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  • Hibernate Session flush behaviour [ and Spring @Transactional ]

    - by EugeneP
    I use Spring and Hibernate in a web-app, SessionFactory is injected into a DAO bean, and then this DAO is used in a Servlet through webservicecontext. DAO methods are transactional, inside one of the methods I use ... getCurrentSession().save(myObject); One servlet calls this method with an object passed. The update seems to not be flushed at once, it takes about 5 seconds to see the changes in the database. The servlet's method in which that DAO's update method is called, takes a fraction of second to complete. After the @Transactional method of DAO is completed, flushing may NOT happen ? It does not seem to be a rule [ I already see it ]. Then the question is this: what to do to force the session to flush after every DAO method? It may not be a good thing to do, but talking about a Service layer, some methods must end with immediate flush, and Hibernate Session behavior is not predictable. So what to do to guarantee that my @Transactional method persists all the changes after the last line of that method code? getCurrentSession().flush() is the only solution? p.s. I read somewhere that @Transactional IS ASSOCIATED with a DB Transaction. Method returns, transaction must be committed. I do not see this happens.

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  • Time fields in Rails coming back blank

    - by Isaac Cambron
    I have a simple Rails 3.b1 (Ruby 1.9.1) application running on Sqlite3. I have this table: create_table :time_tests do |t| t.time :time end And I see this behavior: irb(main):001:0> tt = TimeTest.new => #<TimeTest id: nil, time: nil> irb(main):002:0> tt.time = Time.zone.now => Mon, 03 May 2010 20:13:21 UTC +00:00 irb(main):003:0> tt.save => true irb(main):004:0> TimeTest.find(:first) => #<TimeTest id: 1, time: "2000-01-01 20:13:21"> So, the time is coming back blank. Checking the table, the data looks OK: sqlite> select * from time_tests; 1|2010-05-03 20:13:21.774741 I guess it's on the retrieval part? What's going on here?

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  • If Statements Skipping or Evaluating Strangely, JavaScript and jquery

    - by tlm2021
    So in jQuery, I have a global variable "currentSubNav" that stores a current visible element. The following code executes on "mouseenter". I need it to get store element's ID, check to see if there was one. If there wasn't, set the new visible element to the default. $('#mainMenu a').mouseenter(function() { var newName = $(this).attr("id"); if(newName == ''){ var newName = "default"; } Then it checks to see if the new element matches the current one. If so, it returns. If not, it performs the animations to bring in the new one. if(newName == currentSubNav){ return; }else{ $("div[name=" + currentSubNav + "]").animate({"left": "+=600px", "opacity": "toggle"}, "slow"); $("div[name=" + newName + "]").css({"margin-top": "0"}); $("div[name=" + newName + "]").fadeIn(2000); $("div[name=" + currentSubNav + "]").animate({"left": "-=600px"}, 0); currentSubNav = newName; return; } }); I'm using Chrome at the moment, and according to the dev tools that isn't what happens. Problem #1 "$(this).attr("id");" isn't returning undefined as the documentation claims. It seems to be returning "". BUT, when I have the if statement as I do above, it skips over the statement entirely. I set a breakpoint, but it never pauses execuation, so the statement is never evaluated. Problem #2 After the animations occur, instead of using the return at the end of the statements it goes back and uses the return for the "newName == currentSubNav" if statement. I guess that not a big deal, but it's not the intended behavior. I'm fairly new to JavaScript, and it appears I'm missing something about how JavaScript works. But I can't find what anywhere. Any help? Blockquote

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  • WinForms: How to determine if window is no longer active (no child window has focus)?

    - by Marek
    My application uses multiple windows I want to hide one specific window in case the application loses focus (when the Active Window is not the application window) source I am handling the Deactivate event of my main form. private void MainForm_Deactivate(object sender, EventArgs e) { Console.WriteLine("deactivate"); if (GetActiveWindow() == this.Handle) { Console.WriteLine("isactive=true"); } else { Console.WriteLine("isactive=false"); } } [DllImport("user32.dll")] static extern IntPtr GetActiveWindow(); The output is always deactivate isactive=true I have observed the same behavior if a new window within my application receives focus and also if I click into a different application. I would expect GetActiveWindow to return the handle of the new active window when called from the Deactivate handler. Instead it always returns the handle of my application window. How is this possible? Is the Deactivate event handled "too soon"? (while the main form is still active?). How can I detect that my application has lost focus (my application window is not the active window) and another application gained it without running GetActiveWindow on a timer?

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  • Using an embedded DB (SQLite / SQL Compact) for Message Passing within an app?

    - by wk1989
    Hello, Just out of curiosity, for applications that have a fairly complicated module tree, would something like sqlite/sql compact edition work well for message passing? So if I have modules containing data such as: \SubsystemA\SubSubSysB\ModuleB\ModuleDataC, \SubSystemB\SubSubSystemC\ModuleA\ModuleDataX Using traditional message passing/routing, you have to go through intermediate modules in order to pass a message to ModuleB to request say ModuleDataC. Instead of doing that, if we we simply store "\SubsystemA\SubSubSysB\ModuleB\ModuleDataC" in a sqlite database, getting that data is as simple as a sql query and needs no routing and passing stuff around. Has anyone done this before? Even if you haven't, do you foresee any issues & performance impact? The only concern I have right now would be the passing of custom types, e.g. if ModuleDataC is a custom data structure or a pointer, I'll need some way of storing the data structure into the DB or storing the pointer into the DB. Thanks, JW EDIT One usage case I haven't thought about is when you want to send a message from ModuleA to ModuleB to get ModuleB to do something rather than just getting/setting data. Is it possible to do this using an embedded DB? I believe callback from the DB would be needed, how feasible is this?

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  • Why is Excel's 'Evaluate' method a general expression evaluator?

    - by jtolle
    A few questions have come up recently involving the Application.Evaluate method callable from Excel VBA. The old XLM macro language also exposes an EVALUATE() function. Both can be quite useful. Does anyone know why the evaluator that is exposed can handle general expressions, though? My own hunch is that Excel needed to give people a way to get ranges from string addresses, and to get the value of named formulas, and just opening a portal to the expression evaluator was the easiest way. (The help for the VBA version does say its purpose it to "convert a Microsoft Excel name to an object or a value".) But of course you don't need the ability to evaluate arbitrary expressions just to do that. (That is, Excel could provide a Name.Evaluate method or something instead.) Application.Evaluate seems kind of...unfinished. It's full behavior isn't very well documented, and there are quite a few quirks and limitations (as described by Charles Williams here: http://www.decisionmodels.com/calcsecretsh.htm) with what is exposed. I suppose the answer could be simply "why not expose it?", but I'd be interested to know what design decisions led to this feature taking the form that it does. Failing that, I'd be interested to hear other hunches.

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  • Wicket: Where to add components? Constructor? Or onBeforeRender?

    - by gmallett
    I'm a Wicket newb. This may just be my ignorance of the Wicket lifecycle so please enlighten me! My understanding is that Wicket WebPage objects are instantiated once and then serialized. This has led to a point of confusion for me, see below. Currently I have a template class which I intend to subclass. I followed the example in the Wicket docs demonstrating how to override the template's behavior in the subclass: protected void onBeforeRender() { add(new Label("title", getTitle())); super.onBeforeRender(); } protected String getTitle() { return "template"; } Subclass: protected String getTitle() { return "Home"; } This works very well. What's not clear to me are the "best practices" for this. It seems like onBeforeRender() is called on every request for the page, no? This seems like there would be substantially more processing done on a page if everything is in onBeforeRender(). I could easily follow the example of the other Wicket examples and add some components in the constructor that I do not want to override, but then I've divided by component logic into two places, something I'm hesitant to do. If I add a component that I intend to be in all subclasses, should I add it to the constructor or onBeforeRender()?

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  • Flash Player, security: If a URL starts with "http://" will the SWF always be loaded into REMOTE san

    - by Pavel
    Seems to be a question for a Flash security guru. Suppose we are loading an external SWF movie with MovieClipLoader.loadMovie(url:String) Is it safe to assume that if url starts with "http://", the movie will be loaded in REMOTE sandbox? We need to tell local SWFs from remote ones to close a security hole. If you need the context read on. We have developed a Projector, written in C++ embedding Flash Player ActiveX. Our Flash application runs inside the Projector. Soon we want to give our users a way to create plugins for the application. The plugins are obviously will be SWF movies. The case I'm afraid of is the following. A bad person creates a malicious evil.swf pretending it to be nice plugin for our app. In case evil.swf is loaded from the local file system it is granted an access to the whole MovieClip tree and Projector API, opening C++ file access operations. On the other hand if evil.swf is loaded from the internet, remotely, it will be locked in REMOTE sandbox by Flash security model. Because of this, we need a reliable way to tell local SWF from remote one before loading it. And we must not make a mistake. So again, is it safe to assume that if url begins with "http://", the clip will be loaded inside REMOTE sandbox?

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  • How can I build value for "for-each" expression in XSLT with help of parameter

    - by Artic
    I need to navigate through this xml tree. <publication> <corporate> <contentItem> <metadata>meta</metadata> <content>html</content> </contentItem> <contentItem > <metadata>meta1</metadata> <content>html1</content> </contentItem> </corporate> <eurasia-and-africa> ... </eurasia-and-africa> <europe> ... </europe> </publication> and convert it to html with this stylesheet <ul> <xsl:variable name="itemsNode" select="concat('publicationManifest/',$group,'/contentItem')"></xsl:variable> <xsl:for-each select="$itemsNode"> <li> <xsl:value-of select="content"/> </li> </xsl:for-each> </ul> $group is a parameter with name of group for example "corporate". I have an error with compilation of this stylsheet. SystemID: D:\1\contentsTransform.xslt Engine name: Saxon6.5.5 Severity: error Description: The value is not a node-set Start location: 18:0 What the matter?

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  • How to avoid geometric slowdown with large Linq transactions?

    - by Shaul
    I've written some really nice, funky libraries for use in LinqToSql. (Some day when I have time to think about it I might make it open source... :) ) Anyway, I'm not sure if this is related to my libraries or not, but I've discovered that when I have a large number of changed objects in one transaction, and then call DataContext.GetChangeSet(), things start getting reaalllly slooowwwww. When I break into the code, I find that my program is spinning its wheels doing an awful lot of Equals() comparisons between the objects in the change set. I can't guarantee this is true, but I suspect that if there are n objects in the change set, then the call to GetChangeSet() is causing every object to be compared to every other object for equivalence, i.e. at best (n^2-n)/2 calls to Equals()... Yes, of course I could commit each object separately, but that kinda defeats the purpose of transactions. And in the program I'm writing, I could have a batch job containing 100,000 separate items, that all need to be committed together. Around 5 billion comparisons there. So the question is: (1) is my assessment of the situation correct? Do you get this behavior in pure, textbook LinqToSql, or is this something my libraries are doing? And (2) is there a standard/reasonable workaround so that I can create my batch without making the program geometrically slower with every extra object in the change set?

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  • AJAX/JSONP Question. Access id denied using IE while requesting corss domain.

    - by Sisir
    Ok, Here we go. I have already searched the Stack for the answer i have found some useful info but i want to clear up some more things. I also search the net for the answer but no real help. I have worked with some api (yelp, ouside.in). In yelp i use to inject the script to head with the url request to the api with a callback funcion. I worked fine in all browsers. But while using outside.in api when i call the url the callback in not working. In yelp they have a url field can be used like that callback=callbackfuncion so the callback will automatically called. But in outside.in there is not such field available. Is there are any standard command for callback function which will work regardless of any server/api? I also tried a standard ajax request using jQuery $.ajax() function. It worked for my local pc for both IE and other browser but did not working in IE showing the error: access denied, other borwser seems ok. Firebug in my FF also don't notice any errors. Outside.in has an javascript example but it is too hard to me to understand github.com/outsidein/api-examples/tree/master/javascript/browser/ site i am working: http://citystir.com yelp: yelp.com outside.in: outside.in Techniqual info: i am using: wampserver in local, wordpress for hosting, Godaddy, apache for remote with linux. Codes: Using Jquery $.ajax url is like: "http://hyperlocal-api.outside.in/v1.1/states/Illinois/cities/chicago/stories?dev_key="+key+"&sig="+signeture+"&limit=3 function makeOutsideRequest(url){ $.ajax({ url: url, dataType: 'json', type: 'GET', success: function (data, status, xhr) { if (data == null) { alert("An error occurred connecting to " + url + ". Please ensure that the server is running and configured to allow cross-origin requests."); }else{ printHomeNews(data); } }, error: function (xhr, status, error) { alert("An error occurred - check the server log for a stack trace."); } }); } Thanks!

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  • In Firefox, how do I bring an existing popup window with multiple tabs to the front using javascript

    - by brahn
    I would like to have a button on a web page with the following behavior: On the first click, open a pop-up. On later clicks, if the pop-up is still open, just bring it to the front. If not, re-open. The below code generally works in Firefox, Safari, and IE8 (see here for Chrome woes). However, I have found a failure mode in Firefox that I don't know how to deal with: If for some reason the user has opened a second tab in the pop-up window and that second tab has focus within that window, the popupWindow.focus() command fails to have any effect. (If the first tab has focus within that window, everything works just great.) So, how can I focus the popup and the desired tab in Firefox? <head> <script type="text/javascript"> var popupWindow = null; var doPopup = function () { if (popupWindow && !popupWindow.closed) { popupWindow.focus(); } else { popupWindow = window.open("http://google.com", "_blank", "width=200,height=200"); } }; </script> </head> <body> <button onclick="doPopup(); return false"> create a pop-up </button> </body>

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  • Return value of a JQuery autocomplete using an array of objects as its source

    - by user2920430
    In a JQuery autocomplete which uses an array of objects as its source, can I display the label in the INPUT and later access the value? The default behavior is that the value is displayed in the INPUT after selection. In this case the values represent indexes to unique keys in rows in a table. <!doctype html> <html lang="en"> <head> <meta charset="utf-8"> <title>autocomplete demo</title> <link rel="stylesheet" href="http://code.jquery.com/ui/1.10.3/themes/smoothness/jquery-ui.css"> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery-1.9.1.js"></script> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/ui/1.10.3/jquery-ui.js"></script> </head> <body> <label for="autocomplete">Select a programming language: </label> <input id="autocomplete"> <script> $( "#autocomplete" ).autocomplete({ source: [ { label:"c++", value:1 }, { label: "java", value:2 }, { label: "javascript", value:3 } ] }); </script> </body> </html>

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  • Collision Handling in Javascript - Particles Get Stuck

    - by Conner Ruhl
    I am trying to recreate this, and I have been fairly successful. I am having issues with the collision handling though. Although the collision handling seems to work, it has very strange behavior. Here is what I have so far. This is the code that handles collisions: var dx = particle2.getX() - particle1.getX(); var dy = particle2.getY() - particle1.getY(); var angle = Math.atan2(dy, dx); var newP2X = particle1.getX() + (particle1.getRadius() + particle2.getRadius()) * Math.cos(angle); var newP2Y = particle1.getY() + (particle1.getRadius() + particle2.getRadius()) * Math.sin(angle); particle2.setX(newP2X); particle2.setY(newP2Y); var p1Vxi = particle1.getVx(); var p1Vyi = particle1.getVy(); var p1Mass = particle1.getMass(); var p2Vxi = particle2.getVx(); var p2Vyi = particle2.getVy(); var p2Mass = particle2.getMass(); var vxf = (p1Mass * p1Vxi + p2Mass * p2Vxi) / (p1Mass + p2Mass); var vyf = (p1Mass * p1Vyi + p2Mass * p2Vyi) / (p1Mass + p2Mass); particle1.setVx(vxf); particle1.setVy(vyf); particle2.setVx(vxf); particle2.setVy(vyf); EDIT: I have tried to change it to inelastic collisions like suggested, but for some reason the balls collide erratically. Check it out here. Any help is much appreciated!

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  • Is NFS capable of preserving order of operations?

    - by JustJeff
    I have a diskless host 'A', that has a directory NFS mounted on server 'B'. A process on A writes to two files F1 and F2 in that directory, and a process on B monitors these files for changes. Assume that B polls for changes faster than A is expected to make them. Process A seeks the head of the files, writes data, and flushes. Process B seeks the head of the files and does reads. Are there any guarantees about how the order of the changes performed by A will be detected at B? Specifically, if A alternately writes to one file, and then the other, is it reasonable to expect that B will notice alternating changes to F1 and F2? Or could B conceivably detect a series of changes on F1 and then a series on F2? I know there are a lot of assumptions embedded in the question. For instance, I am virtually certain that, even operating on just one file, if A performs 100 operations on the file, B may see a smaller number of changes that give the same result, due to NFS caching some of the actions on A before they are communicated to B. And of course there would be issues with concurrent file access even if NFS weren't involved and both the reading and the writing process were running on the same real file system. The reason I'm even putting the question up here is that it seems like most of the time, the setup described above does detect the changes at B in the same order they are made at A, but that occasionally some events come through in transposed order. So, is it worth trying to make this work? Is there some way to tune NFS to make it work, perhaps cache settings or something? Or is fine-grained behavior like this just too much expect from NFS?

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  • Calling base Text method on custom TextBox

    - by The Demigeek
    I'm trying to create a CurrencyTextBox that inherits from TextBox. I'm seeing some really weird behavior that I just don't understand. After lots of testing, I think I can summarize as follows: In the class code, when I access base.Text (to get the textbox's text), I'm actually getting the return value of my overridden Text property. I thought the base keyword would ensure that the underlying object's methods get called. To demonstrate: public class cTestTextBox : System.Windows.Forms.TextBox { string strText = ""; public cTestTextBox() { SetVal("AAA"); base.Text = "TEST"; } public override string Text { get { string s = strText; s = "++" + s + "++"; return s; } } public void SetVal(string val) { strText = val; } } Place this control on a form and set a breakpoint on the constructor. Run the app. Hover your mouse over the base.Text expression. Note that the tooltip shows you the value of the overridden property, not the base property. Execute the SetVal() statement and again hover your mouse over the base.Text expression. Note that the tooltop shows you the value of the overridden property, not the base property. How do I reliably access the Text property of the textbox from which I'm inheriting?

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  • How to make this JavaScript much faster?

    - by Ralph
    Still trying to answer this question, and I think I finally found a solution, but it runs too slow. var $div = $('<div>') .css({ 'border': '1px solid red', 'position': 'absolute', 'z-index': '65535' }) .appendTo('body'); $('body *').live('mousemove', function(e) { var topElement = null; $('body *').each(function() { if(this == $div[0]) return true; var $elem = $(this); var pos = $elem.offset(); var width = $elem.width(); var height = $elem.height(); if(e.pageX > pos.left && e.pageY > pos.top && e.pageX < (pos.left + width) && e.pageY < (pos.top + height)) { var zIndex = document.defaultView.getComputedStyle(this, null).getPropertyValue('z-index'); if(zIndex == 'auto') zIndex = $elem.parents().length; if(topElement == null || zIndex > topElement.zIndex) { topElement = { 'node': $elem, 'zIndex': zIndex }; } } }); if(topElement != null ) { var $elem = topElement.node; $div.offset($elem.offset()).width($elem.width()).height($elem.height()); } }); It basically loops through all the elements on the page and finds the top-most element beneath the cursor. Is there maybe some way I could use a quad-tree or something and segment the page so the loop runs faster?

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  • Passing C++ object to C++ code through Python?

    - by cornail
    Hi all, I have written some physics simulation code in C++ and parsing the input text files is a bottleneck of it. As one of the input parameters, the user has to specify a math function which will be evaluated many times at run-time. The C++ code has some pre-defined function classes for this (they are actually quite complex on the math side) and some limited parsing capability but I am not satisfied with this construction at all. What I need is that both the algorithm and the function evaluation remain speedy, so it is advantageous to keep them both as compiled code (and preferrably, the math functions as C++ function objects). However I thought of glueing the whole simulation together with Python: the user could specify the input parameters in a Python script, while also implementing storage, visualization of the results (matplotlib) and GUI, too, in Python. I know that most of the time, exposing C++ classes can be done, e.g. with SWIG but I still have a question concerning the parsing of the user defined math function in Python: Is it possible to somehow to construct a C++ function object in Python and pass it to the C++ algorithm? E.g. when I call f = WrappedCPPGaussianFunctionClass(sigma=0.5) WrappedCPPAlgorithm(f) in Python, it would return a pointer to a C++ object which would then be passed to a C++ routine requiring such a pointer, or something similar... (don't ask me about memory management in this case, though :S) The point is that no callback should be made to Python code in the algorithm. Later I would like to extend this example to also do some simple expression parsing on the Python side, such as sum or product of functions, and return some compound, parse-tree like C++ object but let's stay at the basics for now. Sorry for the long post and thx for the suggestions in advance.

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  • Concept: Information Into Memory Location.

    - by Richeve S. Bebedor
    I am having troubles conceptualizing an algorithm to be used to transform any information or data into a specific appropriate and reasonable memory location in any data structure that I will be devising. To give you an idea, I have a JPanel object instance and I created another Container type object instance of any subtype (note this is in Java because I love this language), then I collected those instances into a data structure not specifically just for those instances but also applicable to any type of object. Now my procedure for fetching those data again is to extract the object specific features similar in category to all object in that data structure and transform it into a integer data memory location (specifically as much as possible) or any type of data that will pertain to this transformation. And I can already access that memory location without further sorting or applications of O(n) time complex algorithms (which I think preferable but I wanted to do my own way XD). The data structure is of any type either binary tree, linked list, arrays or sets (and the like XD). What is important is I don't need to have successive comparing and analysis of data just to locate information in big structures. To give you a technical idea, I have to an array DS that contains JLabel object instance with a specific name "HelloWorld". But array DS contains other types of object (in multitude). Now this JLabel object has a location in the array at index [124324] (which is if you do any type of searching algorithm just to arrive at that location is conceivably slow because added to it the data structure used was an array *note please disregard the efficiency of the data structure to be used I just want to explain to you my concept XD). Now I want to equate "HelloWorld" to 124324 by using a conceptually made function applicable to all data types. So that I can do a direct search by doing this DS[extractLocation("HelloWorld")] just to get that JLabel instance. I know this may sound crazy but I want to test my concept of non-sorting feature extracting search algorithm for any data structure wherein my main problem is how to transform information to be stored into memory location of where it was stored.

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  • Why is T() = T() allowed?

    - by Rimo
    I believe the expression T() creates an rvalue (by the Standard). However, the following code compiles (at least on gcc4.0): class T {}; int main() { T() = T(); } I know technically this is possible because member functions can be invoked on temporaries and the above is just invoking the operator= on the rvalue temporary created from the first T(). But conceptually this is like assigning a new value to an rvalue. Is there a good reason why this is allowed? Edit: The reason I find this odd is it's strictly forbidden on built-in types yet allowed on user-defined types. For example, int(2) = int(3) won't compile because that is an "invalid lvalue in assignment". So I guess the real question is, was this somewhat inconsistent behavior built into the language for a reason? Or is it there for some historical reason? (E.g it would be conceptually more sound to allow only const member functions to be invoked on rvalue expressions, but that cannot be done because that might break some existing code.)

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  • iTunes Connect uploading issue

    - by CindySeattle
    Too bad that iTunes Connect changed its behavior recently. I'm providing an update to an existing app. I submitted new binary using the Loader without problem on the first try. Then I discovered that different from before, one has to reject the binaries in order to change screenshots. Too bad that the update is in the status of "In Review". Well, I have to rejected my binaries and begin to upload new screenshots, because I don't want to display screenshots of previous version. The new screen shots are uploaded but I'm stuck in "Developer rejected" status. Meaning I cannot upload the binaries and not able to change screenshots from that time on. The following error will appear when click Save Changes in either situations. "There was an error saving changes. Please try again later or contact iTunes Connect Support at [email protected]." I checked the source of the error page and think it's this error id="lcBoxWrapperHeaderTextUpdaterContainer" action="/WebObjects/iTunesConnect.woa/wo/7.0.0.9.7.7.1.1.1.1" errorId="ajaxContainerError" I have reported iTune Connect via the "Contact us" link on this issue but not get any response back for 2 days already. Very disappointing. Did anybody experience similar issue? How did you resolve this?

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  • File IO with Streams - Best Memory Buffer Size

    - by AJ
    I am writing a small IO library to assist with a larger (hobby) project. A part of this library performs various functions on a file, which is read / written via the FileStream object. On each StreamReader.Read(...) pass, I fire off an event which will be used in the main app to display progress information. The processing that goes on in the loop is vaired, but is not too time consuming (it could just be a simple file copy, for example, or may involve encryption...). My main question is: What is the best memory buffer size to use? Thinking about physical disk layouts, I could pick 2k, which would cover a CD sector size and is a nice multiple of a 512 byte hard disk sector. Higher up the abstraction tree, you could go for a larger buffer which could read an entire FAT cluster at a time. I realise with today's PC's, I could go for a more memory hungry option (a couple of MiB, for example), but then I increase the time between UI updates and the user perceives a less responsive app. As an aside, I'm eventually hoping to provide a similar interface to files hosted on FTP / HTTP servers (over a local network / fastish DSL). What would be the best memory buffer size for those (again, a "best-case" tradeoff between perceived responsiveness vs. performance).

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  • Extra NotifyIcon shown in system tray

    - by Kettch19
    I'm having an issue with an app where my NotifyIcon displays an extra icon. The steps to reproduce it are easy, but the problem is that the extra icon shows up after any of the actual codebehind we've added fires. Put simply, clicking a button triggers execution of method FooBar() which runs all the way through fine but its primary duty is to fire a backgroundworker to log into another of our apps. It only appears if this particular button is clicked. Strangely enough, we have a WndProc method override and if I step through until the extra NotifyIcon appears, it always appears during this method so something else beyond the codebehind must be triggering the behavior. Our WndProc method is currently (although I don't think it's caused by the WndProc): Protected Overrides Sub WndProc(ByRef m As System.Windows.Forms.Message) 'Check for WM_COPYDATA message from other app or drag/drop action and handle message If m.Msg = NativeMethods.WM_COPYDATA Then ' get the standard message structure from lparam Dim CD As NativeMethods.COPYDATASTRUCT = m.GetLParam(GetType(NativeMethods.COPYDATASTRUCT)) 'setup byte array Dim B(CD.cbData) As Byte 'copy data from memory into array Runtime.InteropServices.Marshal.Copy(New IntPtr(CD.lpData), B, 0, CD.cbData) 'Get message as string and process ProcessWMCopyData(System.Text.Encoding.Default.GetString(B)) 'empty array Erase B 'set message result to 'true', meaning message handled m.Result = New IntPtr(1) End If 'pass on result and all messages not handled by this app MyBase.WndProc(m) End Sub The only place in the code where the NotifyIcon in question is manipulated at all is in the following event handler (again, don't think this is the culprit, but just for more info): Private Sub TrayIcon_MouseDoubleClick(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.MouseEventArgs) Handles TrayIcon.MouseDoubleClick If Me.Visible Then Me.Hide() Else PositionBottomRight() Me.Show() End If End Sub The backgroundworker's DoWork is as follows (just a class call to log in to our other app, but again just for info): Private Sub LoginBackgroundWorker_DoWork(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.ComponentModel.DoWorkEventArgs) Handles LoginBackgroundWorker.DoWork Settings.IsLoggedIn = _wdService.LogOn(Settings.UserName, Settings.Password) End Sub Does anyone else have ideas on what might be causing this or how to possibly further debug this? I've been banging my head on this without seeing a pattern so another set of eyes would be extremely appreciated. :) I've posted this on MSDN winforms forums as well and have had no luck there so far either.

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  • Using a single texture image unit with multiple sampler uniforms

    - by bcrist
    I am writing a batching system which tracks currently bound textures in order to avoid unnecessary glBindTexture() calls. I'm not sure if I need to keep track of which textures have already been used by a particular batch so that if a texture is used twice, it will be bound to a different TIU for the second sampler which requires it. Is it acceptable for an OpenGL application to use the same texture image unit for multiple samplers within the same shader stage? What about samplers in different shader stages? For example: Fragment shader: ... uniform sampler2D samp1; uniform sampler2D samp2; void main() { ... } Main program: ... glActiveTexture(GL_TEXTURE0); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, tex_id); glUniform1i(samp1_location, 0); glUniform1i(samp2_location, 0); ... I don't see any reason why this shouldn't work, but what about if the shader program also included a vertex shader like this: Vertex shader: ... uniform sampler2D samp1; void main() { ... } In this case, OpenGL is supposed to treat both instances of samp1 as the same variable, and exposes a single location for them. Therefore, the same texture unit is being used in the vertex and fragment shaders. I have read that using the same texture in two different shader stages counts doubly against GL_MAX_COMBINED_TEXTURE_IMAGE_UNITS but this would seem to contradict that. In a quick test on my hardware (HD 6870), all of the following scenarios worked as expected: 1 TIU used for 2 sampler uniforms in same shader stage 1 TIU used for 1 sampler uniform which is used in 2 shader stages 1 TIU used for 2 sampler uniforms, each occurring in a different stage. However, I don't know if this is behavior that I should expect on all hardware/drivers, or if there are performance implications.

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  • JavaScript for loop index strangeness

    - by pythonBOI
    I'm relatively new to JS so this may be a common problem, but I noticed something strange when dealing with for loops and the onclick function. I was able to replicate the problem with this code: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> window.onload = function () { var buttons = document.getElementsByTagName('a'); for (var i=0; i<2; i++) { buttons[i].onclick = function () { alert(i); return false; } } } </script> </head> <body> <a href="">hi</a> <br /> <a href="">bye</a> </body> </html> When clicking the links I would expect to get '0' and '1', but instead I get '2' for both of them. Why is this? BTW, I managed to solve my particular problem by using the 'this' keyword, but I'm still curious as to what is behind this behavior.

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