Search Results

Search found 24195 results on 968 pages for 'asp net3 5'.

Page 363/968 | < Previous Page | 359 360 361 362 363 364 365 366 367 368 369 370  | Next Page >

  • Why use ASP.NET MVC 2 for REST services? Why not WCF?

    - by Jeremy McGee
    So I see that MVC 2 now supports [HttpPut] and [HttpDelete] as well as [HttpGet] and [HttpPost], making it possible to do a full RESTful Web service using it. I've been using the REST toolkit for WCF for a while and find it fairly powerful, but I'd be interested to find out what (if any) advantages there are using the MVC 2 approach. Links, war stories, or even pure hear-say are welcome.

    Read the article

  • Accessing the ASP.NET Cache from a Separate Thread?

    - by maxp
    Normally i have a static class that reads and writes to HttpContext.Current.Cache However since adding threading to my project, the threads all get null reference exceptions when trying to retrieve this object. Is there any other way i can access it, workarounds or another cache i can use?

    Read the article

  • How do I get the collection of Model State Errors in ASP.NET MVC?

    - by Ryan Montgomery
    How do I get the collection of errors in a view? I don't want to use the Html Helper Validation Summary or Validation Message. Instead I want to check for errors and if any display them in specific format. Also on the input controls I want to check for a specific property error and add a class to the input. P.S. I'm using the Spark View Engine but the idea should be the same. So I figured I could do something like... <if condition="${ModelState.Errors.Count > 0}"> DispalyErrorSummary() </if> ....and also... <input type="text" value="${Model.Name}" class="?{ModelState.Errors["Name"] != string.empty} error" /> .... Or something like that. UPDATE My final solution looked like this: <input type="text" value="${ViewData.Model.Name}" class="text error?{!ViewData.ModelState.IsValid && ViewData.ModelState["Name"].Errors.Count() > 0}" id="Name" name="Name" /> This only adds the error css class if this property has an error.

    Read the article

  • Request for the permission of type 'System.Web.AspNetHostingPermission' when compiling web site

    - by ahsteele
    I have been using Windows 7 for a while but have not had to work with a particular legacy intranet application since my upgrade. Unfortunately, this application is setup as an ASP.NET Website project hosted on a remote server. When I have the website open in Visual Studio 2008 and try to debug it: Request for the permission of type 'System.Web.AspNetHostingPermission' failed To resolve this issue on Windows Vista machines I would change the machine's .NET Security Configuration to trust the local intranet. I believe this configuration utility relied upon the mscorcfg.msc which from some cursory research appears to be apart of the .NET 2.0 SDK. I have tried to follow the instructions from this Microsoft Support article running the command below to no avail. Drive:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\caspol.exe -m -ag 1 -url "file:////\\computername\sharename\*" FullTrust -exclusive on Presently, I have the following .NET and ASP.NET components installed on my machine Microsoft .NET Compact Framework 2.0 SP2 Microsoft .NET Compact Framework 3.5 Microsoft .NET Framework 4 Client Profile Microsoft .NET Framework 4 Extended Microsoft .NET Framework 4 Multi-Targeting Pack Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 1.0 Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 2 Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 2 - Visual Studio 2008 Tools Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 2 - Visual Studio 2010 Tools Do I need to install the .NET 2.0 SDK? Am I issuing the caspol command incorrectly? Is there something else that I am missing?

    Read the article

  • asp.net compare validators to allow comma and dot (both!) as decimal separator

    - by DanC
    I am using a compare validator, which validates that the entered number is a valid double and also validates it against a given value (greater than zero). I am validating money amounts. Because of the location where the app is used, the locale sets the comma as the decimal separator. The problem is that when a user enters the value using the numeric keyboard, the number gets written with the dot as decimal separator, and is rejected by the validation. I'd like to have this validation done before triggering a postback (like a customvalidator would) and accepting both separators. Any ideas? Thanks

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET Repeater datasource bound to a function. Would it call the function twice?

    - by Frenchie
    In the code behind I have a function that returns a List(Of SomeClass): rptRepeater.DataSource = SomeFunction(SomeVariable) rptRepeater.DataBind() In the html I have a basic repeater layout and am using the below code to get the Properties of each object returned. <%#Databinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "Parameter1")% My question is, would there ever be a case that it would execute the Function more than once?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC 2 VB, Not recognising my import.

    - by SLC
    I had a problem with a project I converted from C# to VB, in that the VB version it cannot seem to find an object even though I declared it with an Import statement at the top. I created a new, default MVC 2 VB project, and the same problem occurs there. I create a new MVC 2 application, I then add a reference to System.Data.Services.Client, and in my Index.aspx, in the Content area, I type <% Dim x As DataServiceQueryContinuation %> which is what I want to use. It gives me a blue squiggly line and says Type 'DataServiceQueryContinuation' is not defined. At the top of the page, I add this: <%@ Import Namespace="System.Data.Services.Client" %> The error persists. My original C# version has no such error. I also get this warning: Warning 2 Namespace or type specified in the Imports 'System.Data.Services.Client' doesn't contain any public member or cannot be found. Make sure the namespace or the type is defined and contains at least one public member. Make sure the imported element name doesn't use any aliases. e:\ASPNETDEBUG\MvcApplication1\MvcApplication1\Views\Home\Index.aspx 10 9 MvcApplication1 Examining the DLL using the tool provided shows that it does have a public member. Also when typing the above, System.Data. provides intellisense but there is no 'Services'. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • How does this C# asp.net random password code work?

    - by quakkels
    Hello all, I'm new to .NET and C# and I'm trying to figure out how this code works: public static string CreateRandomPassword(int PasswordLength) { String _allowedChars = "abcdefghijkmnopqrstuvwxyzABCDEFGHJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ23456789"; Byte[] randomBytes = new Byte[PasswordLength]; RNGCryptoServiceProvider rng = new RNGCryptoServiceProvider(); rng.GetBytes(randomBytes); char[] chars = new char[PasswordLength]; int allowedCharCount = _allowedChars.Length; for(int i = 0;i<PasswordLength;i++) { /// /// I don't understand how this line works: /// chars[i] = _allowedChars[(int)randomBytes[i] % allowedCharCount]; } return new string(chars); } I think I've got a pretty good handle on most of this. I haven't been able to understand the following line: chars[i] = _allowedChars[(int)randomBytes[i] % allowedCharCount]; I understand that the code generates random binary numbers and uses those random numbers in the for loop to select a character from the _allowedChars string. What I don't get is why this code uses the modulous operator (%) to get the _allowedChars index value. Thanks for any help

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC & EF4 Entity Framework - Are there any performance concerns in using the entities vs retrieving only the fields i need?

    - by Ant
    Lets say we have 3 tables, Users, Products, Purchases. There is a view that needs to display the purchases made by a user. I could lookup the data required by doing: from p in DBSet<Purchases>.Include("User").Include("Product") select p; However, I am concern that this may have a performance impact because it will retrieve the full objects. Alternatively, I could select only the fields i need: from p in DBSet<Purchases>.Include("User").Include("Product") select new SimplePurchaseInfo() { UserName = p.User.name, Userid = p.User.Id, ProductName = p.Product.Name ... etc }; So my question is: Whats the best practice in doing this? == EDIT Thanks for all the replies. [QUESTION 1]: I want to know whether all views should work with flat ViewModels with very specific data for that view, or should the ViewModels contain the entity objects. Real example: User reviews Products var query = from dr in productRepository.FindAllReviews() where dr.User.UserId = 'userid' select dr; string sql = ((ObjectQuery)query).ToTraceString(); SELECT [Extent1].[ProductId] AS [ProductId], [Extent1].[Comment] AS [Comment], [Extent1].[CreatedTime] AS [CreatedTime], [Extent1].[Id] AS [Id], [Extent1].[Rating] AS [Rating], [Extent1].[UserId] AS [UserId], [Extent3].[CreatedTime] AS [CreatedTime1], [Extent3].[CreatorId] AS [CreatorId], [Extent3].[Description] AS [Description], [Extent3].[Id] AS [Id1], [Extent3].[Name] AS [Name], [Extent3].[Price] AS [Price], [Extent3].[Rating] AS [Rating1], [Extent3].[ShopId] AS [ShopId], [Extent3].[Thumbnail] AS [Thumbnail], [Extent3].[Creator_UserId] AS [Creator_UserId], [Extent4].[Comment] AS [Comment1], [Extent4].[DateCreated] AS [DateCreated], [Extent4].[DateLastActivity] AS [DateLastActivity], [Extent4].[DateLastLogin] AS [DateLastLogin], [Extent4].[DateLastPasswordChange] AS [DateLastPasswordChange], [Extent4].[Email] AS [Email], [Extent4].[Enabled] AS [Enabled], [Extent4].[PasswordHash] AS [PasswordHash], [Extent4].[PasswordSalt] AS [PasswordSalt], [Extent4].[ScreenName] AS [ScreenName], [Extent4].[Thumbnail] AS [Thumbnail1], [Extent4].[UserId] AS [UserId1], [Extent4].[UserName] AS [UserName] FROM [ProductReviews] AS [Extent1] INNER JOIN [Users] AS [Extent2] ON [Extent1].[UserId] = [Extent2].[UserId] LEFT OUTER JOIN [Products] AS [Extent3] ON [Extent1].[ProductId] = [Extent3].[Id] LEFT OUTER JOIN [Users] AS [Extent4] ON [Extent1].[UserId] = [Extent4].[UserId] WHERE N'615005822' = [Extent2].[UserId] or from d in productRepository.FindAllProducts() from dr in d.ProductReviews where dr.User.UserId == 'userid' orderby dr.CreatedTime select new ProductReviewInfo() { product = new SimpleProductInfo() { Id = d.Id, Name = d.Name, Thumbnail = d.Thumbnail, Rating = d.Rating }, Rating = dr.Rating, Comment = dr.Comment, UserId = dr.UserId, UserScreenName = dr.User.ScreenName, UserThumbnail = dr.User.Thumbnail, CreateTime = dr.CreatedTime }; SELECT [Extent1].[Id] AS [Id], [Extent1].[Name] AS [Name], [Extent1].[Thumbnail] AS [Thumbnail], [Extent1].[Rating] AS [Rating], [Extent2].[Rating] AS [Rating1], [Extent2].[Comment] AS [Comment], [Extent2].[UserId] AS [UserId], [Extent4].[ScreenName] AS [ScreenName], [Extent4].[Thumbnail] AS [Thumbnail1], [Extent2].[CreatedTime] AS [CreatedTime] FROM [Products] AS [Extent1] INNER JOIN [ProductReviews] AS [Extent2] ON [Extent1].[Id] = [Extent2].[ProductId] INNER JOIN [Users] AS [Extent3] ON [Extent2].[UserId] = [Extent3].[UserId] LEFT OUTER JOIN [Users] AS [Extent4] ON [Extent2].[UserId] = [Extent4].[UserId] WHERE N'userid' = [Extent3].[UserId] ORDER BY [Extent2].[CreatedTime] ASC [QUESTION 2]: Whats with the ugly outer joins?

    Read the article

  • How do you create a dropdownlist from an enum in ASP.NET MVC?

    - by Kevin Pang
    I'm trying to use the Html.DropDownList extension method but can't figure out how to use it with an enumeration. Let's say I have an enumeration like this: public enum ItemTypes { Movie = 1, Game = 2, Book = 3 } How do I go about creating a dropdown with these values using the Html.DropDownList extension method? Or is my best bet to simply create a for loop and create the html elements manually?

    Read the article

  • How is unautenticated site navigation handled in ASP.NET?

    - by Code Sherpa
    Hi. I am wondering how to do the following... I have a registration system. When the user successfully registers, he is then led down a series of data gathering pages (for his profile) and then, finally, ends on his profile's home page where he can start to use the site. All this happens without ever logging into the system so, he is unauthenticated and unconfirmed. My question is, how does this happen? How can I allow my user to be unauthenticated (and unconfirmed, but this I understand) and use all aspects of the Web site? The way I have things set up right now, my code should be doing this: case CreateProfileStatus.Success: //FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(userName, false); Response.Redirect("NextPage.aspx", false); break; but, I am being redirected to the login page after registration which is not the result I want. This is what the relevant nodes in my web.config look like: <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms name=".AuthCookie" loginUrl="default.aspx" protection="All"/> </authentication> <authorization> <deny users="?"/> <allow roles="Administrators" /> </authorization> <anonymousIdentification enabled="true" cookieName=".ASPXANONYMOUS" cookieTimeout="100000" cookiePath="/" cookieRequireSSL="false" cookieSlidingExpiration="true" cookieProtection="Encryption" cookieless="UseCookies" domain="" /> When the user logs out after the registration and initial interaction with the site he will be required to log in upon return. At this point he must be authenticated but does not need to be confirmed for a period of time. Eventually, he will be reminded. So, how is this done? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • .NET /asp.net 4: Changes with automatic NAMES of controls?

    - by mark smith
    Hi there, I just updated an app from .net 2.0 to .net 4.0 and i have noticed the following... For example i have the following control.. <input type="hidden" name="ctl00$cphMain$hfdFueraHorarioOficinaConfirmado" id="cphMain_hfdFueraHorarioOficinaConfirmado" value="False" /> and then in javascript i did this before.. var hfdFueraHorarioOficinaConfirmado=document.getElementById('ctl00_cphMain_hfdFueraHorarioOficinaConfirmado'); but after checking the Id within the html source once it renders and also doing some debugging with firebug etc.... it has changed from ctl00_cphMain_hfdFueraHorarioOficinaConfirmado to cphMain_hfdFueraHorarioOficinaConfirmado can anyone explain why? .... so should i basically do a search and replace and remove the ctl00?????? A little confused Obviosuly the javascript line with the the ctl00_ infront return NULL because it doesn't exist, but removing this returns the object.. Any help or ideas really appreciated Thanks

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC UpdateModel doesn't update inherited public properties??

    - by mrjoltcola
    I refactored some common properties into a base class and immediately my model updates started failing. UpdateModel() and TryUpdateModel() do not seem to update inherited public properties. I cannot find detailed info on MSDN nor Google as to the rules or semantics of these methods. The docs are terse (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd470933.aspx), simply stating: Updates the specified model instance using values from the controller's current value provider. Well that leads us to believe it is as simple as that. It makes no mention of limitations with inheritance. My assumption is the methods are reflecting on the top class only, ignoring base properties, but this seems to be an ugly shortcoming, if so. SOLVED: Eep, this turned out to have nothing to do with inheritance. My base class was implemented with public fields, not properties. Switching them to formal properties (adding {get; set; }) was all I needed. This has bitten me before, I keep wanting to use simple, public fields.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET: disabling authentication for a single aspx page (custom error page)?

    - by Richard Collette
    I am using a custom error page: <customErrors redirectMode="ResponseRedirect" mode="On" defaultRedirect="Error2.aspx"/> I want to disable authentication for the custom error page because the error being raised is related to an authentication module and I don't want to get into an infinite loop and I want to display a clean error page to the user. I have been trying the following configuration to do that. <location path="Error2.aspx"> <system.web> <authentication mode="None"/> <authorization> <allow users="?"/> <allow users="*"/> </authorization> </system.web> </location> I am getting a System.Configuration.ConfigurationErrorsException for the line that sets the authentication mode. It is an error to use a section registered as allowDefinition='MachineToApplication' beyond application level. This error can be caused by a virtual directory not being configured as an application in IIS. I have verified that there are no other web.config files in subdirectories under the application's folder. The applications folder is configured as an application in IIS and the error page is at the application's root. File permissions set for the error page in IIS include anonymous and windows authentication (I have tried just anonymous as well).

    Read the article

  • Is it worth caching a Dictionary for foreign key values in ASP.net?

    - by user169867
    I have a Dictionary<int, string> cached (for 20 minutes) that has ~120 ID/Name pairs for a reference table. I iterate over this collection when populating dropdown lists and I'm pretty sure this is faster than querying the DB for the full list each time. My question is more about if it makes sense to use this cached dictionary when displaying records that have a foreign key into this reference table. Say this cached reference table is a EmployeeType table. If I were to query and display a list of employee names and types should I query for EmployeeName and EmployeeTypeID and use my cached dictionary to grab the EmployeeTypeIDs name as each record is displayed or is it faster to just have the DB grab the EmployeeName and JOIN to get the EmployeeType string bypassing the cached Dictionary all together. I know both will work but I'm interested in what will perform the fastest. Thanks for any help.

    Read the article

  • Loosing Textbox value on postback

    - by Dusty Roberts
    Hi Peeps i have an href that once clicking on it, it opens a dialog and sets a textbox value for that dialog. however, once i click on submit in that dialog, the textbox value is null. Link: <a href="#" onclick="javascript:expand('https://me.yahoo.com'); jQuery('#openiddialog').dialog('open'); return false;"><img id="yahoo" class="spacehw" src="/Content/Images/spacer.gif" /></a> Script: <script type="text/javascript"> jQuery(document).ready(function () { jQuery("#openiddialog").dialog({ autoOpen: false, width: 600, modal: true, buttons: { "Cancel": function () { $(this).dialog("close"); } } }); }); function expand(obj) { $("#<%=openIdBox.ClientID %>").val(obj); } </script> Dialog:<div id="openiddialog" title="Log in using OpenID"> <p> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text="OpenID Login" /> <asp:TextBox ID="openIdBox" EnableViewState="true" runat="server" /> <asp:JButton Icon="ui-icon-key" ID="loginButton" runat="server" Text="Authenticate" OnClick="loginButton_Click" /> <asp:CustomValidator runat="server" ID="openidValidator" ErrorMessage="Invalid OpenID Identifier" ControlToValidate="openIdBox" EnableViewState="false" OnServerValidate="openidValidator_ServerValidate" /> <br /> <asp:Label ID="loginFailedLabel" runat="server" EnableViewState="False" Text="Login failed" Visible="False" /> <asp:Label ID="loginCanceledLabel" runat="server" EnableViewState="False" Text="Login canceled" Visible="False" /> </p> </div> ... sorry... can't fix formatting ?!?

    Read the article

  • How to access empty ASP.NET ListView.ListViewItem to apply a style after all databinding is done?

    - by Caroline S.
    We're using a ListView with a GroupTemplate to create a three-column navigation menu with six items in each column, filling in two non-data-bound rows in the last column with an EmptyItemTemplate that contains an empty HTML list item. That part works fine, but I also need to programmatically add a CSS class to the sixth (last) item in each column. That part is also working fine for the first two columns because I'm assigning the CSS class in the DataBound event, where I can iterate through the ListView.Items collection and access the sixth item in the first two columns by using a modulus operator and counter. The problem comes in the last column, where the EmptyItemTemplate has correctly filled in two empty list items, to the last of which I also need to add this CSS class. The empty items are not included in the ListView.Items collection (that's just ListViewDataItems, and the empty items are ListViewItems). I cannot find a way to access the entire collection of ListViewItems after binding. Am I missing something? I know I can access the empty items during ItemCreated, but I can't figure out how to determine where the item I'm creating falls in the flow, and whether it's the last one. Any help would be appreciated, if this can even be done -- I'm a bit stuck.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 359 360 361 362 363 364 365 366 367 368 369 370  | Next Page >