Search Results

Search found 10328 results on 414 pages for 'behavior tree'.

Page 363/414 | < Previous Page | 359 360 361 362 363 364 365 366 367 368 369 370  | Next Page >

• SYN receives RST,ACK very frequently

  - by user1289508

  Hi Socket Programming experts, I am writing a proxy server on Linux for SQL Database server running on Windows. The proxy is coded using bsd sockets and in C, and it is working just fine. When I use a database client (written in JAVA, and running on a Linux box) to fire queries (with a concurrency of 100 or more) directly to the Database server, not experiencing connection resets. But through my proxy I am experiencing many connection resets. Digging deeper I came to know that connection from 'DB client' to 'Proxy' always succeeds but when the 'Proxy' tries to connect to the DB server the connection fails, due to the SYN packet getting RST,ACK. That was to give some background. The question is : Why does sometimes SYN receives RST,ACK? 'DB client(linux)' to 'Server(windows)' ---- Works fine 'DB client(linux) to 'Proxy(Linux)' to 'Server(windows)' ----- problematic I am aware that this can happen in "connection refused" case but this definitely is not that one. SYN flooding might be another scenario, but that does not explain fine behavior while firing to Server directly. I am suspecting some socket option setting may be required, that the client does before connecting and my proxy does not. Please put some light on this. Any help (links or pointers) is most appreciated. Additional info: Wrote a C client that does concurrent connections, which takes concurrency as an argument. Here are my observations: - At 5000 concurrency and above, some connects failed with 'connection refused'. - Below 2000, it works fine. But the actual problem is observed even at a concurrency of 100 or more. Note: The problem is time dependent sometimes it never comes at all and sometimes it is very frequent and DB client (directly to server) works fine at all times .

  Read the article

• ASP.NET MVC3 ValueProvider drops string input to a double property

  - by Daniel Koverman

  I'm attempting to validate the input of a text box which corresponds to a property of type double in my model. If the user inputs "foo" I want to know about it so I can display an error. However, the ValueProvider is dropping the value silently (no errors are added to the ModelState). In a normal submission, I fill in "2" for the text box corresponding to myDouble and submit the form. Inspecting controllerContext.HttpContext.Request.Form shows that myDouble=2, among other correct inputs. bindingContext.ValueProvider.GetValue("myDouble") == 2, as expected. The bindingContext.ModelState.Count == 6 and bindingContext.ModelState["myDouble"].Errors.Count == 0. Everything is good and the model binds as expected. Then I fill in "foo" for the text box corresponding to myDouble and submitted the form. Inspecting controllerContext.HttpContext.Request.Form shows that myDouble=foo, which is what I expected. However, bindingContext.ValueProvider.GetValue("myDouble") == null and bindingContext.ModelState.Count == 5 (The exact number isn't important, but it's one less than before). Looking at the ValueProvider, is as if myDouble was never submitted and the model binding occurs as if it wasn't. This makes it difficult to differentiate between a bad input and no input. Is this the expected behavior of ValueProvider? Is there a way to get ValueProvider to report when conversion fails without implementing a custom ValueProvider? Thanks!

  Read the article

• Moving checkmarks in checkbox lists after page reload - Firefox only

  - by DaveS

  I'm getting some strange behavior in Firefox whenever I put checkboxes inside a list (ol, ul, dl), and then dynamically insert buttons above the list. If I start with a something simple list like this: <dl class="c"> <dt><label for="a1"><input type="checkbox" id="a1" />one</label></dt> <dt><label for="a2"><input type="checkbox" id="a2" />two</label></dt> <dt><label for="a3"><input type="checkbox" id="a3" />three</label></dt> </dl> and add some jQuery like this: $(document).ready(function(){ var a = $('<button type="button">a</button>'); var b = $('<button type="button">b</button>'); $('<div/>').append(a).append(b).insertBefore($('.c')); }); ...then open it in Firefox, it looks fine at first. But check the first checkbox, reload the page, and the check-mark jumps to the second box. Reload again, and it jumps to the third. Reload yet again, and no checkboxes are left checked. If I leave out one of the buttons by dropping one of the append calls, it's fine. If I change the buttons to divs or something similar, it's fine. If I replace the dl tag with a div (and get rid of the dt tags), it's fine. But I need both buttons, and the checkboxes have to be in a list for what I'm trying to build. Does anybody know what's causing this?

  Read the article

• iPhone producing strange results on 'if' statement

  - by Rob

  I have a UIPicker where the user inputs a specified time (i.e. 13:00, 13:01, 13:02, etc.) - which determines their score. Once they hit the button an alert comes up with the score that is determined through this 'if-else' statement. Everything seems to work great MOST of the time - but I am getting some erratic behavior. This is the code: //Gets my value from the UIPicker and then converts it into a format that can be used in the 'if' statement. NSInteger runRow = [runTimePicker selectedRowInComponent:2]; NSString *runSelected = [runTimePickerData objectAtIndex:runRow]; NSString *runSelectedFixed = [runSelected stringByReplacingOccurrencesOfString:@":" withString:@"."]; //The actual 'if' statment. if ([runSelectedFixed floatValue] <= 13.00) { runScore = 100; } else if ([runSelectedFixed floatValue] <= 13.06) { runScore = 99; } else if ([runSelectedFixed floatValue] <= 13.12) { runScore = 97; } else if ([runSelectedFixed floatValue] <= 13.18) { runScore = 96; } else if ([runSelectedFixed floatValue] <= 13.24) { runScore = 94; } else if ([runSelectedFixed floatValue] <= 13.30) { runScore = 93; } else if ([runSelectedFixed floatValue] <= 13.36) { runScore = 92; } else if ([runSelectedFixed floatValue] <= 13.42) { runScore = 90; } else if ([runSelectedFixed floatValue] <= 13.48) { runScore = 89; } else if ([runSelectedFixed floatValue] <= 13.54) { runScore = 88; } Now, when I test the program, I will get the expected result when I choose '13:00' which is '100'. I also get the expected result of '99' when I choose all of the times between '13:01 and 13:05'. BUT, when I choose '13:06' it gives me a score of '97'. I also get a score of '97' on '13:07 through 13:12' - which is the desired result. Why would I get a '97' right on '13:12' but not get a '99' right on '13:06'???? Could this be a memory leak or something???

  Read the article

• iPhone rotation woes

  - by skooter500

  I have been spending many frustrating hours trying to get rotations working on the iPhone version of Tunepal. Firstly, I have a tab bar controller, with a navigation controller controlling each of the views. I actually only want one of my views to be able to rotate and that is the TuneDisplay. I have a subclassed the UITabBarController and overridden theshouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation: (BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation) interfaceOrientation { if (self.selectedViewController != nil) { return [self.selectedViewController shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:interfaceOrientation]; } else { return (interfaceOrientation == UIInterfaceOrientationPortrait); } } In each of the view controllers for each of the tabs I have overridden the method and returned YES for each orientation I want to support. All well and good and everything works as it should. If I try and do a rotation on a tab that doesn’t support the rotation, nothing happens. The problem occurs if I move from a tab thats rotated to a tab that isnt supposed to support that rotation. The new tab is displayed rotated too! Screenshots for all this are included here: http://tunepal.wordpress.com/2010/04/20/rotation-woes/ Is there any way I can make it rotate back to portrait on tapping the tab? I have tried the unsupported setOrientation trick, but firstly it doesnt work correctly and secondly I received a warning from Apple for including it in my last build. If (as I suspect) there is no way to limit this behavior: How do I make the microphone image scale when I rotate the device? How do I make the buttons and the progress bar expand to fit the witdh of the toolbar? Also, one of the tabs that rotates ok has a table, with a search bar. The first time I rotate to the right or to the left, I get a black bar to the right of the search bar. If I subsequently rotate back and rotate again, the bar disappears! I have enabled the struts and springs things on the search bar in the interface builder and it looks like it should behave correctly. Any ideas about how to fix this? Ideas, feedback much appreciated Bryan

  Read the article

• Inconsistent canvas drawing in Android browser

  - by user2943466

  In putting together a small canvas app I've stumbled across a weird behavior that only seems to occur in the default browser in Android. When drawing to a canvas that has the globalCompositeOperation set to 'destination-out' to act as the 'eraser' tool, Android browser sometimes acts as expected, sometimes does not update the pixels in the canvas at all. the setup: context.clearRect(0,0, canvas.width, canvas.height); context.drawImage(img, 0, 0, canvas.width, canvas.height); context.globalCompositeOperation = 'destination-out'; draw a circle to erase pixels from the canvas: context.fillStyle = '#FFFFFF'; context.beginPath(); context.arc(x,y,25,0,TWO_PI,true); context.fill(); context.closePath(); a small demo to illustrate the issue can be seen here: http://gumbojuice.com/files/source-out/ and the javascript is here: http://gumbojuice.com/files/source-out/js/main.js this has been tested in multiple desktop and mobile browsers and behaves as expected. On Android native browser after refreshing the page sometimes it works, sometimes nothing happens. I've seen other hacks that move the canvas by a pixel in order to force a redraw but this is not an ideal solution.. Thanks all.

  Read the article

• How can I diff against a revision of a single file using the default Git GUI tools?

  - by Rich

  I want to view the history of a single file, and then compare a single revision from that history against the current version. On the command line, this is easy: Run: git log -- <filename> Locate the version you want to compare, Run: git diff <commitid> -- <filename> But how can this be done in the default Git gui tools, git gui and gitk? I know of two methods using gitk, but they're both horribly clunky: Either: Select the New View option from the View menu, Type in the full path to your file into the box labelled Enter files and directories to include, one per line, Locate the version you want to compare by looking at the highlighted items in the top pane, and click on it to select it, Right-click on the current version and select Diff selected - this, Or: Select Tree in the bottom right-hand pane, Locate the file you want to look at, right-click on it, and select Highlight this only, Locate the version you want to compare by looking at the highlighted items in the top pane, and click on it to select it, Right-click on the current version and select Diff selected - this, Click on the file in the bottom right-hand pane to jump to it in the diff output, or scroll manually. Is a better method than this?

  Read the article

• Best practices to deal with "slightly different" branches of source code

  - by jedi_coder

  This question is rather agnostic than related to a certain version control program. Assume there is a source code tree under certain distributed version control. Let's call it A. At some point somebody else clones it and gets its own copy. Let's call it B. I'll call A and B branches, even if some version control tools have different definitions for branches (some might call A and B repositories). Let's assume that branch A is the "main" branch. In the context of distributed version control this only means that branch A is modified much more actively and the owner of branch B periodically syncs (pulls) new updates from branch A. Let's consider that a certain source file in branch B contains a class (again, it's also language agnostic). The owner of branch B considers that some class methods are more appropriate and groups them together by moving them inside the class body. Functionally nothing has changed - this is a very trivial refactoring of the code. But the change gets reflected in diffs. Now, assuming that this change from branch B will never get merged into branch A, the owner of branch B will always get this difference when pulling from branch A and merging into his own workspace. Even if there's only one such trivial change, the owner of branch B needs to resolve conflicts every time when pulling from branch A. As long as branches A and B are modified independently, more and more conflicts like this appear. What is the workaround for this situation? Which workflow should the owner of branch B follow to minimize the effort for periodically syncing with branch A?

  Read the article

• 2 bucks for !! java basic question

  - by Max

  How can I get a specific value from an object? I'm trying to get a value of an instance for eg. ListOfPpl newListOfPpl = new ListOfPpl(id, name, age); Object item = newListOfPpl; How can I get a value of name from an Object item?? Even if it is easy or does not interest you can anyone help me?? Edited: I was trying to build a binary tree contains the node of ListOfPpl, and need to sort it in the lexicographic. Here's my code for insertion on the node. Any clue?? public void insert(Object item){ Node current = root; Node follow = null; if(!isEmpty()){ root = new Node(item, null, null); return; }boolean left = false, right = false; while(current != null){ follow = current; left = false; right = false; //I need to compare and sort it if(item.compareTo(current.getFighter()) < 0){ current = current.getLeft(); left = true; }else { current = current.getRight(); right = true; } }if(left) follow.setLeft(new Node(item, null, null)); else follow.setRight(new Node(item, null, null)); }

  Read the article

• getting active records to display as a plist

  - by phil swenson

  I'm trying to get a list of active record results to display as a plist for being consumed by the iphone. I'm using the plist gem v 3.0. My model is called Post. And I want Post.all (or any array or Posts) to display correctly as a Plist. I have it working fine for one Post instance: [http://pastie.org/580902][1] that is correct, what I would expect. To get that behavior I had to do this: class Post < ActiveRecord::Base def to_plist attributes.to_plist end end However, when I do a Post.all, I can't get it to display what I want. Here is what happens: http://pastie.org/580909 I get marshalling. I want output more like this: [http://pastie.org/580914][2] I suppose I could just iterate the result set and append the plist strings. But seems ugly, I'm sure there is a more elegant way to do this. I am rusty on Ruby right now, so the elegant way isn't obvious to me. Seems like I should be able to override ActiveRecord and make result-sets that pull back more than one record take the ActiveRecord::Base to_plist and make another to_plist implementation. In rails, this would go in environment.rb, right?

  Read the article

• How to reduce the time of clang_complete search through boost

  - by kirill_igum

  I like using clang with vim. The one problem that I always have is that whenever I include boost, clang goes through boost library every time I put "." after a an object name. It takes 5-10 seconds. Since I don't make changes to boost headers, is there a way to cache the search through boost? If not, is there a way to remove boost from the auto-completion search? update (1) in response to answer by adaszko after :let g:clang_use_library = 1 I type a name of a variable. I press ^N. Vim starts to search through boost tree. it auto-completes the variable. i press "." and get the following errors: Error detected while processing function ClangComplete: line 35: Traceback (most recent call last): Press ENTER or type command to continue Error detected while processing function ClangComplete: line 35: File "<string>", line 1, in <module> Press ENTER or type command to continue Error detected while processing function ClangComplete: line 35: NameError: name 'vim' is not defined Press ENTER or type command to continue Error detected while processing function ClangComplete: line 40: E121: Undefined variable: l:res Press ENTER or type command to continue Error detected while processing function ClangComplete: line 40: E15: Invalid expression: l:res Press ENTER or type command to continue Error detected while processing function ClangComplete: line 58: E121: Undefined variable: l:res Press ENTER or type command to continue Error detected while processing function ClangComplete: line 58: E15: Invalid expression: l:res Press ENTER or type command to continue ... and there is no auto-compeltion update (2) not sure if clang_complete should take care of the issue with boost. vim without plugins does search through boost. superuser has an answer to comment out search through boost dirs with set include=^\\s*#\\s*include\ \\(<boost/\\)\\@!

  Read the article

• [C++] Parent-Child scheme

  - by rubenvb

  I'm writing a class that holds a pointer to a parent object of the same type (think Qt's QObject system). Each object has one parent, and the parent should not be destroyed when a child is destroyed (obviously). class MyClass { public: MyClass(const MyClass* ptr_parent): parent(parent){}; ~MyClass(){ delete[] a_children; }; private: const MyClass* ptr_parent; // go to MyClass above MyClass* a_children; // go to MyClass below size_t sz_numChildren; // for iterating over a_children } (Excuse my inline coding, it's only for brevity) Will destroying the "Master MyClass" take care of all children? No child should be able to kill it's parent, because I would then have pointers in my main program to destroyed objects, correct? Why might you ask? I need a way to "iterate" through all subdirectories and find all files on a platform independent level. The creation of this tree will be handled by native API's, the rest won't. Is this a good idea to start with? Thanks!

  Read the article

• Are there concurrency problems when using -performSelector:withObject:afterDelay: ?

  - by mystify

  For example, I often use this: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:someDelay]; Now, lets say I call this 10 times to perform at the exact same delay, like: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; - (void)doSomethingAfterDelay:(id)someObject { /* access an array, read stuff, write stuff, do different things that would suffer in multithreaded environments .... all operations are nonatomic! */ } I have observed pretty strange behavior when doing things like this. For my understanding, this method schedules a timer to fire on the current thread, so in this case the main thread. But since it doesn't create new threads, it actually should not be possible to run into concurrency problems, right?

  Read the article

• Are there concurrency problems when using -performSelector:withObject:afterDelay: ?

  - by mystify

  For example, I often use this: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:someDelay]; Now, lets say I call this 10 times to perform at the exact same delay, like: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; - (void)doSomethingAfterDelay:(id)someObject { /* access an array, read stuff, write stuff, do different things that would suffer in multithreaded environments .... all operations are nonatomic! */ } I have observed pretty strange behavior when doing things like this. For my understanding, this method schedules a timer to fire on the current thread, so in this case the main thread. But since it doesn't create new threads, it actually should not be possible to run into concurrency problems, right?

  Read the article

• VB.Net Memory Issue

  - by Skulmuk

  We have an application that has some interesting memory usage issues. When it first opens, the program uses aroun 50-60MB of memory. This stays consistent on 32-bit machines. On 64-bit machines, however, re-activating the form in any way (clicking, dragging, alt-tabbing, etc.) adds around another 50MB to it's memory usage. It repeats this process several times before resetting back to around 45MB, at which point the cycle begins again. I've done some research and a lot of people have said that VB in general has pretty poor garbage collection, which could be affecting the software in some way. However, I've yet to find a solution. There are no events fired when the application is activated (as shown by 32-bit usage) - the applications is merely sitting awaiting the user's actions. At load, the system pulls some data into a tree view, but that's the only external connection, and it only re-fires the routine when the user makes a change to something and saves the change. Has anyone else experienced anything this strange, and if so, does anyone know of what might fix it? It seems strange that it only occurs under x64 systems. Thanks

  Read the article

• SetMatrix() does not copy all values to HLSL

  - by Tili

  Hi, I want to use the contents of a vector of D3DXMatrices to my shader. m_pLightMatrices->SetMatrixArray(&currentLightMatrices[0].m[0][0],0,numLights); As we know the internals of a vector this poses no problems (as it is just a dynamic array). Now when I access this matrix in hlsl to fill up a struct I get this strange behavior: struct LightTest { float3 LightPos; float LightRange; float4 LightDiffuse; float3 LightAtt; }; float4x4 currentLight = gLights[0]; LightTest lt; lt.LightPos = currentLight._m00_m01_m02; //{0,0,0} lt.LightDiffuse = currentLight[1].rgba; //{0,0,0,0} lt.LightRange = currentLight._m03; //this gives me a value lt.LightAtt = currentLight[2].xyz; //{0,0,0} While debugging I see that my matrix is nicely filled with the variables I want. When I try to hardcode check what is in the struct I get all zero's, except the LightRange. As you can see I tried different methods of accessing the float4x4 but without any other results. Why oh why is hlsl not copying all my variables ?

  Read the article

• C# / this. and List<T>

  - by user3533030

  I am having trouble understanding how to initialize a List of objects and use it with methods inside of a class. I understand the mechanics of the List, but not how to initialize it inside a method and use it later. For example, I want to have a class that creates the List when it is constructed. Then, I want to use a method of that class to add elements to the list. The elements in the list are objects defined by the SolidWorks API. So, to construct the List, I used... public class ExportPoints : Exporter { public List<SldWorks.SketchPoint> listOfSketchPoints; public ExportPoints(SldWorks.SldWorks swApp, string nameSuffix) : base(swApp, nameSuffix) { List<SldWorks.SketchPoint> listOfSketchPoints = new List<SldWorks.SketchPoint>(); } public void createListOfFreePoints() { try { [imagine more code here] this.listOfSketchPoints.Add(pointTest); } catch (Exception e) { Debug.Print(e.ToString()); return; } } This fails during execution as if the listOfSketchPoints was never initialized as a List. So, I tried a hack and this worked: public ExportPoints(SldWorks.SldWorks swApp, string nameSuffix) : base(swApp, nameSuffix) { List<SldWorks.SketchPoint> listOfSketchPoints = new List<SldWorks.SketchPoint>(); this.listOfSketchPoints = listOfSketchPoints; } This approach creates the behavior that I want. However, it seems that I lack some understanding as to why this is necessary. Shouldn't it be possible to "initialize" a List that is a property of your object with a constructor? Why would you need to create the list, then assign the pointer of that new List to your property?

  Read the article

• Need help managing MySql connections

  - by David Jenings

  I'm having trouble finding a clear explanation of connection pooling. I'm building an app using the .NET connector I downloaded from mysql.com. The app only needs one db connection but will be running simultaneously on about 6 machines on my network. Normally, I'd create the connection at startup and just leave it. But I'm seeing lots of posts from people who say that's bad practice. Also I'm concerned about timeouts. My app will run 24/7 and there may be extended periods without database activity. I'm leaning toward the following: using (MySqlConnection conn = new MySqlConnection(connStr)) { conn.Open(); // use connection } But I'm not sure I understand what's going on in the background. Is this actually closing the connection and allowing gc to kill the object, or is there a built in pooling behavior that preserves the object and redelivers it the next time I try to create one? I certainly don't want the app reauthenticating across the network every time I hit the database. Can anyone offer me some advise?

  Read the article

• Gmail Sync on Android phone

  - by sunocky

  Android has the Gmail push features, which means the new message arrives in the mailbox without checking or refreshing the mailbox. As I understand, the sync processes are like these: 1) User turns on the sync 2) There will be a alert msg and the sync flag in the Gmail DB of this device will be True 3) When a new email reach the Gmail Server, it will check if the device sync value, if it's True then send the email OK, here, I don't quite understand how exactly does it work, For a WiFi and cell signal connection, does the phone has a TCP socket open keep listening to the Gmail Server, or when a new email arrives the Server send a SMS alert to the phone, and then it will open the data channel to fetch the email? Are the two ways of connections have different approaches? And second question is which method is the priority one? Say when you are in the middle of receiving data(emails), and suddenly the phone connect to a wireless network, will the data socket be closed and then reopened for the WiFi one? What's the behavior for the case when carrier's data channel and WiFi flips? I have also downloaded the source code, anyone knows which part should I be looking into in order to solves my questions? I found a folder called "email" inside the folder "package", should I be looking at its code? I know I asked quite some questions here, I'd appreciate if you know the answer for any of them, thanks very much!

  Read the article

• Is it possible to reference remote content from chrome.manifest? (XULRunner)

  - by siemaa

  Hi, I have a xulrunner application and I've been trying to reference remote content from chrome.manifest file. Tt's an application for the company I work in; it's run on a number of computers (most of them are used by other employees as well) as a kind of an internet monitoring service. The problem I'd like to solve is this: updating the code of such application usually requires me to manually copy the modified files to every computer that the application is running on (I've had no luck trying to make automatic updates via xulrunner platform). This process has become very tedious. What I'd like to have is a web server, where all of the xul and js files would be accessible, so that every application could reference them from there. This would require me only to update the code on that server, and the applications (when restarted) would automatically get the latest code. What I managed to do: I can reference js scripts from a xul file using http based urls and everything works fine (I can use local, binary components etc.), although the xul file has to be local - that I'd like to change. But when I write in chrome.manifest a line like: content my_app http://path/to/app/files/ and then use the line in default/preferences/pref.js pref("toolkit.defaultChromeURI", "chrome://my_app/content/my_app.xul"); it just opens a console window (to test I manually run the application with the -console option) and no code gets executed. The file can be downloaded remotely using wget so I guess this isn't the web server issue. The applications work on Windows machines. Is there some kind of security issue causing such behavior or am I doing something wrong? Is it even possible to register remote, http based content as chrome?

  Read the article

• Modify url in browser using javascript?

  - by user246114

  Hi, Is it possible to change the url in the user's browser without actually loading a page, using javascript? I don't think it is (could lead to unwanted behavior), I'm in a situation where this would be convenient though: I have a web app which displays reports generated by users. Layout roughly looks like: ----------------------------------------------------------- Column 1 | Column 2 ----------------------------------------------------------- Report A | Report B | Currently selected report contents here. Report C | right now the user would be looking at a url like: www.mysite.com/user123 To see the above page. When the user clicks the report names in column 1, I load the contents of that report in column 2 using ajax. This is convenient for the user, but the url in their browser remains unchanged. The users want to copy the url for a report to share with friends, so I suppose I could provide a button to generate a url for them, but it would just be more convenient for them to have it already as the url in their browser, something like: www.mysite.com/user123/reportb the alternate is to not load the contents of the report in column 2 using ajax, but rather a full page refresh. This would at least have a linkable url ready for the user in their url bar, but not as convenient as using ajax. Thanks

  Read the article

• Should a "script" tag be allowed to remove itself?

  - by Nischal

  We've been having a discussion at our workplace on this with some for and some against the behavior. Wanted to hear views from you guys : <html> <body> <div> Test! <script> document.body.removeChild(document.getElementsByTagName('div')[0]); </script> </div> </body> </html> Should the above script work and do what it's supposed to do? First, let's see what's happening here : I have a javascript that's inside the <div> element. This javascript will delete the child node within body which happens to hold the div inside which the script itself exists. Now, the above script works fine in Firefox, Opera and IE8. But IE6 and IE7 give an alert saying they cannot open the page. Let's not debate on how IE should have handled this (they've accepted it as a bug and hence fixed it in IE8). The point here is since the 'SCRIPT' tag itself is a part of DOM, should it be allowed to do something like this? Should it even exist after such an operation? Edit: Firefox, Opera, IE9 etc. do not remove the 'script' tag if I run the above code. But, document.getElementsByTagName('script').length returns 0! To understand what I mean, add alert(document.getElementsByTagName('script').length); before and after document.body.removeChild(document.getElementsByTagName('div')[0]); in the code above.

  Read the article

• Must JsUnit Cases Reside Under the Same Directory as JsUnit?

  - by chernevik

  I have installed JsUnit and a test case as follows: /home/chernevik/Programming/JavaScript/jsunit /home/chernevik/Programming/JavaScript/jsunit/testRunner.html /home/chernevik/Programming/JavaScript/jsunit/myTests/lineTestAbs.html /home/chernevik/Programming/JavaScript/lineTestAbs.html When I open the test runner in a browser as a file, and test lineTestAbs.html from the jsunit/myTests directory, it passes. When I test the same file from the JavaScript directory, the test runner times out, asking if the file exists or is a test page. Questions: Am I doing something wrong here, or is this the expected behavior? Is it possible to put test cases in a different directory structure, and if so what is the proper path reference to to JsUnitCore.js? Would JsUnit behave differently if the files were retrieved from an HTTP server? <html> <head> <title>Test Page line(m, x, b)</title> <script language="JavaScript" src="/home/chernevik/Programming/JavaScript/jsunit/app/jsUnitCore.js"></script> <script language="JavaScript"> function line(m, x, b) { return m*x + b; } function testCalculationIsValid() { assertEquals("zero intercept", 10, line(5, 2, 0)); assertEquals("zero slope", 5, line(0, 2, 5)); assertEquals("at x = 10", 25, line(2, 10, 5)); } </script> </head> <body> This pages tests line(m, x, b). </body> </html>

  Read the article

• How to make a piece of WPF content take up the entire application window

  - by Bojin Li

  I'm working on an application that contains a number of content areas. I want to implement a behavior such that in response to user input, any of these content areas can be toggled to fit the entire application window, and optionally back to its original position again. I experimented with several approaches and none of them seem optimal for me. Here's what I tried to do: Use the ClipToBoundsProperty on the content I want to make "Full Screen": Doesn't work because only the CanvasPanel seems to fully respect this property. The application need to be localized so I would really like to avoid the CanvasPanel. Use a Grid and collapse the other content areas, such that only the one I want to see is visible, hence taking up the entire screen: This will probably work but doesn't seem easy to implement nor maintain. The "Full Screen" content area could be several levels deep, for example residing inside a Tabcontrol, so I would have to hide the tab headers too etc. Reconstruct the content area in a separate view and display it while hiding the rest: Seems easy enough to do with DataTemplates and my ViewModel objects, but any GUI/View only states are not preserved using this approach. Somehow "lift" the GUI/View I want to "Full Screen" into the separate view and display it while hiding the rest: I don't know how to do this or even if this is possible. Anyway if anyone knows a better approach I would love to know about it. Thanks a lot!

  Read the article

• C++ const-reference semantics?

  - by Kristoffer

  Consider the sample application below. It demonstrates what I would call a flawed class design. #include <iostream> using namespace std; struct B { B() : m_value(1) {} long m_value; }; struct A { const B& GetB() const { return m_B; } void Foo(const B &b) { // assert(this != &b); m_B.m_value += b.m_value; m_B.m_value += b.m_value; } protected: B m_B; }; int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { A a; cout << "Original value: " << a.GetB().m_value << endl; cout << "Expected value: 3" << endl; a.Foo(a.GetB()); cout << "Actual value: " << a.GetB().m_value << endl; return 0; } Output: Original value: 1 Expected value: 3 Actual value: 4 Obviously, the programmer is fooled by the constness of b. By mistake b points to this, which yields the undesired behavior. My question: What const-rules should you follow when designing getters/setters? My suggestion: Never return a reference to a member variable if it can be set by reference through a member function. Hence, either return by value or pass parameters by value. (Modern compilers will optimize away the extra copy anyway.)

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 359 360 361 362 363 364 365 366 367 368 369 370  | Next Page >