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  • Have Microsoft changed how ASP.NET MVC deals with duplicate action method names?

    - by Jason Evans
    I might be missing something here, but in ASP.NET MVC 4, I can't get the following to work. Given the following controller: public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(string order1, string order2) { return null; } } and it's view: @{ ViewBag.Title = "Home"; } @using (Html.BeginForm()) { @Html.TextBox("order1")<br /> @Html.TextBox("order2") <input type="submit" value="Save"/> } When start the app, all I get is this: The current request for action 'Index' on controller type 'HomeController' is ambiguous between the following action methods: System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index() on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index(System.String, System.String) on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController Now, in ASP.NET MVC 3 the above works fine, I just tried it, so what's changed in ASP.NET MVC 4 to break this? OK there could be a chance that I'm doing something silly here, and not noticing it. EDIT: I notice that in the MVC 4 app, the Global.asax.cs file did not contain this: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); } which the MVC 3 app does, by default. So I added the above to the MVC 4 app but it fails with the same error. Note that the MVC 3 app does work fine with the above route. I'm passing the "order" data via the Request.Form. EDIT: In the file RouteConfig.cs I can see RegisterRoutes is executed, with the following default route: routes.MapRoute( name: "Default", url: "{controller}/{action}/{id}", defaults: new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); I still get the original error, regards ambiguity between which Index() method to call.

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  • How do I handle the messages for a simple web-based live chat, on the server side?

    - by Carson Myers
    I'm building a simple live chat into a web application running on Django, but one thing I'm confused about is how I should store the messages between users. The chat will support multiple users, and a chat "session" is composed of users connected to one user that is the "host." The application is a sort of online document collaboration thing, so user X has a document, and users Y and Z would connect to user X to talk about the document, and that would be one chat session. If user Y disconnected for five minutes, and then signed back in and reconnected to user X, he should not get any of the messages shared between users X and Z while he was away. if users X, Y, and Z can have a chat session about user X's document, then users X and Y can connect to a simultaneous, but separate discussion about user Z's document. How should I handle this? Should I keep each message in the database? Each message would have an owner user and a target user (the host), and a separate table would be used to connect users with messages (which messages are visible to what users). Or should I store each session as an HTML file on the server, which messages get appended to? The problem is, I can't just send messages directly between clients. They have to be sent to the server in a POST request, and then each client has to periodically check for the messages in a GET request. Except I can't just have each message cleared after a client fetches it, because there could be multiple clients. How should I set this up? Any suggestions?

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  • How to cache code in PHP?

    - by Janis Peisenieks
    I am creating a custom form building system, which includes various tokens. These tokens are found using Regular Expressions, and depending on the type of toke, parsed. Some require simple replacement, some require cycles, and so forth. Now I know, that RegExp is quite resource and time consuming, so I would like to be able to parse the code for the form once, creating a php code, and then save the PHP code, for next uses. How would I go about doing this? So far I have only seen output caching. Is there a way to cache commands like echo and cycles like foreach()? Because of misunderstandings, I'll create an example. Unparsed template data: Thank You for Your interest, [*Title*] [*Firstname*] [*Lastname*]. Here are the details of Your order! [*KeyValuePairs*] Here is the link to Your request: [*LinkToRequest*]. Parsed template: "Thank You for Your interest, <?php echo $data->title;?> <?php echo $data->firstname;?> <?php echo $data->lastname;?>. Here are the details of Your order! <?php foreach($data->values as $key=>$value){ echo $key."-".$value }?> Here is the link to Your request: <?php echo $data->linkToRequest;?>. I would then save the parsed template, and instead of parsing the template every time, just pass the $data variable to the already parsed one, which would generate an output.

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  • adding a token onto a webservice or wcf call

    - by duncanUK
    I have an httphandler which I am using to log the http soap request and response for each webservice that is called from my application as a comms log. i would like to inject a token ont he 1st call (possibly the 1st call to invoke the service that is being logged) and then be able to track all subsequent webservice calls run in the same context with this token so i can tie the subsequent calls back up to the original call. so for example. main webservice -> 2nd web service -> another web service [token] [token] [token] -> nth web service [token] I would like to inject the token on the first call to the main webservice (http handler checks if no token, add it), I would like to use the same http handler to intercept each call to the subsequent webservices and pass on the token if it exists already (the job of the httphandler is to log the in/out soap with the token to reference with. I have managed to inject the first token, but my problem is how do I add the token on the subsequent calls.. can I make it stick on the same context or session? My worry is that when we call a new webservice, we create a whole new proxy/http request which will not inhrit the token... or will it?! Ideally I would like it to persist on the http header as I am setting the token as a header at the moment? has anyone got any ideas or a better way of doing this? I would be most greatful for you comments!

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  • SQL 2008. I have user in a db which has no login on the server. How is it possible?

    - by Boppity Bop
    I am talking about windows authentication. I dont have access to the server adming rights but a dbadmin sent me screenshot where my user is not in the logins of the server. and also there is only one windows group called admin - databases which I am 100% sure my guy cannot be part of it. BUT... his username is in users of my db... How come user can appear in a db not having login on the server? P.S. in the logs it prints: Login failed for user 'xxxx'. Reason: Token-based server access validation failed with an infrastructure error. Check for previous errors

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  • Avoiding mass propagation of properties and events for exposure to ViewModels.

    - by firoso
    I have an MVVM application I am developing that is to the point where I'm ready to start putting together a user interface (my client code is largely functional) I'm now running into the issue that I'm trying to get my application data to where I need it so that it can be consumed by the view model and then bound to the view. Unfortunately, it seems that I've either got a few structural oversights, or I'm just going to have to face the reality that I need to be propogating events and raising excessive amounts of errors to notify view models that thier properties have changed. Let me go into some examples of my issue: I have a class "Unit" contained in a class "Test", contained in a class "Session" contained in a class "TestManager" which is contained in "TestDataModel" which is utilized by "TestViewModel" which is databound to by my "TestView" .... WHOA. Now, consider that Unit (the bottom of the heiarchy) has a property called "Results" that is updated periodically, I want to expose that to my viewmodel and then databind it to my view, trouble is, the only way I can really think to do this is to perpetuate events WAY up a chain that say "I've been updated!" and then request the new value... This seems like an aweful way to do this. Alternatively, I could register a static event and raise it, and have the appropriate "Unit view model" grab the event and request the update. This SEEMS better... but... static events? Is that a taboo idea? Also, having an expression like: TestDataModel.TestManager.Session.Test.Unit.Results[i] Seems REALLY gross to have on a View Model. I know this all reeks of a bad design issue, but I can't figure out what I did wrong? Should I be using more singleton/container controlled lifetimes type objects? Register object instances with static helper containers? Obviously these are hard questions to answer without being intimate with the existing structure, but if you've run into situations like this, what did you do to refactor? Should I just live with this, add mass events, and propogate them?

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  • Calling web service from seems to hang

    - by anothershrubery
    I am trying to call an asmx web service from an Android app. Just literally started some Android development today. I've been following various solutions I have found on the net and on here and it seems it is more difficult than anticipated. I have tried various solutions and using KSoap2 seems to be the easiest way to implement this, well it would be if I could get it working. I have the following code which works up until a point: private class CallWebService extends AsyncTask<Void, Void, Void> { private static final String SOAP_ACTION = "http://tempuri.org/GetUser"; private static final String METHOD_NAME = "GetUser"; private static final String NAMESPACE = "http://tempuri.org/"; private static final String URL = "http://160.10.1.79:59315/Service1.asmx"; TextView tv; @Override protected Void doInBackground(Void... params) { tv=(TextView)findViewById(R.id.txtMessage); try { SoapObject request = new SoapObject(NAMESPACE, METHOD_NAME); SoapSerializationEnvelope envelope = new SoapSerializationEnvelope(SoapEnvelope.VER11); envelope.dotNet=true; envelope.setOutputSoapObject(request); HttpTransportSE androidHttpTransport = new HttpTransportSE(URL); androidHttpTransport.call(SOAP_ACTION, envelope); Object result = (Object)envelope.getResponse(); tv.setText(result.toString()); } catch (Exception e) { tv.setText(e.getMessage()); } return null; } } It seems to hang at the line androidHttpTransport.call(SOAP_ACTION, envelope); Any ideas why? Is this the correct approach? Should I be looking in another direction?

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  • S3 file Uploading from Mac app though PHP?

    - by Ilija Tovilo
    I have asked this question before, but it was deleted due too little information. I'll try to be more concrete this time. I have an Objective-C mac application, which should allow users to upload files to S3-storage. The s3 storage is mine, the users don't have an Amazon account. Until now, the files were uploaded directly to the amazon servers. After thinking some more about it, it wasn't really a great concept, regarding security and flexibility. I want to add a server in between. The user should authenticate with my server, the server would open a session if the authentication was successful, and the file-sharing could begin. Now my question. I want to upload the files to S3. One option would be to make a POST-request and wait until the server would receive the file. Problems here are, that there would be a delay, when the file is being uploaded from my server to the S3 servers, and it would double the uploading time. Best would be, if I could validate the request, and then redirecting it, so the client uploads it directly to the s3-storage. Not sure if this is possible somehow. Uploading directly to S3 doesn't seem to be very smart. After looking into other apps like Droplr and Dropmark, it looks like they don't do this. Btw. I did this using Little Snitch. They have their api on their own web-server, and that's it. Could someone clear things up for me? EDIT How should I transmit my files to S3? Is there a way to "forward" it, or do I have to upload it to my server and then upload it from there to S3? Like I said, other apps can do this efficiently and without the need of communicating with S3 directly.

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  • Amazon Product API ResponseGroups and Default results

    - by aboxy
    A. In our application, most of the data we work with is stored as free text .i.e. there is no categorization done as of now. We are using openNLP libraries to make sense of the data(extract keywords/classify) and do a query to Amazon web services to pull the results of the query. We use searchindex=All and keywords=. Results are not always returned and we basically get 'AWS.ECommerceService.NoExactMatches' How to avoid that? 1) Is there a way to specify default results if no match found? e.g. Amazon carousel widget does that if the search query did not return results, it basically show some computer items. 2) Should I batch the request always and add another search criteria to every request? If my first criteria does not pull any results, we can be sure that our 2nd query will always pull results(possibly caching?) Here is one search criteria 'Open Circle Hoop Earrings Polished Stainless Steel Open Circle Hoop Earrings Polished Stainless Steel DiamondShark' This return no results via API. On Amazon site,I get alternative suggestions with some results which are pretty relevant. Is there a way to pull those results? B. We just need a thumbnail image and a title and description for our app. Which responseGroup is appropriate? We are using medium rt now but there is awful lot of information even with that responseGroup. Any help is appreciated. thanks

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  • C# XML node with colon

    - by Sticky
    Hi, my code attempts to grab data from the RSS feed of a website. It grabs the nodes fine, but when attempting to grab the data from a node with a colon, it crashes and gives the error "Namespace Manager or XsltContext needed. This query has a prefix, variable, or user-defined function." The code is shown below: WebRequest request = WebRequest.Create("http://buypoe.com/external.php?type=RSS2&lastpost=true"); WebResponse response = request.GetResponse(); StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(""); System.IO.StreamReader rssStream = new System.IO.StreamReader(response.GetResponseStream(), System.Text.Encoding.GetEncoding("utf-8")); XmlDocument rssDoc = new XmlDocument(); rssDoc.Load(rssStream); XmlNodeList rssItems = rssDoc.SelectNodes("rss/channel/item"); for (int i = 0; i < 5; i++) { XmlNode rssDetail; rssDetail = rssItems.Item(i).SelectSingleNode("dc:creator"); if (rssDetail != null) { user = rssDetail.InnerText; } else { user = ""; } } I understand that I need to define the namespace, but am unsure how to do this. Help would be appreciated.

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  • XMLHttpRequest POST Data Size

    - by usurper
    Hi, Is there a size limit to a XHR POST request? I am using the POST method for saving textdata into MySQL using PHP script and the data is cut off. Firebug sends me the following message: ... Firebug request size limit has been reached by Firebug. ... This is my code for sending the data: function makeXHR(recordData) { xmlhttp = createXHR(); var body = "q=" + encodeURIComponent(recordData); xmlhttp.open("POST", "insertRowData.php", true); xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Content-Type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Content-length", body.length); xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = function() { if(xmlhttp.readyState == 4 && xmlhttp.status == 200) { //alert(xmlhttp.responseText); alert("Records were saved successfully!"); } } xmlhttp.send(body); } The only solution I can think of is splitting the data and making a queue of XHR requests but I don't like it. Is there another way?

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  • Efficient way to maintain a sorted list of access counts in Python

    - by David
    Let's say I have a list of objects. (All together now: "I have a list of objects.") In the web application I'm writing, each time a request comes in, I pick out up to one of these objects according to unspecified criteria and use it to handle the request. Basically like this: def handle_request(req): for h in handlers: if h.handles(req): return h return None Assuming the order of the objects in the list is unimportant, I can cut down on unnecessary iterations by keeping the list sorted such that the most frequently used (or perhaps most recently used) objects are at the front. I know this isn't something to be concerned about - it'll make only a miniscule, undetectable difference in the app's execution time - but debugging the rest of the code is driving me crazy and I need a distraction :) so I'm asking out of curiosity: what is the most efficient way to maintain the list in sorted order, descending, by the number of times each handler is chosen? The obvious solution is to make handlers a list of (count, handler) pairs, and each time a handler is chosen, increment the count and resort the list. def handle_request(req): for h in handlers[:]: if h[1].handles(req): h[0] += 1 handlers.sort(reverse=True) return h[1] return None But since there's only ever going to be at most one element out of order, and I know which one it is, it seems like some sort of optimization should be possible. Is there something in the standard library, perhaps, that is especially well-suited to this task? Or some other data structure? (Even if it's not implemented in Python) Or should/could I be doing something completely different?

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  • When saving a model with has_one or has_many associations, which side of the association is saved fi

    - by SeeBees
    I have three simplified models: class Team < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :players has_one :coach end class Player < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :team validates_presence_of :team_id end class Coach < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :team validates_presence_of :team_id end I use the following code to test these models: t = Team.new team.coach = Coach.new team.save! team.save! returns true. But in another test: t = Team.new team.players << Player.new team.save! team.save! gives the following error: > ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid: > Validation failed: Players is invalid > from > /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.4/lib/active_record/validations.rb:1090:in > `save_without_dirty!' from > /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.4/lib/active_record/dirty.rb:87:in `save_without_transactions!' from > /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.4/lib/active_record/transactions.rb:200:in > `save!' from > /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.4/lib/active_record/connection_adapters/abstract/database_statements.rb:136:in > `transaction' from > /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.4/lib/active_record/transactions.rb:182:in > `transaction' from > /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.4/lib/active_record/transactions.rb:200:in > `save!' from > /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.4/lib/active_record/transactions.rb:208:in > `rollback_active_record_state!' from > /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.4/lib/active_record/transactions.rb:200:in > `save!' from (irb):14 I figured out that when team.save! is called, it first calls player.save!. player needs to validate the presence of the id of the associated team. But at the time player.save! is called, team hasn't been saved yet, and therefore, team_id doesn't yet exist for player. This fails the player's validation, so the error occurs. But on the other hand, team is saved before coach.save!, otherwise the first example will get the same error as the second one. So I've concluded that when a has_many bs, a.save! will save bs prior to a. When a has_one b, a.save! will save a prior to b. If I am right, why is this the case? It doesn't seem logical to me. Why do has_one and has_many association have different order in saving? Any ideas? And is there any way I can change the order? Say I want to have the same saving order for both has_one and has_many. Thanks.

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  • Apache redirection problem!!!!

    - by vikas
    Hi guys, I am setting up a pre-built website built in php. The site was actually hosted on the linux server. Now I am trying to set it up on a Window machine with WAMP server. In this website almost every page request passes through a particular file called redirect(which is basically a php file without extension). Now the problem is that when I inspected the configuration(httpd.conf, apache.conf,.htaccess, vhost.conf etc) of the apache server on the linux machine, I nowhere found the redirect rules for doing so. Neither mod_rewrite nor mod_alias rules for this redirection were found there. But is still redirects the request properly. I also noticed that Zend Framework library is there in the exact same directory where the redirect file is. This library is included in the include_path in php.ini. However, the web site is still not developed using Zend MVC and I have seen NO proof of ZEND being used there. So I am really confused how this redirection is working there? I am unable to set up this on window machine without rewrite rules of mod_rewrite or mod_alias. Do you guys know any alternative of both the said modules for redirection? I know the site is really weird, but i have to set it up. :) Thanks in advance for your help.

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  • NLB and Web Deploy

    - by asgerhallas
    I have two webservers in a cluster serving a web application. Using MS Web Deploy to push a new version of the application to one server, and then again to synchronize the files to the other server in the cluster. It seems to be the most ordinary thing to do. But wouldn't there be a problemm, when one server is deployed with the new version, and the other is not yet finished. Will it not cause troubles, when a page loaded with the new version makes a webservice request and the balancer sends the request to the server with the old version? What's the best way to avoid this? I thought about scripting a drainstop of the server, that we deploy to, and make sure only one server is running at a time. But I can't find anyone else, who seems to have written about such a solution. And guess that it doesn't scale very well too. Another solution could be to shut down all servers when updating. But that doesn't seems very clever. Any suggestions?

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  • How to check if there is an active session in a JSF page?

    - by Roberto de Santis
    Hi, there is a way to check if there is an active session directly in jsf page? I have try this but it doesn't work: <p:ajaxStatus onerror="#{session == null ? 'idleDialog.show();' : null}" thank you in advance @Update I have see that onerror isn't fired even if viewExpiredException occurr. @Update 1 Ok i have implemented something that may work: <h:form> <p:idleMonitor timeout="10000" idleListener="#{idleMonitorController.idleListener}" onidle="sessionPoll.stop();idleDialog.show();"/> </h:form> <p:dialog header="Sessione scaduta per inattività" widgetVar="idleDialog" modal="true" width="400"> <h:outputText value="Sessione scaduta" /> <h:button value="Ripristina Sessione" onclick="idleDialog.hide();sessionPoll.start();" /> </p:dialog> <h:form prependId="false"> <p:poll widgetVar="sessionPoll" interval="1"/> </h:form> and this is the listner: public void idleListener(IdleEvent event) { System.out.println("aaaa"); final HttpServletRequest request = (HttpServletRequest) FacesContext.getCurrentInstance().getExternalContext().getRequest(); request.getSession(false).invalidate(); } now the only problem is that the session.invalidate doesn't work

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  • Why Response.Write behavior varies in the given scenario?

    - by Sri Kumar
    Hello All, When i POST the page using the following code, the Response.write("Hey") doesn't write the content ("Hello") to the parent page <form method="post" name="upload" enctype="multipart/form-data" action="http://localhost:2518/Web/CrossPage.aspx?cmd=getvalue" > <input type="file" name="filename" /> <input type="submit" value="Upload Data File" name="cmdSubmit" /> </form> But When i use following code , and POST the data, the Response.write("Hey") can be obtained in the parent page HttpWebRequest requestToSender = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create("http://localhost:2518/Web/CrossPage.aspx?cmd=getvalue"); requestToSender.Method = "POST"; requestToSender.ContentType = "multipart/form-data"; HttpWebResponse responseFromSender = (HttpWebResponse)requestToSender.GetResponse(); string fromSender = string.Empty; using (StreamReader responseReader = new StreamReader(responseFromSender.GetResponseStream())) { fromSender = responseReader.ReadToEnd(); } In the CrossPage.aspx i have the following code if (!Page.IsPostBack) { NameValueCollection postPageCollection = Request.Form; foreach (string name in postPageCollection.AllKeys) { Response.Write(name + " " + postPageCollection[name]); } HttpFileCollection postCollection = Request.Files; foreach (string name in postCollection.AllKeys) { HttpPostedFile aFile = postCollection[name]; aFile.SaveAs(Server.MapPath(".") + "/" + Path.GetFileName(aFile.FileName)); } Response.Write("Hey"); } I don't have any code in the Page_Load event of parent page.? What could be the cause? I need to write the "hey" to the Parent page using the first scenario. Both the application are of different domain. Edit: "Hey" would be from the CrossPage.aspx. I need to write this back to the Parent Page

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  • How to define default values optional fields in play framework forms?

    - by natalinobusa
    I am implementing a web api using the scala 2.0.2 play framework. I would like to extract and validate a number of get parameters. And for this I am using a play "form" which allows me to define optional fields. Problem: For those optional fields, I need to define a default value if the parameter is not passed. The code is intended to parse correctly these three use cases: /test?top=abc (error, abc is not an integer) /test?top=123 (valid, top is 123) /test (valid, top is 42 (default value)) I have come up with the following code: def test = Action { implicit request => case class CData(top:Int) val p = Form( mapping( "top" -> optional(number) )((top) => CData($top.getOrElse(42))) ((cdata:CData) => Some(Some(cdata.top))) ).bindFromRequest() Ok("all done.") } The code works, but it's definitely not elegant. There is a lot of boiler plate going on just to set up a default value for a missing request parameter. Can anyone suggest a cleaner and more coincise solution?

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  • Cannot add an entity that already exists.

    - by mazhar
    Code: public ActionResult Create(Group group) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { group.int_CreatedBy = 1; group.dtm_CreatedDate = DateTime.Now; var Groups = Request["Groups"]; int GroupId = 0; GroupFeature GroupFeature=new GroupFeature(); foreach (var GroupIdd in Groups) { // GroupId = int.Parse(GroupIdd.ToString()); } var Features = Request["Features"]; int FeatureId = 0; int t = 0; int ids=0; string[] Feature = Features.Split(',').ToArray(); //foreach (var FeatureIdd in Features) for(int i=0; i<Feature.Length; i++) { if (int.TryParse(Feature[i].ToString(), out ids)) { GroupFeature.int_GroupId = 35; GroupFeature.int_FeaturesId = ids; if (ids != 0) { GroupFeatureRepository.Add(GroupFeature); GroupFeatureRepository.Save(); } } } return RedirectToAction("Details", new { id = group.int_GroupId }); } return View(); } I am getting an error here Cannot add an entity that already exists. at this line GroupFeatureRepository.Add(GroupFeature); GroupFeatureRepository.Save();

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  • Use of RegularExpressionValidator in MS .Net Framework

    - by Lawk Salih
    Hi- I am trying to use the RegularExpressionValidator Control in Visual Studio to validate a textbox for email address expressions. Here's my code (very basic) Email:&nbsp; <input id="Text1" type="text" /><br /> <br /> <input id="Validate" type="button" value="Validate" runat="server" /><br /> <br /> <asp:RegularExpressionValidator ID="RegularExpressionValidator1" runat="server" ErrorMessage="RegularExpressionValidator" ControlToValidate="Validate" ValidationExpression="\w+([-+.']\w+)*@\w+([-.]\w+)*\.\w+([-.]\w+)*"></asp:RegularExpressionValidator> Now, when I set controlToValidate to Validate, I get the following error message: Server Error in '/' Application. Control 'Validate' referenced by the ControlToValidate property of 'RegularExpressionValidator1' cannot be validated. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Web.HttpException: Control 'Validate' referenced by the ControlToValidate property of 'RegularExpressionValidator1' cannot be validated. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [HttpException (0x80004005): Control 'Validate' referenced by the ControlToValidate property of 'RegularExpressionValidator1' cannot be validated.] System.Web.UI.WebControls.BaseValidator.CheckControlValidationProperty(String name, String propertyName) +8734357 System.Web.UI.WebControls.BaseValidator.ControlPropertiesValid() +40 System.Web.UI.WebControls.BaseValidator.get_PropertiesValid() +21 System.Web.UI.WebControls.BaseValidator.OnPreRender(EventArgs e) +27 System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() +80 System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() +171 System.Web.UI.Control.PreRenderRecursiveInternal() +171 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +842 Version Information: Microsoft .NET Framework Version:2.0.50727.3607; ASP.NET Version:2.0.50727.3082 I have tried the same mechanism before and have worked; however, this time I am on a new machine, WinXP Pro running IIS v5.1. Any direction would be appreciated.

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  • Apache mod_rewrite - forward domain root to subdirectory

    - by DuFace
    I have what I originally assumed to be a simple problem. I am using shared hosting for my website (so I don't have access to the Apache configuration) and have only been given a single folder to store all my content in. This is all well and good but it means that all my subdomains must have their virtual document root's inside public_html, meaning they effectively become a folder on my main domain. What I'd like to do is organise my public_html something like this: public_html/ www/ index.php ... sub1/ index.php ... some_library/ ... This way, all my web content is still in public_html but only a small fraction of it will be served to the client. I can easily achieve this for all the subdomains, but it's the primary domain that I'm having issues with. I created a .htaccess file in public_html with the following: Options +SymLinksIfOwnerMatch # I'm not allowed to use FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/www [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /www/$1 [L] This works fairly well, but for some strange reason www.example.com/stuff is translated into a request for www.example.com/www/stuff and hence a 404 error is given. It was my understanding that unless an 'R' flag was specified, mod_rewrite was purely internal so I can't understand why the request is generated as that implies (to me at least) redirection. I assumed this would be a trivial problem to solve as all I actually want to do is forward all requests for the root of www.example.com to a subdirectory, but I've spent hours searching for answers and none are quite correct. I find it difficult to believe I'm the only person to have this issue. I apologise if this question has been answered on here before, I did search and trawl but couldn't find an appropriate answer. Please could someone shed some light on this?

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  • NSData in CoreData is not saving properly

    - by abisson
    I am currently trying to store images I download from the web into an NSManagedObject class so that I don't have to redownload it every single time the application is opened. I currently have these two classes. Plant.h @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString * name; @property (nonatomic, retain) PlantPicture *picture; PlantPicture.h @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString * bucketName; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString * creationDate; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSData * pictureData; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString * slug; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString * urlWithBucket; Now I do the following: - (UICollectionViewCell *)collectionView:(UICollectionView *)collectionView cellForItemAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { PlantCollectionCell *cell = [collectionView dequeueReusableCellWithReuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier forIndexPath:indexPath]; Plant *plant = [self.fetchedResultsController objectAtIndexPath:indexPath]; cell.plantLabel.text = plant.name; if(plant.picture.pictureData == nil) { NSLog(@"Downloading"); NSMutableString *pictureUrl = [[NSMutableString alloc]initWithString:amazonS3BaseURL]; [pictureUrl appendString:plant.picture.urlWithBucket]; NSURLRequest *request = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:[NSURL URLWithString:pictureUrl]]; AFImageRequestOperation *imageOperation = [AFImageRequestOperation imageRequestOperationWithRequest:request success:^(UIImage *image) { cell.plantImageView.image = image; plant.picture.pictureData = [[NSData alloc]initWithData:UIImageJPEGRepresentation(image, 1.0)]; NSError *error = nil; if (![_managedObjectContext save:&error]) { NSLog(@"Unresolved error %@, %@", error, [error userInfo]); } }]; [imageOperation start]; } else { NSLog(@"Already"); cell.plantImageView.image = [UIImage imageWithData:plant.picture.pictureData]; } NSLog(@"%@", plant.name); return cell; } The plant information is present, as well as the picture object. However, the NSData itself is NEVER saved throughout the application opening and closing. I always have to REDOWNLOAD the image! Any ideas!? [Very new to CoreData... sorry if it is easy!] thanks!

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  • Lightweight HTTP application/server for static content

    - by PartlyCloudy
    Hi, I am in need of a scalable and performant HTTP application/server that will be used for static file serving/uploading. So I only need support for GET and PUT operations. However, there are a few extra features that I need: Custom authentication: I need to check credentials against a database for each request. Thus I must be able to integrate propietary database interaction. Support for signed access keys: The access to resources via PUT should be signed using a key like http://uri/?key=foo The key then contains information about the request like md5(user + path + secret) which allows me to block unwanted requests. The application/server should allow me to check for this. Performance: I'd like to avoid piping content as much as possible. Otherwise the whole application could be implemented in Perl/etc. in a few lines as CGI. Perlbal (in webserver mode) looks nice, however the single-threaded model does not fit with my database lookup and it does also not support query strings. Lighttp/Nginx/… have some modules for these tasks, however it is not feasible putting everything together without ending up writing own extensions/modules. So how would you solve this? Are there other leightweight webservers available for this? Should I implement an application inside of a webserver (i.e. CGI). How can I avoid/speed up piping content between the webserver and my application. Thanks in advance!

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  • Java, LDAP: Make it not ignore blank passwords?

    - by Steve
    I'm maintaining some legacy Java LDAP code. I know next to nothing about LDAP. The program below basically just sends the userid and password to the LDAP server, receives notification back if the credentials are good. If so, it prints out the LDAP attributes received from the LDAP server, if not it prints out an exception. All works well if a bad password is given. An "invalid credentials" exception gets thrown. However, if a blank password is sent to the LDAP Server, authentication will still happen, LDAP attributes will still be returned. Is this unhappy situation due to the LDAP server allowing blank passwords, or does the code below need to be adjusted such a blank password will get fed to the LDAP server in such a way so it will get rejected? I do have data validation in place. I took it off in a testing environment to solve another issue and noticed this problem. I would prefer not to have this problem underneath the data validation. Thanks much in advance for any information import javax.naming.*; import javax.naming.directory.*; import java.util.*; import java.sql.*; public class LDAPTEST { public static void main(String args[]) { String lcf = "com.sun.jndi.ldap.LdapCtxFactory"; String ldapurl = "ldaps://ldap-cit.smew.acme.com:636/o=acme.com"; String loginid = "George.Jetson"; String password = ""; DirContext ctx = null; Hashtable env = new Hashtable(); Attributes attr = null; Attributes resultsAttrs = null; SearchResult result = null; NamingEnumeration results = null; int iResults = 0; int iAttributes = 0; env.put(Context.INITIAL_CONTEXT_FACTORY, lcf); env.put(Context.PROVIDER_URL, ldapurl); env.put(Context.SECURITY_PROTOCOL, "ssl"); env.put(Context.SECURITY_AUTHENTICATION, "simple"); env.put(Context.SECURITY_PRINCIPAL, "uid=" + loginid + ",ou=People,o=acme.com"); env.put(Context.SECURITY_CREDENTIALS, password); try { ctx = new InitialDirContext(env); attr = new BasicAttributes(true); attr.put(new BasicAttribute("uid",loginid)); results = ctx.search("ou=People",attr); while (results.hasMore()) { result = (SearchResult)results.next(); resultsAttrs = result.getAttributes(); for (NamingEnumeration enumAttributes = resultsAttrs.getAll(); enumAttributes.hasMore();) { Attribute a = (Attribute)enumAttributes.next(); System.out.println("attribute: " + a.getID() + " : " + a.get().toString()); iAttributes++; }// end for loop iResults++; }// end while loop System.out.println("Records == " + iResults + " Attributes: " + iAttributes); }// end try catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } }// end function main() }// end class LDAPTEST

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  • Saving tags into a database table in CakePHP

    - by Cameron
    I have the following setup for my CakePHP app: Posts id title content Topics id title Topic_Posts id topic_id post_id So basically I have a table of Topics (tags) that are all unique and have an id. And then they can be attached to post using the Topic_Posts join table. When a user creates a new post they will fill in the topics by typing them in to a textarea separated by a comma which will then save these into the Topics table if they do not already exist and then save the references into the Topic_posts table. I have the models set up like so: Post model: class Post extends AppModel { public $name = 'Post'; public $hasAndBelongsToMany = array( 'Topic' => array('with' => 'TopicPost') ); } Topic model: class Topic extends AppModel { public $hasMany = array( 'TopicPost' ); } TopicPost model: class TopicPost extends AppModel { public $belongsTo = array( 'Topic', 'Post' ); } And for the New post method I have this so far: public function add() { if ($this->request->is('post')) { //$this->Post->create(); if ($this->Post->saveAll($this->request->data)) { // Redirect the user to the newly created post (pass the slug for performance) $this->redirect(array('controller'=>'posts','action'=>'view','id'=>$this->Post->id)); } else { $this->Session->setFlash('Server broke!'); } } } As you can see I have used saveAll but how do I go about dealing with the Topic data?

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