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  • Is this a safe/valid hash method implementation?

    - by Sean
    I have a set of classes to represent some objects loaded from a database. There are a couple variations of these objects, so I have a common base class and two subclasses to represent the differences. One of the key fields they have in common is an id field. Unfortunately, the id of an object is not unique across all variations, but within a single variation. What I mean is, a single object of type A could have an id between, say, 0 and 1,000,000. An object of type B could have an id between, 25,000 and 1,025,000. This means there's some overlap of id numbers. The objects are just variations of the same kind of thing, though, so I want to think of them as such in my code. (They were assigned ids from different sets for legacy reasons.) So I have classes like this: @class BaseClass @class TypeAClass : BaseClass @class TypeBClass : BaseClass BaseClass has a method (NSNumber *)objectId. However instances of TypeA and TypeB could have overlapping ids as discussed above, so when it comes to equality and putting these into sets, I cannot just use the id alone to check it. The unique key of these instances is, essentially, (class + objectId). So I figured that I could do this by making the following hash function on the BaseClass: -(NSUInteger)hash { return (NSUInteger)[self class] ^ [self.objectId hash]; } I also implemented isEqual like so: - (BOOL)isEqual:(id)object { return (self == object) || ([object class] == [self class] && [self.objectId isEqual:[object objectId]]); } This seems to be working, but I guess I'm just asking here to make sure I'm not overlooking something - especially with the generation of the hash by using the class pointer in that way. Is this safe or is there a better way to do this?

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  • Global hotkey capture in VB.net

    - by ggonsalv
    I want to have my app which is minimized to capture data selected in another app's window when the hot key is pressed. My app definitely doesn't have the focus. Additionally when the hot key is pressed I want to present a fading popup (Outlook style) so my app never gets focus. At a minimum I want to capture the Window name, Process ID and the selected data. The app which has focus is not my application? I know one option is to sniff the Clipboard, but are there any other solutions. This is to audit the rate of data-entry in to another system of which I have no control. It is a mainframe emulation client program(attachmate). The plan is complete data entry in Application X. Select a certain section of the screen in App X which is proof of data entry (transaction ID). Press the Magic Hotkey, which then 'sends' the selection to my App. From System.environment or system.Threading I can find the Windows logon. Similiarly I can also capture the time. All the data will be logged to SQL. Once Complete show Outlook style pop up saying the data entry has been logged. Any thoughts.

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  • Delete element from Set

    - by Blitzkr1eg
    Hi. I have 2 classes Tema(Homework) and Disciplina (course), where a Course has a Set of homeworks. In Hibernate i have mapped this to a one-to-many associations like this: <class name="model.Disciplina" table="devgar_scoala.discipline" > <id name="id" > <generator class="increment"/> </id> <set name="listaTeme" table="devgar_scoala.teme"> <key column="Discipline_id" not-null="true" ></key> <one-to-many class="model.Tema" ></one-to-many> </set> </class> <class name="model.Tema" table="devgar_scoala.teme" > <id name="id"> <generator class="increment" /> </id> <property name="titlu" type="string" /> <property name="cerinta" type="binary"> <column name="cerinta" sql-type="blob" /> </property> </class> The problem is that it will add (insert rows in the table 'Teme') but it won't delete any rows and i get no exceptions thrown. Im using the merge() method.

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  • paypal sadbox IPN

    - by Phil Jackson
    Morning all. I am trying to test a SIMPLE php script to deal with the IPN response from paypal sandbox. <?php // read the post from PayPal system and add 'cmd' $req = 'cmd=_notify-validate'; foreach ($post as $key => $value) { $value = urlencode(stripslashes($value)); $req .= "&$key=$value"; } // post back to PayPal system to validate $header = "POST /cgi-bin/webscr HTTP/1.0\r\n"; $header .= "Content-Type: application/x-www-form-urlencoded\r\n"; $header .= "Content-Length: " . strlen($req) . "\r\n\r\n"; $fp = fsockopen ('ssl://www.sandbox.paypal.com/', 443, $errno, $errstr, 30); if ( !$fp ) { // HTTP ERROR $fp = fopen('thinbg.txt', 'a'); fwrite($fp, "false !fp - " . implode(" ", $post) ); fclose($fp); } else { fputs ($fp, $header . $req); while (!feof($fp)) { $res = fgets ($fp, 1024); if (strcmp ($res, "VERIFIED") == 0) { // PAYMENT VALIDATED & VERIFIED! $fp2 = fopen('thinbg.txt', 'a'); fwrite($fp2, "true - " . implode(" ", $post) ); fclose($fp2); } else if (strcmp ($res, "INVALID") == 0) { // PAYMENT INVALID & INVESTIGATE MANUALY! $fp2 = fopen('thinbg.txt', 'a'); fwrite($fp2, "false - " . implode(" ", $post) ); fclose($fp2); } } fclose ($fp); } ?> When I click on "send IPN" in the test ac"IPN successfully sent". when I look at the file that I created to check the vars it begins with "false !fp" yet still displays all the vars. Can anyone see whats happening and how I go about fixing. Regards, Phil

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  • Tail recursion and memoization with C#

    - by Jay
    I'm writing a function that finds the full path of a directory based on a database table of entries. Each record contains a key, the directory's name, and the key of the parent directory (it's the Directory table in an MSI if you're familiar). I had an iterative solution, but it started looking a little nasty. I thought I could write an elegant tail recursive solution, but I'm not sure anymore. I'll show you my code and then explain the issues I'm facing. Dictionary<string, string> m_directoryKeyToFullPathDictionary = new Dictionary<string, string>(); ... private string ExpandDirectoryKey(Database database, string directoryKey) { // check for terminating condition string fullPath; if (m_directoryKeyToFullPathDictionary.TryGetValue(directoryKey, out fullPath)) { return fullPath; } // inductive step Record record = ExecuteQuery(database, "SELECT DefaultDir, Directory_Parent FROM Directory where Directory.Directory='{0}'", directoryKey); // null check string directoryName = record.GetString("DefaultDir"); string parentDirectoryKey = record.GetString("Directory_Parent"); return Path.Combine(ExpandDirectoryKey(database, parentDirectoryKey), directoryName); } This is how the code looked when I realized I had a problem (with some minor validation/massaging removed). I want to use memoization to short circuit whenever possible, but that requires me to make a function call to the dictionary to store the output of the recursive ExpandDirectoryKey call. I realize that I also have a Path.Combine call there, but I think that can be circumvented with a ... + Path.DirectorySeparatorChar + .... I thought about using a helper method that would memoize the directory and return the value so that I could call it like this at the end of the function above: return MemoizeHelper( m_directoryKeyToFullPathDictionary, Path.Combine(ExpandDirectoryKey(database, parentDirectoryKey)), directoryName); But I feel like that's cheating and not going to be optimized as tail recursion. Any ideas? Should I be using a completely different strategy? This doesn't need to be a super efficient algorithm at all, I'm just really curious. I'm using .NET 4.0, btw. Thanks!

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  • How to upload video to favorite/playlist using gdata in objective c

    - by Swati
    hi, i am trying to upload a video to favorite in my account but it shows Invalid request Uri and status code =400 i dont understand how should i format my request my code NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString: http://gdata.youtube.com/feeds/api/users/username/favorite]; ASIFormDataRequest *request = [ASIFormDataRequest requestWithURL:url]; [request setPostValue:@"gdata.youtube.com" forKey:@"Host"]; [request setPostValue:@"application/atom+xml" forKey:@"Content-Type"]; [request setPostValue:@"CONTENT_LENGTH" forKey:@"Content-Length"]; [request setPostValue:@"" forKey:@"AuthSubToken"]; [request setPostValue:@"2" forKey:@"GData-Version"]; [request setPostValue:developer_key forKey:@"X-GData-Key"]; [request setPostValue:xml_data forKey:@"API_XML_Request"]; [request setDelegate:self]; [request setDidFailSelector:@selector(requestFailed:)]; [request setDidFinishSelector:@selector(gotTheResponse:)]; [[networkQueue go]; i have auth token and developer key, VIDEO_ID.but m not sure how to pass xml data in post request: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <entry xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2005/Atom"> <id>VIDEO_ID</id> </entry> NSString *xml_data = contains xml data in string form

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  • Joining Tables Based on Foreign Keys

    - by maestrojed
    I have a table that has a lot of fields that are foreign keys referencing a related table. I am writing a script in PHP that will do the db queries. When I query this table for its data I need to know the values associated with these keys not the key. How do most people go about this? A 101 way to do this would be to query this table for its data including the foreign keys and then query the related tables to get each key's value. This could be a lot of queries (~10). Question 1: I think I could write 1 query with a bunch of joins. Would that be better? This approach also requires the querying script to know which table fields are foreign keys. Since I have many tables like this but all with different fields, this means writing nice generic functions is hard. MySQL InnoDB tables allow for foreign constraints. I know the database has these set up correctly. Question 2: What about the idea of querying the table and identifying what the constraints are and then matching them up using whatever process I decide on from Question 1. I like this idea but never see it being used in code. Makes me think its not a good idea for some reason. I would use something like SHOW CREATE TABLE tbl_name; to find what constraints/relationships exist for that table. Thank you for any suggestions or advice.

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  • Highlighting correctly in an emacs major mode

    - by Paul Nathan
    Hi, I am developing an emacs major mode for a language (aka mydsl). However, using the techniques on xahlee's site doesn't seem to be working for some reason (possibly older emacs dialect..) The key issues I am fighting with are (1) highlighting comments is not working and (2), the use of regexp-opt lines is not working. I've reviewed the GNU manual and looked over cc-mode and elisp mode... those are significantly more complicated than I need. ;;;Standard # to newline comment ;;;Eventually should also have %% to %% multiline block comments (defun mydsl-comment-dwim (arg) "comment or uncomment" (interactive "*P") (require 'newcomment) (let ((deactivate-mark nil) (comment-start "#") (comment-end "") comment-dwim arg))) (defvar mydsl-events '("reservedword1" "reservedword2")) (defvar mydsl-keywords '("other-keyword" "another-keyword")) ;;Highlight various elements (setq mydsl-hilite '( ; stuff between " ("\"\\.\\*\\?" . font-lock-string-face) ; : , ; { } => @ $ = are all special elements (":\\|,\\|;\\|{\\|}\\|=>\\|@\\|$\\|=" . font-lock-keyword-face) ( ,(regexp-opt mydsl-keywords 'words) . font-lock-builtin-face) ( ,(regexp-opt mydsl-events 'words) . font-lock-constant-face) )) (defvar mydsl-tab-width nil "Width of a tab for MYDSL mode") (define-derived-mode mydsl-mode fundamental-mode "MYDSL mode is a major mode for editing MYDSL files" ;Recommended by manual (kill-all-local-variables) (setq mode-name "MYDSL script") (setq font-lock-defaults '((mydsl-hilite))) (if (null mydsl-tab-width) (setq tab-width mydsl-tab-width) (setq tab-width default-tab-width) ) ;Comment definitions (define-key mydsl-mode-map [remap comment-dwim] 'mydsl-comment-dwim) (modify-syntax-entry ?# "< b" mydsl-mode-syntax-table) (modify-syntax-entry ?\n "> b" mydsl-mode-syntax-table) ;;A gnu-correct program will have some sort of hook call here. ) (provide 'mydsl-mode)

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  • How to make the value of one select box drive the options of a second select box

    - by Ben McCormack
    I want to make an HTML form with 2 select boxes. The selected option in the first select box should drive the options in the second select box. I would like to solve this dynamically on the client (using javascript or jQuery) rather than having to submit data to the server. For example, let's say I have the following Menu Categories and Menu Items: Sandwiches Turkey Ham Bacon Sides Mac 'n Cheese Mashed Potatoes Drinks Coca Cola Sprite Sweetwater 420 I would have two select boxes, named Menu Category and Items, respectively. When the user selects Sandwiches in the Menu Category box, the options in the Items box will only show Sandwich options. I'm stuck as how I might approach this. Once I filter out the 2nd list one time, how do I "find" the list options once I change my menu category in the 1st list? Also, if I'm thinking in SQL, I would have a key in the 1st box that would be used to link to the data in the 2nd box. However, I can't see where I have room for a "key" element in the 2nd box. How could this problem be solved with a combination of jQuery or plain javascript?

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  • SQL query for selecting the firsts in a series by cloumn

    - by SP
    I'm having some trouble coming up with a query for what I am trying to do. I've got a table we'll call 'Movements' with the following columns: RecID(Key), Element(f-key), Time(datetime), Room(int) The table is holding a history of Movements for the Elements. One record contains the element the record is for, the time of the recorded location, and the room it was in at that time. What I would like are all records that indicate that an Element entered a room. That would mean the first (by time) entry for any element in a series of movements for that element in the same room. The input is a room number and a time. IE, I would like all of the records indicating that any Element entered room X after time Y. The closest I came was this Select Element, min(Time) from Movements where Time > Y and Room = x group by Element This will only give me one room entry record per Element though (If the Element has entered the room X twice since time Y I'll only get the first one back) Any ideas? Let me know if I have not explained this clearly. I'm using MS SQLServer 2005.

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  • Why doesn't my test run tearDownAfterTestClass when it fails

    - by Memor-X
    in a test i am writing the setUpBeforeTests creates a new customer in the database who is then used to perform the tests with so naturally when i finish the test i should get rid of this test customer in tearDownAfterTestClass so that i can create then anew when i rerun the test and not get any false positives how when the tests all run fine i have no problem but if a test fails and i go to rerun it my setUpBeforeTests fails because i check for mysql errors in it like this try { if(!mysqli_query($connection,$query)) { $this->assertTrue(false); } } catch (Exception $exc) { $msg = '[tearDownAfterTestClass] Exception Error' . PHP_EOL . PHP_EOL; $msg .= 'Could not run query - '.mysqli_error($connection). PHP_EOL;; $this->fail($msg); } the error i get is that there is a primary key violation which is expected cause i'm trying to create a new customer using the same data (primary key is on email which is also used to log in) however that means when the test failed it didn't run tearDownAfterTestClass now i could just move everything in tearDownAfterTestClass to the start of setUpBeforeTests however to me that seems like bad programming since it defeates the purpose of even have tearDownAfterTestClass so i am wondering, why isn't my tearDownAfterTestClass running when a test fails NOTE: the database is a fundamental part of the system i'm testing and the database and system are on a separate development environment not the live one, the backup files for the database are almost 2 GBs and takes almost 1/2 an hour to restore, the purpose of the tear down is to remove any data we have added because of the test so that we don't have to restore the database every time we run the tests

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  • Location of Embedly (JQuery-Preview) Results

    - by user749798
    Embedly/Jquery-Preview has been fantastic. However, I'm trying to change the location of the preview result, and having trouble. Right now, the result appears right below the input field...but I'd rather have it in a separate part of the page. Is there a way to do this? I've tried changing the location of the selector and loading divs, but that hasn't helped. It seems to ignore those divs and put it right below the submit button. Below is my code: <form accept-charset="UTF-8" action="private" class="new_comment" data-remote="true" id="new_comment" method="post"> <input class="photo_comm" id="comment_comment" name="comment[comment]" placeholder="add a comment or link..." size="30" type="text" /><span type="text" id="counter">1000</span> <input class="btn btn-primary btn-mini" data-disable-with="Submitting..." name="commit" type="submit" value="Post" /> </form> <!-- Placeholder that tells Preview where to put the loading icon--> <div class="loading"> <img src='http://embedly.github.com/jquery-preview/images/loading-rectangle.gif'> </div> <!-- Placeholder that tells Preview where to put the selector--> <div class="selector"></div> $('#comment_comment').preview({ key:'60f1dcdf3258476794784148a6eb65e7', // Sign up for a key: http://embed.ly/pricing selector : {type:'rich'}, preview : { submit : function(e, data){ e.preventDefault(); $.ajax({ dataType: 'script', url: this.form.attr('action'), type: 'POST', data: data }); }, }, autoplay : 0, maxwidth : 400, display : {display : 'rich'} });

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  • How can I control the height of a ListView in WPF, using a complex DataTemplate with DataTriggers?

    - by Rob Perkins
    I have a ListView element with a DataTemplate for each ListViewItem defined as follows. When run, the ListView's height is not collapsed onto the items in the view, which is undesirable behavior: <DataTemplate x:Key="LicenseItemTemplate"> <Grid> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition Height="Auto" /> <RowDefinition Height="Auto" /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <TextBlock Grid.Row="0" Text="{Binding company}"></TextBlock> <Grid Grid.Row="1" Style="{StaticResource HiddenWhenNotSelectedStyle}"> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <Button Grid.Row="0">ClickIt</Button> </Grid> </Grid> </DataTemplate> The second row of the outer grid has a style applied which looks like this. The purpose of the style is to : <Style TargetType="{x:Type Grid}" x:Key="HiddenWhenNotSelectedStyle" > <Style.Triggers> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding Path=IsSelected, RelativeSource={ RelativeSource Mode=FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type ListBoxItem} } }" Value="False"> <Setter Property="Grid.Visibility" Value="Collapsed" /> </DataTrigger> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding Path=IsSelected, RelativeSource={ RelativeSource Mode=FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type ListBoxItem} } }" Value="True"> <Setter Property="Grid.Visibility" Value="Visible" /> </DataTrigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> The ListView renders like this: The desired appearance is this, when none of the elements are selected: ...with, of course, the ListView's height adjusting to accommodate the additional content when the second grid is made visible by selection. What can I do to get the desired behavior?

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  • SCD2 + Merge Statement + MSSQL

    - by Nev_Rahd
    I am trying work out with MERGE statment to Insert / Update Dimension Table of Type SCD2 My source is a Table var to Merge with Dimension table. My Merget statement is throwing an error as: The target table 'DM.DATA_ERROR.ERROR_DIMENSION' of the INSERT statement cannot be on either side of a (primary key, foreign key) relationship when the FROM clause contains a nested INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE, or MERGE statement. Found reference constraint 'FK_ERROR_DIMENSION_to_AUDIT_CreatedBy'. My Merge Statement: DECLARE @DATAERROROBJECT AS [ERROR_DIMENSION] INSERT INTO DM.DATA_ERROR.ERROR_DIMENSION SELECT ERROR_CODE, DATA_STREAM_ID, [ERROR_SEVERITY], DATA_QUALITY_RATING, ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION, ERROR_DESCRIPTION, VALIDATION_RULE, ERROR_TYPE, ERROR_CLASS, VALID_FROM, VALID_TO, CURR_FLAG, CREATED_BY_AUDIT_SK, UPDATED_BY_AUDIT_SK FROM (MERGE DM.DATA_ERROR.ERROR_DIMENSION ED USING @DATAERROROBJECT OBJ ON(ED.ERROR_CODE = OBJ.ERROR_CODE AND ED.DATA_STREAM_ID = OBJ.DATA_STREAM_ID) WHEN NOT MATCHED THEN INSERT VALUES( OBJ.ERROR_CODE ,OBJ.DATA_STREAM_ID ,OBJ.[ERROR_SEVERITY] ,OBJ.DATA_QUALITY_RATING ,OBJ.ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION ,OBJ.ERROR_DESCRIPTION ,OBJ.VALIDATION_RULE ,OBJ.ERROR_TYPE ,OBJ.ERROR_CLASS ,GETDATE() ,'9999-12-13' ,'Y' ,1 ,1 ) WHEN MATCHED AND ED.CURR_FLAG = 'Y' AND ( ED.[ERROR_SEVERITY] <> OBJ.[ERROR_SEVERITY] OR ED.[DATA_QUALITY_RATING] <> OBJ.[DATA_QUALITY_RATING] OR ED.[ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION] <> OBJ.[ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION] OR ED.[ERROR_DESCRIPTION] <> OBJ.[ERROR_DESCRIPTION] OR ED.[VALIDATION_RULE] <> OBJ.[VALIDATION_RULE] OR ED.[ERROR_TYPE] <> OBJ.[ERROR_TYPE] OR ED.[ERROR_CLASS] <> OBJ.[ERROR_CLASS] ) THEN UPDATE SET ED.CURR_FLAG = 'N', ED.VALID_TO = GETDATE() OUTPUT $ACTION ACTION_OUT, OBJ.ERROR_CODE ERROR_CODE, OBJ.DATA_STREAM_ID DATA_STREAM_ID, OBJ.[ERROR_SEVERITY] [ERROR_SEVERITY], OBJ.DATA_QUALITY_RATING DATA_QUALITY_RATING, OBJ.ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION, OBJ.ERROR_DESCRIPTION ERROR_DESCRIPTION, OBJ.VALIDATION_RULE VALIDATION_RULE, OBJ.ERROR_TYPE ERROR_TYPE, OBJ.ERROR_CLASS ERROR_CLASS, GETDATE() VALID_FROM, '9999-12-31' VALID_TO, 'Y' CURR_FLAG, 555 CREATED_BY_AUDIT_SK, 555 UPDATED_BY_AUDIT_SK ) AS MERGE_OUT WHERE MERGE_OUT.ACTION_OUT = 'UPDATE'; What am i doing wrong ?

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  • Go - Using a map for its set properties with user defined types

    - by Seth Hoenig
    I'm trying to use the built-in map type as a set for a type of my own (Point, in this case). The problem is, when I assign a Point to the map, and then later create a new, but equal point and use it as a key, the map behaves as though that key is not in the map. Is this not possible to do? // maptest.go package main import "fmt" func main() { set := make(map[*Point]bool) printSet(set) set[NewPoint(0, 0)] = true printSet(set) set[NewPoint(0, 2)] = true printSet(set) _, ok := set[NewPoint(3, 3)] // not in map if !ok { fmt.Print("correct error code for non existent element\n") } else { fmt.Print("incorrect error code for non existent element\n") } c, ok := set[NewPoint(0, 2)] // another one just like it already in map if ok { fmt.Print("correct error code for existent element\n") // should get this } else { fmt.Print("incorrect error code for existent element\n") // get this } fmt.Printf("c: %t\n", c) } func printSet(stuff map[*Point]bool) { fmt.Print("Set:\n") for k, v := range stuff { fmt.Printf("%s: %t\n", k, v) } } type Point struct { row int col int } func NewPoint(r, c int) *Point { return &Point{r, c} } func (p *Point) String() string { return fmt.Sprintf("{%d, %d}", p.row, p.col) } func (p *Point) Eq(o *Point) bool { return p.row == o.row && p.col == o.col }

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  • JPA - Entity design problem

    - by Yatendra Goel
    I am developing a Java Desktop Application and using JPA for persistence. I have a problem mentioned below: I have two entities: Country City Country has the following attribute: CountryName (PK) City has the following attribute: CityName Now as there can be two cities with same name in two different countries, the primaryKey for City table in the datbase is a composite primary key composed of CityName and CountryName. Now my question is How to implement the primary key of the City as an Entity in Java @Entity public class Country implements Serializable { private String countryName; @Id public String getCountryName() { return this.countryName; } } @Entity public class City implements Serializable { private CityPK cityPK; private Country country; @EmbeddedId public CityPK getCityPK() { return this.cityPK; } } @Embeddable public class CityPK implements Serializable { public String cityName; public String countryName; } Now as we know that the relationship from Country to City is OneToMany and to show this relationship in the above code, I have added a country variable in City class. But then we have duplicate data(countryName) stored in two places in the City class: one in the country object and other in the cityPK object. But on the other hand, both are necessary: countryName in cityPK object is necessary because we implement composite primary keys in this way. countryName in country object is necessary because it is the standard way of showing relashionship between objects. How to get around this problem?

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  • OracleGlobalization.SetThreadInfo() ORA-12705 Error

    - by michele
    Hi guys! I'm stuck in a problem, i cannot workaround! I have a Oracle client 11, with registry key set to AMERICAN_AMERICA.WE8ISO8859P1. I cannot edit this key, but my application must get data from Oracle in Italian culture format. So I want to edit culture info form my application only. I'm trying to using OracleGlobalization class in ODP.NET library before my Application.Run(), to set culture for my thread: OracleGlobalization og = OracleGlobalization.GetThreadInfo(); //OracleGlobalization.SetThreadInfo(OracleGlobalization.GetThreadInfo()); og.Calendar = "GREGORIAN"; og.Comparison = "BINARY"; og.Currency = "€"; og.DateFormat = "DD-MON-RR"; og.DateLanguage = "ITALIAN"; og.DualCurrency = "€"; og.ISOCurrency = "ITALY"; og.Language = "ITALIAN"; og.LengthSemantics = "BYTE"; og.NCharConversionException = false; og.NumericCharacters = ",."; og.Sort = "WEST_EUROPEAN"; og.Territory = "ITALY"; OracleGlobalization.SetThreadInfo(og); I get always the same error: ORA-12705: Cannot access NLS data files or invalid environment specified. I really don't know ho to solve this problem! Any hint? I'm working on a Win7 pc with VisualStudio 2008. Thank you in advance!

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  • Dealing with expired authentication for a partially filled form?

    - by aaronls
    I have a large webform, and would like to prompt the user to login if their session expires, or have them login when they submit the form. It seems that having them login when they submit the form creates alot of challenges because they get redirected to the login page and then the postback data for the original form submission is lost. So I'm thinking about how to prompt them to login asynchrounsly when the session expires. So that they stay on the original form page, have a panel appear telling them the session has expired and they need to login, it submits the login asynchronously, the login panel disapears, and the user is still on the original partially filled form and can submit it. Is this easily doable using the existing ASP.NET Membership controls? When they submit the form will I need to worry about the session key? I mean, I am wondering if the session key the form submits will be the original one from before the session expired which won't match the new one generated after logging in again asynchrounously(I still do not understand the details of how ASP.NET tracks authentication/session IDs). Edit: Yes I am actually concerned about authentication expiration. The user must be authenticated for the submitted data to be considered valid.

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  • autologin component doesn't work on remote server

    - by user606521
    I am using autologin component from http://milesj.me/code/cakephp/auto-login (v 3.5.1). It works on my localhost WAMP server but fails on remote server. I am using this settings in beforeFilter() callback: $this->AutoLogin->settings = array( // Model settings 'model' => 'User', 'username' => 'username', 'password' => 'password', // Controller settings 'plugin' => '', 'controller' => 'users', // Cookie settings 'cookieName' => 'rememberMe', 'expires' => '+1 month', // Process logic 'active' => true, 'redirect' => true, 'requirePrompt' => true ); On remote server it simply doesn't autolog users after the browser was closed. I can't figure out what may cause the problem. -------------------- edit I figured out what is causing the problem but I don't know how to fix this. First of all cookie is set like this: $this->Cookie->write('key',array('username' => 'someusername', 'hash' => 'somehash', ...) ); Then it's readed like this: $cookie = $this->Cookie->read('key'); On my WAMP server $cookie is array('username' => 'someusername', 'hash' => 'somehash', ...) and on remote server returned $cookie is string(159) "{\"username\":\"YWxlay5iYXJzsdsdZXdza2ldssd21haWwuY29t\",\"password\":\"YWxlazc3ODEy\",\"hash\":\"aa15bffff9ca12cdcgfgb351d8bfg2f370bf458\",\"time\":1339923926}" and it should be: array( 'username' => "YWxlay5iYXJzsdsdZXdza2ldssd21haWwuY29t", 'password' => "YWxlazc3ODEy", ...) Why the retuned cookie is string not array?

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  • WordPress plugin to output a certain category on content page tweak help

    - by talkingD0G
    I'm using WordPress plugin Category Page to display the most recent 5 posts from a certain category on a regular content page (not the blog page) of a website. Right now the plugin is limited to display the post title linked to the post page. This is a video blog type site and I need the plugin to display the post title (as it does now) with the video as well. Probably just telling the script to show the content would work but I don't know how to tweak it. This is the section of the script that is outputting the post title: function page2cat_content_catlist($content){ global $post; if ( stristr( $content, '[catlist' )) { $search = "@(?:<p>)*\s*\[catlist\s*=\s*(\w+|^\+)\]\s*(?:</p>)*@i"; if (preg_match_all($search, $content, $matches)) { if (is_array($matches)) { $title = get_option('p2c_catlist_title'); if($title != "") $output = "<h4>".$title."</h4>"; else $output = ""; $output .= "<ul class='p2c_catlist'>"; $limit = get_option('p2c_catlist_limit'); foreach ($matches[1] as $key =>$v0) { $catposts = get_posts('category='.$v0."&numberposts=".$limit); foreach($catposts as $single): $output .= "<li><a href='".get_permalink($single->ID)." '>".$single->post_title."</a></li>"; endforeach; $search = $matches[0][$key]; $replace= $output; $content= str_replace ($search, $replace, $content); } $output .= "</ul>"; } } } return $content; } If anyone has any advice or knows how to help thanks in advance!

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  • Borderless ImageButtons in WrapPanel

    - by Bill
    I am attempting to create a WrapPanel with seamless ImageButtons containing Artwork. I put together the following ContentTemplate in the hopes that it would provide the seamless look required; however a thin white-line remained around each of the buttons. Can anyone steer me in the right direction? <Button.ContentTemplate> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type local:ArtInfo}"> <Border Name="border" BorderThickness="0" BorderBrush="blue" Height="280" Width="250" Background="#262c40"> <StackPanel> <Grid> <Grid.Resources> <local:MyConverter x:Key="MyConverter"></local:MyConverter> <ObjectDataProvider x:Key="Properties.Settings" ObjectType="{x:Type lcl:Properties.Settings}" /> </Grid.Resources> <Image Name="ArtImage" Margin="10,15,0,0" Height="195" Width="195" VerticalAlignment="Top" > <Image.Source> <Binding Path="ArtImage"/> </Image.Source> </Image> </Grid> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=ArtClass}" Margin="10,-17,0,0" FontSize="11" Foreground="white" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=Student}" Margin="10,0,0,0" FontSize="11" Foreground="white" /> <TextBlock Text="1998" Margin="10,0,0,0" FontSize="11" Foreground="white" /> </StackPanel> </Border> </DataTemplate> </Button.ContentTemplate>

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  • Setting up relations/mappings for a SQLAlchemy many-to-many database

    - by Brent Ramerth
    I'm new to SQLAlchemy and relational databases, and I'm trying to set up a model for an annotated lexicon. I want to support an arbitrary number of key-value annotations for the words which can be added or removed at runtime. Since there will be a lot of repetition in the names of the keys, I don't want to use this solution directly, although the code is similar. My design has word objects and property objects. The words and properties are stored in separate tables with a property_values table that links the two. Here's the code: from sqlalchemy import Column, Integer, String, Table, create_engine from sqlalchemy import MetaData, ForeignKey from sqlalchemy.orm import relation, mapper, sessionmaker from sqlalchemy.ext.declarative import declarative_base engine = create_engine('sqlite:///test.db', echo=True) meta = MetaData(bind=engine) property_values = Table('property_values', meta, Column('word_id', Integer, ForeignKey('words.id')), Column('property_id', Integer, ForeignKey('properties.id')), Column('value', String(20)) ) words = Table('words', meta, Column('id', Integer, primary_key=True), Column('name', String(20)), Column('freq', Integer) ) properties = Table('properties', meta, Column('id', Integer, primary_key=True), Column('name', String(20), nullable=False, unique=True) ) meta.create_all() class Word(object): def __init__(self, name, freq=1): self.name = name self.freq = freq class Property(object): def __init__(self, name): self.name = name mapper(Property, properties) Now I'd like to be able to do the following: Session = sessionmaker(bind=engine) s = Session() word = Word('foo', 42) word['bar'] = 'yes' # or word.bar = 'yes' ? s.add(word) s.commit() Ideally this should add 1|foo|42 to the words table, add 1|bar to the properties table, and add 1|1|yes to the property_values table. However, I don't have the right mappings and relations in place to make this happen. I get the sense from reading the documentation at http://www.sqlalchemy.org/docs/05/mappers.html#association-pattern that I want to use an association proxy or something of that sort here, but the syntax is unclear to me. I experimented with this: mapper(Word, words, properties={ 'properties': relation(Property, secondary=property_values) }) but this mapper only fills in the foreign key values, and I need to fill in the other value as well. Any assistance would be greatly appreciated.

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  • How to properly set relationships in Core Data when using setValue and data already exists

    - by ern
    Let's say I have two objects: Articles and Categories. For the sake of this example all relevant categories have already been added to the data store. When looping through data that holds edits for articles, there is category relationship information that needs to be saved. I was planning on using the -setValue method in the Article class in order to set the relationships like so: - (void)setValue:(id)value forUndefinedKey:(NSString *)key { if([key isEqualToString:@"categories"]){ NSLog(@"trying to set categories..."); } } The problem is that value isn't a Category, it is just a string (or array of strings) holding the title of a category. I could certainly do a lookup within this method for each category and assign it, but that seems inefficient when processing a whole bunch of articles at once. Another option is to populate an array of all possible categories and just filter, but my question is where to store that array? Should it be a class method on Article? Is there a way to pass in additional data to the -setValue method? Is there another, better option for setting the relationship I'm not thinking of? Thanks for your help.

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  • ANT propertyfile entry is not resolving to its value

    - by Brian
    I have a value in a properties file that I want to increment while the build is running. The goal is to copy a set of files and append a number to the front of each in order to maintain the order in which they were copied into the directory. I am using the <propertyfile> task as follows: <propertyfile file="jsfiles.properties"> <entry key="file.number" type="int" operation="=" value="10" /> <entry key="file.number" type="int" default="010" operation="+" value="10" pattern="000" /> </propertyfile> Then I do the copy: <copy todir="${js-in.dir}"> <resources> ... </resources> <chainedmapper> <flattenmapper /> <globmapper from="*.js" to="${file.number}-*.js"/> </chainedmapper> </copy> This does exactly what I need it to EXCEPT that instead of the following output: 010-file1.js 020-file2.js 030-file3.js ... I get: ${file.number}-file1.js ${file.number}-file2.js ${file.number}-file3.js ... What am I doing wrong?

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  • Traversing through an arbitrary dictionary tree structure in C#

    - by Rudism
    I am trying to write a recursive C# function that will operate on generic dictionaries of the form IDictionary<string, T> where T is either another IDictionary<string, T> or a string. My first failed attempt looked something like this: public string HandleDict(IDictionary<string, string> dict){ // handle the leaf-node here } public string HandleDict<T>(IDictionary<string, IDictionary<string, T>> dict){ // loop through children foreach(string key in dict.Keys){ HandleDict(dict[key]); } } I also tried variants of HandleDict<T>(IDictionary<string, T>) where T : IDictionary<string, T> but that also doesn't quite work. I know that what I want to do could be achieved through a custom class as the parameter instead of dictionaries, and that my attempts are conceptually flawed (there's no end to the recursion in the generic function). I would still like to know if there is actually a way to do what I want here using just generic IDictionaries.

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