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• How to delete ProgIDs from other user accounts when uninstalling from Windows?

  - by Mordachai

  I've been investigating "how should a modern windows c++ application register its file types" with Windows (see http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2828637/c-how-do-i-correctly-register-and-unregister-file-type-associations-for-our-ap). And having combed through the various MSDN articles on the subject, the summary appears to be as follows: The installer (elevated) should register the global ProgID HKLM\Software\Classes\my-app.my-doc[.version] (e.g. HKLM\Software\Classes\TextPad.text) The installer also configures default associations for its document types (e.g. .myext) and points this to the aforementioned global ProgID in HKLM. NOTE: a user interface should be provided here to allow the user to either accept all default associations, or to customize which associations should be set. The application, running standard (unelevated), should provide a UI for allowing the current user to set their personal associations as is available in the installer, except that these associations are stored in HKCU\Software\Classes (per user, not per machine). The UN-installer is then responsible for deleting all registered ProgIDs (but should leave the actual file associations alone, as Windows is smart enough to handle associations pointing to missing ProgIDs, and this is the specified desired behavior by MSDN). So that schema sounds reasonable to me, except when I consider #4: How does an uninstaller, running elevated for a given user account, delete any per-user ProgIDs created in step #3 for other users? As I understand things, even in elevated mode, an uninstaller cannot go into another user's registry hive and delete items? Or can it? Does it have to load each given user hive first? What are the rules here? Thanks for any insight you might have to offer! EDIT: See below for the solution (My question was founded in confusion)

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• Resumable Upload in Ruby on Rails

  - by user253011

  Hi, I have been searching for a way for resumable file upload in RoR. In conclusion, I found out other than Java Applet no client-side-and-cross-platform agent can access the file system in such a way that to request the file from the position where the upload got terminated (due to any reason) with some exceptions like http://github.com/taf2/resume-up/tree/master (built in native Ruby, but requires google gears which is not "reliable" yet when it comes to cross platform almost same story as of ActiveX!) Since the only reliable option left is java applet, is there any good tutorial/forum/documentation for those paid java applets, such as "thin slice upload" etc. to make it work with rails application. I have found one http : // github . com / dassi / mediaclue , its a non-multi-ligual-German-Application in which they used jumploader. But in that application, I am unable to see resumable functionality. Scratching my head against their documentation, i found out http : // jumploader.com / doc_resume.html It tells that jumploader has resume functionality in Cross session resume, the one i am looking for (if the user close the browser the new session gets hold on uncompleted uploaded files from the old session against the user id). But I cant find any example on their demos page which actually pause/RESUME functionality in a continuous manner! Is it even possible to achieve that kind of resumable functionality. Please tell me about any options/example/demos preferable deployed in rails. I shall be very much obliged. ~ Thanks

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• How can I build value for "for-each" expression in XSLT with help of parameter

  - by Artic

  I need to navigate through this xml tree. <publication> <corporate> <contentItem> <metadata>meta</metadata> <content>html</content> </contentItem> <contentItem > <metadata>meta1</metadata> <content>html1</content> </contentItem> </corporate> <eurasia-and-africa> ... </eurasia-and-africa> <europe> ... </europe> </publication> and convert it to html with this stylesheet <ul> <xsl:variable name="itemsNode" select="concat('publicationManifest/',$group,'/contentItem')"></xsl:variable> <xsl:for-each select="$itemsNode"> <li> <xsl:value-of select="content"/> </li> </xsl:for-each> </ul> $group is a parameter with name of group for example "corporate". I have an error with compilation of this stylsheet. SystemID: D:\1\contentsTransform.xslt Engine name: Saxon6.5.5 Severity: error Description: The value is not a node-set Start location: 18:0 What the matter?

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• Hibernate Session flush behaviour [ and Spring @Transactional ]

  - by EugeneP

  I use Spring and Hibernate in a web-app, SessionFactory is injected into a DAO bean, and then this DAO is used in a Servlet through webservicecontext. DAO methods are transactional, inside one of the methods I use ... getCurrentSession().save(myObject); One servlet calls this method with an object passed. The update seems to not be flushed at once, it takes about 5 seconds to see the changes in the database. The servlet's method in which that DAO's update method is called, takes a fraction of second to complete. After the @Transactional method of DAO is completed, flushing may NOT happen ? It does not seem to be a rule [ I already see it ]. Then the question is this: what to do to force the session to flush after every DAO method? It may not be a good thing to do, but talking about a Service layer, some methods must end with immediate flush, and Hibernate Session behavior is not predictable. So what to do to guarantee that my @Transactional method persists all the changes after the last line of that method code? getCurrentSession().flush() is the only solution? p.s. I read somewhere that @Transactional IS ASSOCIATED with a DB Transaction. Method returns, transaction must be committed. I do not see this happens.

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• How to access frame (not iframe) contents from jQuery.

  - by kazanaki

  Hello I have 2 frames in one page like this (home.html) <frameset rows="50%, 50%"> <frame id="treeContent" src="treeContent.html" /> <frame id="treeStatus" src="treeStatus.html" /> </frameset> and then in one frame (treeStatus.html) I have something like <body style="margin: 0px"> <div id="statusText">Status bar for Tree</div> </body> I want from the top window to manipulate the div located in the child frame via jquery (e.g show and hide). I have seen several questions like this and they suggest the following $(document).ready(function(){ $('#treeStatus').contents().find("statusText").hide(); }); I do not know if this works with iframes but in my case where I have simple frames it does not seem to work. The code is placed inside home.html Here is some output from firebug console >>> $('#treeStatus') [frame#treeStatus] >>> $('#treeStatus').contents() [] >>> $('#treeStatus').children() [] So how do I access frame elements from the top frame? Am I missing something here?

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• VB.NET CInt(Long) behaving differently in 32- and 64-bit environments

  - by LocoDelAssembly

  Hello everybody, this is my first message here. Today I had a problem converting a Long (Int64) to an Integer (Int32). The problem is that my code was always working in 32-bit environments, but when I try THE SAME executable in a 64-bit computer it crashes with a System.OverflowException exception. I've prepared this test code in VS2008 in a new project with default settings: Module Module1 Sub Main() Dim alpha As Long = -1 Dim delta As Integer Try delta = CInt(alpha And UInteger.MaxValue) Console.WriteLine("CINT OK") delta = Convert.ToInt32(alpha And UInteger.MaxValue) Console.WriteLine("Convert.ToInt32 OK") Catch ex As Exception Console.WriteLine(ex.GetType().ToString()) Finally Console.ReadLine() End Try End Sub End Module On my 32-bit setups (Windows XP SP3 32-bit and Windows 7 32-bit) it prints "CINT OK", but in the 64-bit computer (Windows 7 64-bit) that I've tested THE SAME executable it prints the exception name only. Is this behavior documented? I tried to find a reference but failed miserably. For reference I leave the MSIL code too: .method public static void Main() cil managed { .entrypoint .custom instance void [mscorlib]System.STAThreadAttribute::.ctor() = ( 01 00 00 00 ) // Code size 88 (0x58) .maxstack 2 .locals init ([0] int64 alpha, [1] int32 delta, [2] class [mscorlib]System.Exception ex) IL_0000: nop IL_0001: ldc.i4.m1 IL_0002: conv.i8 IL_0003: stloc.0 IL_0004: nop .try { .try { IL_0005: ldloc.0 IL_0006: ldc.i4.m1 IL_0007: conv.u8 IL_0008: and IL_0009: conv.ovf.i4 IL_000a: stloc.1 IL_000b: ldstr "CINT OK" IL_0010: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(string) IL_0015: nop IL_0016: ldloc.0 IL_0017: ldc.i4.m1 IL_0018: conv.u8 IL_0019: and IL_001a: call int32 [mscorlib]System.Convert::ToInt32(int64) IL_001f: stloc.1 IL_0020: ldstr "Convert.ToInt32 OK" IL_0025: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(string) IL_002a: nop IL_002b: leave.s IL_0055 } // end .try catch [mscorlib]System.Exception { IL_002d: dup IL_002e: call void [Microsoft.VisualBasic]Microsoft.VisualBasic.CompilerServices.ProjectData::SetProjectError(class [mscorlib]System.Exception) IL_0033: stloc.2 IL_0034: nop IL_0035: ldloc.2 IL_0036: callvirt instance class [mscorlib]System.Type [mscorlib]System.Exception::GetType() IL_003b: callvirt instance string [mscorlib]System.Type::ToString() IL_0040: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(string) IL_0045: nop IL_0046: call void [Microsoft.VisualBasic]Microsoft.VisualBasic.CompilerServices.ProjectData::ClearProjectError() IL_004b: leave.s IL_0055 } // end handler } // end .try finally { IL_004d: nop IL_004e: call string [mscorlib]System.Console::ReadLine() IL_0053: pop IL_0054: endfinally } // end handler IL_0055: nop IL_0056: nop IL_0057: ret } // end of method Module1::Main I suspect that the instruction that is behaving differently is either conv.ovf.i4 or the ldc.i4.m1/conv.u8 pair. If you know what is going on here please let me know Thanks

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• Why is Excel's 'Evaluate' method a general expression evaluator?

  - by jtolle

  A few questions have come up recently involving the Application.Evaluate method callable from Excel VBA. The old XLM macro language also exposes an EVALUATE() function. Both can be quite useful. Does anyone know why the evaluator that is exposed can handle general expressions, though? My own hunch is that Excel needed to give people a way to get ranges from string addresses, and to get the value of named formulas, and just opening a portal to the expression evaluator was the easiest way. (The help for the VBA version does say its purpose it to "convert a Microsoft Excel name to an object or a value".) But of course you don't need the ability to evaluate arbitrary expressions just to do that. (That is, Excel could provide a Name.Evaluate method or something instead.) Application.Evaluate seems kind of...unfinished. It's full behavior isn't very well documented, and there are quite a few quirks and limitations (as described by Charles Williams here: http://www.decisionmodels.com/calcsecretsh.htm) with what is exposed. I suppose the answer could be simply "why not expose it?", but I'd be interested to know what design decisions led to this feature taking the form that it does. Failing that, I'd be interested to hear other hunches.

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• How combine TabBar + Navigation with XCode

  - by mamcx

  I'm triying to combine a TabBar + Navigation app. I have 5 tab bars, 4 are listing of stuff and drill down to details views. I try to follow this tutorial: http://www.iphonedevforums.com/forum/iphone-sdk-development/124-view-controller-problem.html But always get a blank view. This is what I do, with a clean project: I start with a TabBar template app. I put 5 tab bar buttons. I create a controller like: @interface FirstViewController : UINavigationController { } I put the main window.xib on tree mode & change the selected first view to FirstViewController I select the TabBar Controller in Interface builder, go to TabBar Attributes & change the class to navigation controler. Select the fist view & put the nib name "SecondView" In response, I get a blank screen. I must add that I wanna navigate from the details views, no from the main windows. i.e in the main window tab bar 1 is the list of people. I select a person then wanna navigate to the detail window.

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• Getting memory leak at NSURL connection in Iphone sdk.

  - by monish

  Hi guys, Here Im getting leak at the NSURL connection in my libxml parser can anyone tell how to resolve it. The code where leak generates is: - (BOOL)parseWithLibXML2Parser { BOOL success = NO; ZohoAppDelegate *appDelegate = (ZohoAppDelegate*) [ [UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; NSString* curl; if ([cName length] == 0) { curl = @"https://invoice.zoho.com/api/view/settings/currencies?ticket="; curl = [curl stringByAppendingString:appDelegate.ticket]; curl = [curl stringByAppendingString:@"&apikey="]; curl = [curl stringByAppendingString:appDelegate.apiKey]; curl = [curl stringByReplacingOccurrencesOfString:@"\n" withString:@""]; } NSURLRequest *theRequest = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:[NSURL URLWithString:curl]]; NSLog(@"the request parserWithLibXml2Parser %@",theRequest); NSURLConnection *con = [[[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:theRequest delegate:self] autorelease];//Memory leak generated here at this line of code. //self.connection = con; //[con release]; // This creates a context for "push" parsing in which chunks of data that are // not "well balanced" can be passed to the context for streaming parsing. // The handler structure defined above will be used for all the parsing. The // second argument, self, will be passed as user data to each of the SAX // handlers. The last three arguments are left blank to avoid creating a tree // in memory. _xmlParserContext = xmlCreatePushParserCtxt(&simpleSAXHandlerStruct, self, NULL, 0, NULL); if(con != nil) { do { [[NSRunLoop currentRunLoop] runMode:NSDefaultRunLoopMode beforeDate:[NSDate distantFuture]]; } while (!_done && !self.error); } if(self.error) { //NSLog(@"parsing error"); [self.delegate parser:self encounteredError:nil]; } else { success = YES; } return success; } Anyone's help will be muck appreciated . Thank you, Monish.

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• Using a single texture image unit with multiple sampler uniforms

  - by bcrist

  I am writing a batching system which tracks currently bound textures in order to avoid unnecessary glBindTexture() calls. I'm not sure if I need to keep track of which textures have already been used by a particular batch so that if a texture is used twice, it will be bound to a different TIU for the second sampler which requires it. Is it acceptable for an OpenGL application to use the same texture image unit for multiple samplers within the same shader stage? What about samplers in different shader stages? For example: Fragment shader: ... uniform sampler2D samp1; uniform sampler2D samp2; void main() { ... } Main program: ... glActiveTexture(GL_TEXTURE0); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, tex_id); glUniform1i(samp1_location, 0); glUniform1i(samp2_location, 0); ... I don't see any reason why this shouldn't work, but what about if the shader program also included a vertex shader like this: Vertex shader: ... uniform sampler2D samp1; void main() { ... } In this case, OpenGL is supposed to treat both instances of samp1 as the same variable, and exposes a single location for them. Therefore, the same texture unit is being used in the vertex and fragment shaders. I have read that using the same texture in two different shader stages counts doubly against GL_MAX_COMBINED_TEXTURE_IMAGE_UNITS but this would seem to contradict that. In a quick test on my hardware (HD 6870), all of the following scenarios worked as expected: 1 TIU used for 2 sampler uniforms in same shader stage 1 TIU used for 1 sampler uniform which is used in 2 shader stages 1 TIU used for 2 sampler uniforms, each occurring in a different stage. However, I don't know if this is behavior that I should expect on all hardware/drivers, or if there are performance implications.

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• Is NFS capable of preserving order of operations?

  - by JustJeff

  I have a diskless host 'A', that has a directory NFS mounted on server 'B'. A process on A writes to two files F1 and F2 in that directory, and a process on B monitors these files for changes. Assume that B polls for changes faster than A is expected to make them. Process A seeks the head of the files, writes data, and flushes. Process B seeks the head of the files and does reads. Are there any guarantees about how the order of the changes performed by A will be detected at B? Specifically, if A alternately writes to one file, and then the other, is it reasonable to expect that B will notice alternating changes to F1 and F2? Or could B conceivably detect a series of changes on F1 and then a series on F2? I know there are a lot of assumptions embedded in the question. For instance, I am virtually certain that, even operating on just one file, if A performs 100 operations on the file, B may see a smaller number of changes that give the same result, due to NFS caching some of the actions on A before they are communicated to B. And of course there would be issues with concurrent file access even if NFS weren't involved and both the reading and the writing process were running on the same real file system. The reason I'm even putting the question up here is that it seems like most of the time, the setup described above does detect the changes at B in the same order they are made at A, but that occasionally some events come through in transposed order. So, is it worth trying to make this work? Is there some way to tune NFS to make it work, perhaps cache settings or something? Or is fine-grained behavior like this just too much expect from NFS?

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• iPhone SDK: problem managing orientation with multiple view controllers.

  - by Tom

  I'm trying to build an iPhone application that has two subviews in the main window. Each view has its own UIViewController subclass associated with it. Also, within each controller's implementation, I've added the following method: -(BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation: (UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation { return YES; } Thus, I would expect both of the views to respond to changes in orientation. However, this is not the case. Only the first view added to the app's main window responds to orientation. (If I swap the order the views are added, then only the other view responds. In other words, either will work--but only one at a time.) Why is this? Is it not possible to handle the orientation changes of more than one view? Thanks! EDIT: Someone else had this question, so I'm copying my solution here: I was able to address this issue by providing a root view and a root view controller with the method "shouldAutoRotate..." and adding my other views as subviews to the root view. The subviews inherit the auto-rotating behavior, and their associated view controllers shouldn't need to override "shouldAutoRotate..."

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• OnEditorActionListener called twice with same eventTime on SenseUI keyboard

  - by ydant

  On just one phone I am testing on (HTC Incredible, Android 2.2, Software 3.21.605.1), I am experiencing the following behavior. The onEditorAction event handler is being called twice (immediately) when the Enter key on the Sense UI keyboard is pressed. The KeyEvent.getEventTime() is the same for both times the event is called, leading me to this work-around: protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { [...] EditText text = (EditText)findViewById(R.id.txtBox); text.setOnEditorActionListener(new OnEditorActionListener() { private long lastCalled = -1; public boolean onEditorAction(TextView v, int actionId, KeyEvent event) { if ( event.getEventTime() == lastCalled ) { return false; } else { lastCalled = event.getEventTime(); handleNextButton(v); return true; } } }); [...] } The EditText is defined as: <EditText android:layout_width="150sp" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:id="@+id/txtBox" android:imeOptions="actionNext" android:capitalize="characters" android:singleLine="true" android:inputType="textVisiblePassword|textCapCharacters|textNoSuggestions" android:autoText="false" android:editable="true" android:maxLength="6" /> On all other devices I've tested on, the action button is properly labeled "Next" and the event is only called a single time when that button is pressed. Is this a bug in Sense UI's keyboard, or am I doing something incorrectly? Thank you for any assistance.

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• If Statements Skipping or Evaluating Strangely, JavaScript and jquery

  - by tlm2021

  So in jQuery, I have a global variable "currentSubNav" that stores a current visible element. The following code executes on "mouseenter". I need it to get store element's ID, check to see if there was one. If there wasn't, set the new visible element to the default. $('#mainMenu a').mouseenter(function() { var newName = $(this).attr("id"); if(newName == ''){ var newName = "default"; } Then it checks to see if the new element matches the current one. If so, it returns. If not, it performs the animations to bring in the new one. if(newName == currentSubNav){ return; }else{ $("div[name=" + currentSubNav + "]").animate({"left": "+=600px", "opacity": "toggle"}, "slow"); $("div[name=" + newName + "]").css({"margin-top": "0"}); $("div[name=" + newName + "]").fadeIn(2000); $("div[name=" + currentSubNav + "]").animate({"left": "-=600px"}, 0); currentSubNav = newName; return; } }); I'm using Chrome at the moment, and according to the dev tools that isn't what happens. Problem #1 "$(this).attr("id");" isn't returning undefined as the documentation claims. It seems to be returning "". BUT, when I have the if statement as I do above, it skips over the statement entirely. I set a breakpoint, but it never pauses execuation, so the statement is never evaluated. Problem #2 After the animations occur, instead of using the return at the end of the statements it goes back and uses the return for the "newName == currentSubNav" if statement. I guess that not a big deal, but it's not the intended behavior. I'm fairly new to JavaScript, and it appears I'm missing something about how JavaScript works. But I can't find what anywhere. Any help? Blockquote

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• jquery how to access the an xml node by index?

  - by DS

  Hi, say I've an xml returned from server like this: <persons> <person> <firstname>Jon</firstname> </person> <person> <firstname>Jack</firstname> </person> <person> <firstname>James</firstname> </person> </persons> If I want to access the 3rd firstname node (passed dynamically and stored in i, assumed to be 3 here), how do I do that? My weird attempt follows: var i=3; $(xml).find('firstname').each(function(idx){ if (idx==i) alert($(this).text()); }); It does fetch me the right content... but it just feels wrong to me especially the looping part. Basically I'm looping through the whole tree using .each()! Is there any better approach than this? Something that'd take me to the nth node directly like: alert( $(xml).find('firstname')[idx].text() ); // where idx=n I'm new to jquery so please excuse my jquery coding approach.

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• Time fields in Rails coming back blank

  - by Isaac Cambron

  I have a simple Rails 3.b1 (Ruby 1.9.1) application running on Sqlite3. I have this table: create_table :time_tests do |t| t.time :time end And I see this behavior: irb(main):001:0> tt = TimeTest.new => #<TimeTest id: nil, time: nil> irb(main):002:0> tt.time = Time.zone.now => Mon, 03 May 2010 20:13:21 UTC +00:00 irb(main):003:0> tt.save => true irb(main):004:0> TimeTest.find(:first) => #<TimeTest id: 1, time: "2000-01-01 20:13:21"> So, the time is coming back blank. Checking the table, the data looks OK: sqlite> select * from time_tests; 1|2010-05-03 20:13:21.774741 I guess it's on the retrieval part? What's going on here?

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• AJAX/JSONP Question. Access id denied using IE while requesting corss domain.

  - by Sisir

  Ok, Here we go. I have already searched the Stack for the answer i have found some useful info but i want to clear up some more things. I also search the net for the answer but no real help. I have worked with some api (yelp, ouside.in). In yelp i use to inject the script to head with the url request to the api with a callback funcion. I worked fine in all browsers. But while using outside.in api when i call the url the callback in not working. In yelp they have a url field can be used like that callback=callbackfuncion so the callback will automatically called. But in outside.in there is not such field available. Is there are any standard command for callback function which will work regardless of any server/api? I also tried a standard ajax request using jQuery $.ajax() function. It worked for my local pc for both IE and other browser but did not working in IE showing the error: access denied, other borwser seems ok. Firebug in my FF also don't notice any errors. Outside.in has an javascript example but it is too hard to me to understand github.com/outsidein/api-examples/tree/master/javascript/browser/ site i am working: http://citystir.com yelp: yelp.com outside.in: outside.in Techniqual info: i am using: wampserver in local, wordpress for hosting, Godaddy, apache for remote with linux. Codes: Using Jquery $.ajax url is like: "http://hyperlocal-api.outside.in/v1.1/states/Illinois/cities/chicago/stories?dev_key="+key+"&sig="+signeture+"&limit=3 function makeOutsideRequest(url){ $.ajax({ url: url, dataType: 'json', type: 'GET', success: function (data, status, xhr) { if (data == null) { alert("An error occurred connecting to " + url + ". Please ensure that the server is running and configured to allow cross-origin requests."); }else{ printHomeNews(data); } }, error: function (xhr, status, error) { alert("An error occurred - check the server log for a stack trace."); } }); } Thanks!

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• 3 questions about JSON-P format.

  - by Tristan

  Hi, I have to write a script which will be hosted on differents domains. This script has to get information from my server. So, stackoverflow's user told me that i have to use JSON-P format, which, after research, is what i'm going to do. (the data provided in JSON-P is for displaying some information hosted on my server on other website) How do I output JSON-P from my server ? Is it the same as the json_encode function from PHP How do i design the tree pattern for the output JSON-P (you know, like : ({"name" : "foo", "id" : "xxxxx", "blog" : "http://xxxxxx.com"}); can I steal this from my XML output ? (http://bit.ly/9kzBDP) Each time a visitor browse a website on which my widget is it'll make a request on my server, requesting the JSON-P data to display on the client side. It'll increase dramatically the CPU load (1 visitor on the website who will have the script = 1 SQL request on my server to output data), so is there any way to 'caching' the JSON-P information output to refresh it only one or twice a day and stores it into a 'file' (in which extension?). BUT on the other hand i would say that requesting the JSON-P data directly (without caching it) is a plus, because, websites which will integrates the script only want to display THEIR information and not the whole data. So, making a script with something like that: jQuery.getJSON("http://www.something.com/json-p/outpout?filter=5&callback=?", function(data) { ................); }); Where filter= the information the website wants to display What do you think ? Thank you very much ;)

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• ASP.NET MVC3 ValueProvider drops string input to a double property

  - by Daniel Koverman

  I'm attempting to validate the input of a text box which corresponds to a property of type double in my model. If the user inputs "foo" I want to know about it so I can display an error. However, the ValueProvider is dropping the value silently (no errors are added to the ModelState). In a normal submission, I fill in "2" for the text box corresponding to myDouble and submit the form. Inspecting controllerContext.HttpContext.Request.Form shows that myDouble=2, among other correct inputs. bindingContext.ValueProvider.GetValue("myDouble") == 2, as expected. The bindingContext.ModelState.Count == 6 and bindingContext.ModelState["myDouble"].Errors.Count == 0. Everything is good and the model binds as expected. Then I fill in "foo" for the text box corresponding to myDouble and submitted the form. Inspecting controllerContext.HttpContext.Request.Form shows that myDouble=foo, which is what I expected. However, bindingContext.ValueProvider.GetValue("myDouble") == null and bindingContext.ModelState.Count == 5 (The exact number isn't important, but it's one less than before). Looking at the ValueProvider, is as if myDouble was never submitted and the model binding occurs as if it wasn't. This makes it difficult to differentiate between a bad input and no input. Is this the expected behavior of ValueProvider? Is there a way to get ValueProvider to report when conversion fails without implementing a custom ValueProvider? Thanks!

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• Heapsort not working in Python for list of strings using heapq module

  - by VSN

  I was reading the python 2.7 documentation when I came across the heapq module. I was interested in the heapify() and the heappop() methods. So, I decided to write a simple heapsort program for integers: from heapq import heapify, heappop user_input = raw_input("Enter numbers to be sorted: ") data = map (int, user_input.split(",")) new_data = [] for i in range(len(data)): heapify(data) new_data.append(heappop(data)) print new_data This worked like a charm. To make it more interesting, I thought I would take away the integer conversion and leave it as a string. Logically, it should make no difference and the code should work as it did for integers: from heapq import heapify, heappop user_input = raw_input("Enter numbers to be sorted: ") data = user_input.split(",") new_data = [] for i in range(len(data)): heapify(data) print data new_data.append(heappop(data)) print new_data Note: I added a print statement in the for loop to see the heapified list. Here's the output when I ran the script: `$ python heapsort.py Enter numbers to be sorted: 4, 3, 1, 9, 6, 2 [' 1', ' 3', ' 2', ' 9', ' 6', '4'] [' 2', ' 3', '4', ' 9', ' 6'] [' 3', ' 6', '4', ' 9'] [' 6', ' 9', '4'] [' 9', '4'] ['4'] [' 1', ' 2', ' 3', ' 6', ' 9', '4']` The reasoning I applied was that since the strings are being compared, the tree should be the same if they were numbers. As is evident, the heapify didn't work correctly after the third iteration. Could someone help me figure out if I am missing something here? I'm running Python 2.4.5 on RedHat 3.4.6-9. Thanks, VSN

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• Determining if object is visible and clickable

  - by Alan Mendelevich

  I'm looking for ways to effectively determine if a control is actually visible and clickable. I mean beyond checking Visibility property of the object. I can check RenderSize and that would be [0,0] if any of the parent elements is collapsed. So this is simple too. I can also traverse up the visual tree and see if Opacity of all elements is set to 1. What I don't know how to check nicely are these scenarios: The object is obstructed by some other object. Obviously it's possible to use FindElementsInHostCoordinates() and do computations to find out how much these objects obstruct but this could be an overkill. I can also make a "screenshot" of the object in question and "screenshot" of the whole page and check if pixels where my object should be match the actual object pixels. That sounds like an overkill too. The object is obstructed by a transparent object that still "swallows" clicks (taps). The workarounds for the first problem could still fail in this scenario. Any better ideas? Do I miss something? Thanks!

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• Aliasing `T*` with `char*` is allowed. Is it also allowed the other way around?

  - by StackedCrooked

  Note: This question has been renamed and reduced to make it more focused and readable. Most of the comments refer to the old text. According to the standard objects of different type may not share the same memory location. So this would not be legal: int i = 0; short * s = reinterpret_cast<short*>(&i); // BAD! The standard however allows an exception to this rule: any object may be accessed through a pointer to char or unsigned char: int i = 0; char * c = reinterpret_cast<char*>(&i); // OK However, it is not clear to me if this is also allowed the other way around. For example: char * c = read_socket(...); unsigned * u = reinterpret_cast<unsigned*>(c); // huh? Summary of the answers The answer is NO for two reasons: You an only access an existing object as char*. There is no object in my sample code, only a byte buffer. The pointer address may not have the right alignment for the target object. In that case dereferencing it would result in undefined behavior. On the Intel and AMD platforms it will result performance overhead. On ARM it will trigger a CPU trap and your program will be terminated! This is a simplified explanation. For more detailed information see answers by @Luc Danton, @Cheers and hth. - Alf and @David Rodríguez.

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• Wicket: Where to add components? Constructor? Or onBeforeRender?

  - by gmallett

  I'm a Wicket newb. This may just be my ignorance of the Wicket lifecycle so please enlighten me! My understanding is that Wicket WebPage objects are instantiated once and then serialized. This has led to a point of confusion for me, see below. Currently I have a template class which I intend to subclass. I followed the example in the Wicket docs demonstrating how to override the template's behavior in the subclass: protected void onBeforeRender() { add(new Label("title", getTitle())); super.onBeforeRender(); } protected String getTitle() { return "template"; } Subclass: protected String getTitle() { return "Home"; } This works very well. What's not clear to me are the "best practices" for this. It seems like onBeforeRender() is called on every request for the page, no? This seems like there would be substantially more processing done on a page if everything is in onBeforeRender(). I could easily follow the example of the other Wicket examples and add some components in the constructor that I do not want to override, but then I've divided by component logic into two places, something I'm hesitant to do. If I add a component that I intend to be in all subclasses, should I add it to the constructor or onBeforeRender()?

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• Why <textarea> and <textfield> not taking font-family and font-size from body?

  - by metal-gear-solid

  Why Textarea and textfield not taking font-family and font-size from body? See live example here http://jsbin.com/ucano4 Code <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>texearea font</title> <style type="text/css"> body { font-family: Verdana, Geneva, sans-serif; font-size:16px } </style> </head> <body> <form action="" method="get"> <textarea name="" cols="20" rows="4"></textarea> <input name="" type="text" /> </form> <p>some text here</p> </body> </html> If it's a usual behavior then should i write in css like this. i need same style in all body,textarea,input { font-family: Verdana, Geneva, sans-serif; font-size:16px } And how many other elements in XHTML which will not take font styling from body {....}?

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• Shared Git repo syncing to svn causing git svn rebase to pollute repo with a log of no-op merge prob

  - by John K

  This wasn't so bad at the beginning, but now I have hundreds of no-op merge problems (solved by git rebase --skip). I have setup a shared git repo for my group because it is easier to deal with. But the company uses SVN so I have to keep SVN in sync with GIT. Worked like a dream at first, but after weeks of doing this GIT is giving me a lot of the following errors. Applying: * making all config actions work Using index info to reconstruct a base tree... Falling back to patching base and 3-way merge... Auto-merging app/controllers/vulnerabilities_controller.rb CONFLICT (content): Merge conflict in app/controllers/vulnerabilities_controller.rb Auto-merging public/javascripts/network_analysis_vulnerability_config.js CONFLICT (content): Merge conflict in public/javascripts/network_analysis_vulnerability_config.js Failed to merge in the changes. Patch failed at 0046 * making all config actions work My workflow: git co master git pull origin git svn rebase ... deal with no-op merge problems ... git svn dcommit git pull origin git push origin The problem is that what is in SVN is the correct so I use git rebase --skip, but I have to do that hundreds of times before I can dcommit. How do I clear these merge problems permanently?

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