runat="server"><img src="/images/icons/trashcan.png" style="border: none;" /></asp:LinkButton> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> In the ItemTemplate of the TemplateField of the GridView I have a LinkButton with an image inside of it. Normally I do this when I have an image with some text next to it but this time, for whatever reason, I just have the image. This causes the UpdatePanel to always do a full postback. SOLUTION: Change that LinkButton to be an ImageButton and the problem is solved. <asp:ImageButton ImageUrl="/images/icons/trashcan.png" Style="border: none;" CommandName="Select" runat="server" />

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  • Does the asp.net RoleManager really cache the roles for a user in a cookie if so configured?

    - by Ralph Shillington
    In my web.config I have the Role Manager configured as follows: <roleManager enabled="true" cacheRolesInCookie="true" cookieName=".ASPROLES" cookieTimeout="30" cookiePath="/" cookieRequireSSL="false" cookieSlidingExpiration="true" cookieProtection="All"> however in our custom RoleProvider it would seems that the GetRolesForUser method is always being called, rather than as I would have expected, the RoleManager serving up the roles from its cookie. We're using something like to get the roles for a user: string[] myroles = Role.GetRolesForUser("myuser"); Is there something that I'm missing in the configuration, or in the use of the RoleManager Thanks in advance

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  • How can I render a list of objects using DisplayFor but from the controller in ASP.NET MVC?

    - by Darragh
    Here's the scenaio, I have an Employee object and a Company object which has a list of employees. I have Company.aspx which inherits from ViewPage<Company>. In Company.aspx I call Html.DisplayFor(m => m.Employees). I have an Employee.ascx partial view which inherits from ViewUserControl<Employee in my DisplayTemplates folder. Everything works fine and Company.aspx renders the Employee.ascx partial for each employee. Now I have two additional methods on my controller called GetEmployees and GetEmployee(Id). In the GetEmployee(Id) action I want to return the markup to display this one employee, and in GetEmployees() I want to render the markup to display all the employees (these two action methods will be called via AJAX). In the GetEmployee action I call return PartialView("DisplayTemplates\Employee", employee) This works, although I'd prefer something like return PartialViewFor(employee) which would determine the view name by convention. Anwyay, my question is how should I implement the GetEmployees() action? I don't want to create any more views, because frankly, I don't see why I should have to. I've tried the following which fails miserably :) return Content(New HtmlHelper<IList<Of DebtDto>>(null, null).DisplayFor(m => debts)); However if I could create an instance of an HtmlHelper object in my controller, I suppose I could get it to work, but it feels wrong. Any ideas? Have i missed something obvious?

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  • What is the Best way to databind an ASP.NET TreeView for table with many to many parent child relati

    - by Matt W
    I've got a table which has the usual ParentID, ChildID as it's first two columns in a self-referencing tree data structure. My issue is that when I pull this out and use the following code: DataSet set = DA.GetNewCategories(); set.Relations.Add( new DataRelation("parentChildCategories", set.Tables[0].Columns["CategoryParentID"], set.Tables[0].Columns["CategoryID"]) ); StringBuilder buildXml = new StringBuilder(); StringWriter writer = new StringWriter(buildXml); set.WriteXml(writer); TreeView2.DataSource = new HierarchicalDataSet(set, "CategoryID", "CategoryParentID"); TreeView2.DataBind(); I get the error: These columns don't currently have unique values I believe this is because my data has children with multiple parent nodes. This is fine for my application - I don't mind if one row of data is rendered in multiple nodes of my TreeView. Could someone shed light on this please? It doesn't seem unreasonable to have a DataSet render XML which has nodes appearing in multiple places, but I can't figure out how to do it. Thanks, Matt.

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  • ASP.NET MVC3 Custom Membership Provider - The membership provider name specified is invalid.

    - by David Lively
    I'm implementing a custom membership provider, and everything seems to go swimmingly until I create a MembershipUser object. At that point, I receive the error: The membership provider name specified is invalid. Parameter name: providerName In web.config the membership key is <membership defaultProvider="MembersProvider"> <providers> <clear/> <add name="MembersProvider" type="Members.Providers.MembersProvider" connectionStringName="ApplicationServices" enablePasswordRetrieval="false" enablePasswordReset="true" requiresQuestionAndAnswer="false" requiresUniqueEmail="false" maxInvalidPasswordAttempts="5" minRequiredPasswordLength="6" minRequiredNonalphanumericCharacters="0" passwordAttemptWindow="10" applicationName="DeviceDatabase" /> </providers> </membership> When creating the MembershipUser object from my custom User class: public static MembershipUser ToMembershipUser(User user) { MembershipUser member = new MembershipUser ("MembersProvider" , user.Name , user.Id , user.EmailAddress , user.PasswordQuestion , user.Comment , user.IsApproved , user.IsLockedOut , user.DateCreated , user.LastLoginDate ?? DateTime.MinValue , user.LastActivityDate ?? DateTime.MinValue , user.LastPasswordChangedDate ?? DateTime.MinValue , user.LastLockoutDate ?? DateTime.MinValue ); return member; } (I realize I could probably just inherit my User class from MembershipUser, but it's already part of an existing class hierarchy. I honestly think this is the first time I've encountered a legitimate need for for multiple inheritance!) My feeling is that the new MembershipUser(...) providerName parameter is supposed to match what's set in web.config, but, since they match already, I'm at a loss as to how to proceed. Is there a convenient way to get the name of the active membership provider in code? I'm starting to think that using the built-in membership system is overkill and more trouble than it's worth. Edit Not sure if it's relevant, but the custom membership provider class is in a class library, not the main WAP project. Update Here's the contents of the System.Web.Security.Membership.Provider object as show in the VS2010 command window: >eval System.Web.Security.Membership.Provider {Members.Providers.MembersProvider} [Members.Providers.MembersProvider]: {Members.Providers.MembersProvider} base {System.Configuration.Provider.ProviderBase}: {Members.Providers.MembersProvider} ApplicationName: null EnablePasswordReset: true EnablePasswordRetrieval: false MaxInvalidPasswordAttempts: 5 MinRequiredNonAlphanumericCharacters: 0 MinRequiredPasswordLength: 6 PasswordAttemptWindow: 10 PasswordFormat: Function evaluation was aborted. PasswordStrengthRegularExpression: Cannot evaluate expression because debugging information has been optimized away . RequiresQuestionAndAnswer: Cannot evaluate expression because debugging information has been optimized away . RequiresUniqueEmail: Cannot evaluate expression because debugging information has been optimized away .

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  • Asp.net HttpWebResponse - how can I not depend on WebException for flow control?

    - by Campos
    I need to check whether the request will return a 500 Server Internal Error or not (so getting the error is expected). I'm doing this: HttpWebRequest request = WebRequest.Create(url) as HttpWebRequest; request.Method = "GET"; HttpWebResponse response = request.GetResponse() as HttpWebResponse; if (response.StatusCode == HttpStatusCode.OK) return true; else return false; But when I get the 500 Internal Server Error, a WebException is thrown, and I don't want to depend on it to control the application flow - how can this be done?

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  • Passing a LINQ DataRow Reference in a GridView's ItemTemplate

    - by Bob Kaufman
    Given the following GridView: <asp:GridView runat="server" ID="GridView1" AutoGenerateColumns="false" DataKeyNames="UniqueID" OnSelectedIndexChanging="GridView1_SelectedIndexChanging" > <Columns> <asp:BoundField HeaderText="Remarks" DataField="Remarks" /> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Listing"> <ItemTemplate> <%# ShowListingTitle( ( ( System.Data.DataRowView ) ( Container.DataItem ) ).Row ) %> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:BoundField HeaderText="Amount" DataField="Amount" DataFormatString="{0:C}" /> </Columns> </asp:GridView> which refers to the following code-behind method: protected String ShowListingTitle( DataRow row ) { Listing listing = ( Listing ) row; return NicelyFormattedString( listing.field1, listing.field2, ... ); } The cast from DataRow to Listing is failing (cannot convert from DataRow to Listing) I'm certain the problem lies in what I'm passing from within the ItemTemplate, which is simply not the right reference to the current record from the LINQ to SQL data set that I've created, which looks like this: private void PopulateGrid() { using ( MyDataContext context = new MyDataContext() ) { IQueryable < Listing > listings = from l in context.Listings where l.AccountID == myAccountID select l; GridView1.DataSource = listings; GridView1.DataBind(); } }

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  • ASP.Net MVC, strongly typed view with DateTime not accepted?

    - by Anders Juul
    Hi all, I wish to create a view like <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<System.DateTime?>" %> but I get an error saying that DateTime must be a reference type in order to use for parameter TModel. Fair enough, but I google plenty of examples that implement just what I try to achieve. Any clues as to what I need to change/install/update? Any comments welcome, Anders, Denmark

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