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  • Winsock tcp/ip Socket listening but connection refused, race condition?

    - by Wayne
    Hello folks. This involves two automated unit tests which each start up a tcp/ip server that creates a non-blocking socket then bind()s and listen()s in a loop on select() for a client that connects and downloads some data. The catch is that they work perfectly when run separately but when run as a test suite, the second test client will fail to connect with WSACONNREFUSED... UNLESS there is a Thread.Sleep() of several seconds between them??!!! Interestingly, there is retry loop every 1 second for connecting after any failure. So the second test loops for a while until timeout after 10 minutes. During that time, netstat -na shows the correct port number is in the LISTEN state for the server socket. So if it is in the listen state? Why won't it accept the connection? In the code, there are log messages that show the select NEVER even gets a socket ready to read (which means ready to accept a connection when it applies to a listening socket). Obviously the problem must be related to some race condition between finishing one test which means close() and shutdown() on each end of the socket, and the start up of the next. This wouldn't be so bad if the retry logic allowed it to connect eventually after a couple of seconds. However it seems to get "gummed up" and won't even retry. However, for some strange reason the listening socket SAYS it's in the LISTEN state even through keeps refusing connections. So that means it's the Windoze O/S which is actually catching the SYN packet and returning a RST packet (which means "Connection Refused"). The only other time I ever saw this error was when the code had a problem that caused hundreds of sockets to get stuck in TIME_WAIT state. But that's not the case here. netstat shows only about a dozen sockets with only 1 or 2 in TIME_WAIT at any given moment. Please help.

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  • Have I taken a wrong path in programming by being excessively worried about code elegance and style?

    - by Ygam
    I am in a major stump right now. I am a BSIT graduate, but I only started actual programming less than a year ago. I observed that I have the following attitude in programming: I tend to be more of a purist, scorning unelegant approaches to solving problems using code I tend to look at anything in a large scale, planning everything before I start coding, either in simple flowcharts or complex UML charts I have a really strong impulse on refactoring my code, even if I miss deadlines or prolong development times I am obsessed with good directory structures, file naming conventions, class, method, and variable naming conventions I tend to always want to study something new, even, as I said, at the cost of missing deadlines I tend to see software development as something to engineer, to architect; that is, seeing how things relate to each other and how blocks of code can interact (I am a huge fan of loose coupling) i.e the OOP thinking I tend to combine OOP and procedural coding whenever I see fit I want my code to execute fast (thus the elegant approaches and refactoring) This bothers me because I see my colleagues doing much better the other way around (aside from the fact that they started programming since our first year in college). By the other way around I mean, they fire up coding, gets the job done much faster because they don't have to really look at how clean their codes are or how elegant their algorithms are, they don't bother with OOP however big their projects are, they mostly use web APIs, piece them together and voila! Working code! CLients are happy, they get paid fast, at the expense of a really unmaintainable or hard-to-read code that lacks structure and conventions, or slow executions of certain actions (which the common reasoning against would be that internet connections are much faster these days, hardware is more powerful). The excuse I often receive is clients don't care about how you write the code, but they do care about how long you deliver it. If it works then all is good. Now, did my "purist" approach to programming may have been the wrong way to start programming? Should I just dump these purist concepts and just code the hell up because I have seen it: clients don't really care how beautifully coded it is?

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  • FILE* issue PPU side code

    - by Cristina
    We are working on a homework on CELL programming for college and their feedback response to our questions is kinda slow, thought i can get some faster answers here. I have a PPU side code which tries to open a file passed down through char* argv[], however this doesn't work it cannot make the assignment of the pointer, i get a NULL. Now my first idea was that the file isn't in the correct directory and i copied in every possible and logical place, my second idea is that maybe the PPU wants this pointer in its LS area, but i can't deduce if that's the bug or not. So... My question is what am i doing wrong? I am working with a Fedora 7 SDK Cell, with Eclipse as an IDE. Maybe my argument setup is wrong tho he gets the name of the file correctly. Code on request: images_t *read_bin_data(char *name) { FILE *file; images_t *img; uint32_t *buffer; uint8_t buf; unsigned long fileLen; unsigned long i; //Open file file = (FILE*)malloc(sizeof(FILE)); file = fopen(name, "rb"); printf("[Debug]Opening file %s\n",name); if (!file) { fprintf(stderr, "Unable to open file %s", name); return NULL; } //....... } Main launch: int main(int argc,char* argv[]) { int i,img_width; int modif_this[4] __attribute__ ((aligned(16))) = {1,2,3,4}; images_t *faces, *nonfaces; spe_context_ptr_t ctxs[SPU_THREADS]; pthread_t threads[SPU_THREADS]; thread_arg_t arg[SPU_THREADS]; //intializare img_width img_width = atoi(argv[1]); printf("[Debug]Img size is %i\n",img_width); faces = read_bin_data(argv[3]); //....... } Thanks for the help.

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  • Website running JavaScript setInterval starts to fail after ~1day

    - by Martin Clemens Bloch
    I wish I could be more specific here, but unfortunately this might be hard. I basically hope this is some "well"-known timeout or setup issue. We have a website running an (JS/html - ASP.net project) website overview on a screen at a factory. This screen has no keyboard so it should keep refreshing the page forever - years perhaps (though 1 week might be okay). (It is used by factory workers to see incoming transports etc.) This all works perfectly; the site continuously updates itself and gets the new correct data. Then, sometimes, in the morning this "overview" screen has no data and the workers have to manually refresh the site using the simple refresh button or F5 - which fixes everything. I have tried a few things trying to reproduce the error myself including: Cutting the internet connection and MANY other ways of making it timeout (breakpoints, stopping services etc.). Setting the refresh time of setInterval to 100ms and letting the site run 3-5 minutes. (normal timer is 1 minute) setInterval SHOULD run forever according to the internet searching I have done. Checked that "JavaScript frequency" has not been turned down in power saving settings. No matter what; the site resumes correct function WITHOUT a refresh as soon as I plug in the internet cable or whatever again - I can't reproduce the error. The website is dependent on a backend WCF service and project integration, but since the workers are fixing this with a simple refresh I am assuming this has not crashed. EDIT: The browser I tried to reproduce the error in was IE/win7. I will ask about the factory tomorrow, but I am guessing IE/win? also. Is setInterval in fact really infinite or is there something else wrong here? All help much appreciated. 0.5 bitcoin reward for solving answer ;)

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  • Is this an example for parametric polymorphism?

    - by mrt181
    Hi i am educating myself oop principles. I would like to know if this is a correct example of Cardellis definition of parametric polymorphism. Please enlighten me. The example is in cfml's script based syntax. <cfcomponent> <cfscript> public numeric function getlength(any arg, string type){ switch (arguments.type){ case "array": return arraylen(arguments.arg); break; case "struct": return structcount(arguments.arg); break; case "string": return len(arguments.arg); break; case "numeric": return len(arguments.arg); break; case "object": // gets the number of parent classes, substracting the railo base class return -1 + arraylen(structfindkey(getmetadata(arguments.arg),"extends","all")); break; default: // throw was added to railo as a user defined function to use it in cfscript throw("InvalidTypeArgument","The provided type argument is invalid for method getlength"); } } </cfscript> </cfcomponent>

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  • jQuery - how to repeat a function within itself to include nested files

    - by brandonjp
    I'm not sure what to call this question, since it involves a variety of things, but we'll start with the first issue... I've been trying to write a simple to use jQuery for includes (similar to php or ssi) on static html sites. Whenever it finds div.jqinclude it gets attr('title') (which is my external html file), then uses load() to include the external html file. Afterwards it changes the class of the div to jqincluded So my main index.html might contain several lines like so: <div class="jqinclude" title="menu.html"></div> However, within menu.html there might be other includes nested. So it needs to make the first level of includes, then perform the same action on the newly included content. So far it works fine, but it's very verbose and only goes a couple levels deep. How would I make the following repeated function to continually loop until no more class="jqinclude" elements are left on the page? I've tried arguments.callee and some other convoluted wacky attempts to no avail. I'm also interested to know if there's another completely different way I should be doing this. $('div.jqinclude').each(function() { // begin repeat here var file = $(this).attr('title'); $(this).load(file, function() { $(this).removeClass('jqinclude').addClass('jqincluded'); $(this).find('div.jqinclude').each(function() { // end repeat here var file = $(this).attr('title'); $(this).load(file, function() { $(this).removeClass('jqinclude').addClass('jqincluded'); $(this).find('div.jqinclude').each(function() { var file = $(this).attr('title'); $(this).load(file, function() { $(this).removeClass('jqinclude').addClass('jqincluded'); }); }); }); }); }); });

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  • [iPhone] UIScrollView notifications

    - by ryyst
    Hi, I'm coding an app that works much like Apple's Weather.app: There's a UIPageControl at the bottom and a UIScrollView in the middle of the screen. In my code, I implemented the - (void)scrollViewDidEndDecelerating:(UIScrollView *)scrollView method to figure out when the user did move to a new page. If they move to a new page, I load the adjacent pages' data, as to make further page-switching faster. (In one of Apple's examples, the - (void)scrollViewDidScroll:(UIScrollView *)sender is used, but that causes my app to shortly hang when loading a new page, so it's not suitable.) That code works very well. I'm using scrollRectToVisible:: to programmatically scroll inside the scrollview when the user clicks the UIPageControl. The problem is that the scrollRectToVisible: doesn't post a notification to the UIScrollViewDelegate when it's done scrolling - so the code responsible for loading adjacent pages never get's called when using the UIPageControl. Is there any way to make the UIScrollView notify its delegate when it gets called by the scrollRectToVisible: method? Or will I have to use threads in order to prevent my app from freezing? Thanks! -- Ry

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  • Refreshing Facebook session from an iframe application

    - by zombat
    I've got a Facebook iframe application that is completely external. By this I mean that once a user accesses the canvas URL to load the application, all the links in the iframe app go to my servers, and the canvas page never gets refreshed unless the user navigates to somewhere else on Facebook and comes back (or does a browser refresh). On the initial load of the app where Facebook creates the iframe, I get passed all the usual parameters like fb_sig_user which allows me to create an internal app session based on the facebook user. This app session (which is not the Facebook session, it's my own app session) is all I need to allow the user to work with the app. The problem comes an hour later. If the user leaves the computer, or uses the app for more than an hour, the Facebook session expires. There are some app pages which require fetching friend information, and once the FB session has expired, these pages break, throwing out errors such as "Error: Session key invalid or no longer valid". My question is whether there is a way to refresh the user's Facebook session from within an iframe application to keep it from expiring an hour later. Do any of the API calls do this? Is there a Facebook Connect trick to ping something? Is there any definitive method to keep it alive? I haven't been able to find any examples that specifically address this.

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  • Java assignment issues - Is this atomic?

    - by Bob
    Hi, I've got some questions about Java's assigment. Strings I've got a class: public class Test { private String s; public synchronized void setS(String str){ s = s + " - " + str; } public String getS(){ return s; } } I'm using "synchronized" in my setter, and avoiding it in my getter, because in my app, there are a tons of data gettings, and very few settings. Settings must be synchronized to avoid inconsistency. My question is: is getting and setting a variable atomic? I mean, in a multithreaded environment, Thread1 is about to set variable s, while Thread2 is about to get "s". Is there any way the getter method could get something different than the s's old value or the s's new value (suppose we've got only two threads)? In my app it is not a problem to get the new value, and it is not a problem to get the old one. But could I get something else? What about HashMap's getting and putting? considering this: public class Test { private Map<Integer, String> map = Collections.synchronizedMap(new HashMap<Integer, String>()); public synchronized void setMapElement(Integer key, String value){ map.put(key, value); } public String getValue(Integer key){ return map.get(key); } } Is putting and getting atomic? How does HashMap handle putting an element into it? Does it first remove the old value and put the now one? Could I get other than the old value or the new value? Thanks in advance!

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  • Regexp that matches user-agents of end-user browsers but NOT crawlers with >90 % accuracy

    - by knorv
    I'm trying to construct a regexp that will evaluate to true for User-Agent:s of "browsers navigated by humans", but false for bots. Needless to say the matching will not be exact, but if it gets things right in say 90 % of cases that is more than good enough. My approach so far is to target the User-Agent string of the the five major desktop browsers (MSIE, Firefox, Chrome, Safari, Opera). Specifically I want the regexp NOT to match if the user-agent is a bot (Googlebot, msnbot, etc.). Currently I'm using the following regexp which appears to achieve the desired precision: ^(Mozilla.*(Gecko|KHTML|MSIE|Presto|Trident)|Opera).*$ I've observed small number of false negatives which are mostly mobile browsers. The exceptions all match: (BlackBerry|HTC|LG|MOT|Nokia|NOKIAN|PLAYSTATION|PSP|SAMSUNG|SonyEricsson) My question is: Given the desired accuracy level, how would you improve the regexp? Can you think of any major false positives or false negatives to the given regexp? Please note that the question is specifically about regexp-based User-Agent matching. There are a bunch of other approaches to solving this problem, but those are out of the scope of this question.

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  • Webbrowser locks first Excel Instance

    - by figus
    VB.NET 2008 - WinForms Hi Everyone! I've been looking for an answer to my problem but I only find more questions related to my problem... The thing is that I'm using a AxWebBrowser control in VB.NET 2008 to open a excel file in a WindowsForm, it opens succesfully and everything... but the problem is this: If I had a Excel File Open before opening another Excel File in my WebBrowser Control, the window that contains the file that was already open gets locked... (I can't give focus to that Excel window... If I click on it, the focus returns to my application) I tried creating a new excel instance with CreateObject("Excel.Application") just before loading the file, but the WebBrowser locks the first Excel Instance... Is there a way to lock it to the last instance??? I use the WebBrowser1.Navigate(Url) method to load the file... where Url is a String like C:\myExcelFile.xlsm WebBrowser1.Document.Application.UserControl is also True, but it get's locked. Any Suggestion?? Thanks in Advance!!!

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  • Problem with UserControl with custom Dependency Property

    - by Mathias Koch
    Hi, I'm writing a user control with a dependency property for a search text called SearchText. It is a dependency property because I want to allow consumers of the control to use data binding. The user control contains a WPF TextBox where the user can enter the search text. I could use data binding to connect the SearchText dependency property of the user control with the Text dependency property of the TextBox, but this binding only fires when the text box looses input focus. What I want is SearchText to be updated after every change of Text. So I have added a TextChanged event handler to the user control where I set SearchText to the value of Text. My Problem is, the SearchText binding doesn't work, the source never gets updated. What am I doing wrong? Here's the relevant part of the user controls code-behind: public partial class UserControlSearchTextBox : UserControl { public string SearchText { get { return (string)GetValue(SearchTextProperty); } set { SetValue(SearchTextProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty SearchTextProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("SearchText", typeof(string), typeof(UserControlSearchTextBox), new UIPropertyMetadata("")); private void TextBox_TextChanged(object sender, TextChangedEventArgs e) { SearchText = ((TextBox)sender).Text; } ... } The window that contains an instance of the user control has its DataContext set to an object that has a property also called SearchText. <uc:UserControlSearchTextBox SearchText="{Binding SearchText}" /> The data context of the Window: public class DataSourceUserManual : DataSourceBase { private string _searchText; public string SearchText { get { return _searchText; } set { _searchText = value; ... OnPropertyChanged("SearchText"); } } } Unfortunately, this setter is not called when I type into the text box. Any ideas?

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  • Zend_Form using subforms getValues() problem

    - by wiseguydigital
    Hi all, I am building a form in Zend Framework 1.9 using subforms as well as Zend_JQuery being enabled on those forms. The form itself is fine and all the error checking etc is working as normal. But the issue I am having is that when I'm trying to retrieve the values in my controller, I'm receiving just the form entry for the last subform e.g. My master form class (abbreviated for speed): Master_Form extends Zend_Form { public function init() { ZendX_JQuery::enableForm($this); $this->setAction('actioninhere') ... ->setAttrib('id', 'mainForm') $sub_one = new Form_One(); $sub_one->setDecorators(... in here I add the jQuery as per the docs); $this->addSubForm($sub_one, 'form-one'); $sub_two = new Form_Two(); $sub_two->setDecorators(... in here I add the jQuery as per the docs); $this->addSubForm($sub_two, 'form-two'); } } So that all works as it should in the display and when I submit without filling in the required values, the correct errors are returned. However, in my controller I have this: class My_Controller extends Zend_Controller_Action { public function createAction() { $request = $this->getRequest(); $form = new Master_Form(); if ($request->isPost()) { if ($form->isValid($request->getPost()) { // This is where I am having the problems print_r($form->getValues()); } } } } When I submit this and it gets past isValid(), the $form-getValues() is only returning the elements from the second subform, not the entire form.

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  • Node-webkit works on Mac, crashes and can't load module on Windows

    - by user756201
    I've created a full node-webkit app that works fine on the Mac OSX version of node-webkit. Everything works, it loads a key external nodeJS module (marked), and the world is good. However, when I try to run the app on the Windows version of Node-webkit as described in the Wiki, the app crashes immediately (in fact, it crashes immediately when I try all the options: dragging a folder onto nw.exe, dragging an app.nw compressed folder, and running both from the command line). The only thing that gets me closer is opening nw.exe and then pointing the node-webkit location bar to the index file. Then I get this error: Uncaught node.js Error Error: Cannot find module 'marked' I tried commenting out the code that requires marked: var marked = require('marked'); That returns the app to crashing immediately. I assumed it was because of context issues between node.js and the node-webkit browser, but those seem to not be at fault since I tried this suggestion to make sure it finds the correct file for the marked module...went right back to immediate crashing. I'm out of ideas because the crashes don't seem to leave me any way of knowing what the error was.

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  • how to reapply knockout binding

    - by MikeW
    Currently I have a knockout binding that stripes rows in a list which works fine ko.bindingHandlers.stripe = { update: function (element, valueAccessor, allBindingsAccessor) { var value = ko.utils.unwrapObservable(valueAccessor()); //creates the dependency var allBindings = allBindingsAccessor(); var even = allBindings.evenClass; var odd = allBindings.oddClass; //update odd rows $(element).children(":nth-child(odd)").addClass(odd).removeClass(even); //update even rows $(element).children(":nth-child(even)").addClass(even).removeClass(odd); ; } } Triggered from <button data-bind="click: addWidget" style="display:none">Add Item</button> The problem I have is when reloading data from the server , I call addWidget() manually in the view model the stripe binding handler is not applied - all rows appear as same color, if I click the html button then the binding happens and stripes appear var ViewModel = function() { self.addWidget(); }); Is it possible to reapply this custom binding manually in js? Thanks Edit: The stripe binding gets applied like so <div data-bind="foreach: widgets, stripe: widgets, evenClass: 'light', oddClass: 'dark'">

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  • What is jasper report's algorithm for using a data source?

    - by spderosso
    Hi, I have created my custom data source by implementing the interface JRDataSource. This interface looks like this: public interface JRDataSource { /** * Tries to position the cursor on the next element in the data source. * @return true if there is a next record, false otherwise * @throws JRException if any error occurs while trying to move to the next element */ public boolean next() throws JRException; /** * Gets the field value for the current position. * @return an object containing the field value. The object type must be the field object type. */ public Object getFieldValue(JRField jrField) throws JRException; } My question is the following: In what way does jasper report call this functions for obtaining the fields in the .jrxml. E.g: if( next() )){ call getFieldValue for every field present in the page header while( next() ){ call getFieldValue for every field present in detail part } call getFieldValue for every field present the footer } The previous is just an example, experimentally in fact I found out that it is actually not like that. So my question arised. Thanks!

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  • Distributed Message Ordering

    - by sbanwart
    I have an architectural question on handling message ordering. For purposes of this question, the transport is irrelevant, so I'm not going to specify one. Say we have three systems, a website, a CRM and an ERP. For this example, the ERP will be the "master" system in terms of data ownership. The website and the CRM can both send a new customer message to the ERP system. The ERP system then adds a customer and publishes the customer with the newly assigned account number so that the website and CRM can add the account number to their local customer records. This is a pretty straight forward process. Next we move on to placing orders. The account number is required in order for the CRM or website to place an order with the ERP system. However the CRM will permit the user to place an order even if the customer lacks an account number. (For this example assume we can't modify the CRM behavior) This creates the possibility that a user could create a new customer, and place an order before the account number gets updated in the CRM. What is the best way to handle this scenario? Would it be best to send the order message sans account number and let it go to an error queue? Would it be better to have the CRM endpoint hold the message and wait until the account number is updated in the CRM? Maybe something completely different that I haven't thought of? Thanks in advance for any help.

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  • Android: changing drawable states of option menu items seems to have side-effects

    - by pjv
    In my onCreateOptionsMenu() I have basically the following: public boolean onCreateOptionsMenu(Menu menu) { menu.add(Menu.NONE, MENU_ITEM_INSERT, Menu.NONE, R.string.item_menu_insert).setShortcut('3', 'a').setIcon(android.R.drawable.ic_menu_add); PackageManager pm = getPackageManager(); if(pm.hasSystemFeature(PackageManager.FEATURE_CAMERA) && pm.hasSystemFeature(PackageManager.FEATURE_CAMERA_AUTOFOCUS)){ menu.add(Menu.NONE, MENU_ITEM_SCAN_ADD, Menu.NONE, ((Collectionista.DEBUG)?"DEBUG Scan and add item":getString(R.string.item_menu_scan_add))).setShortcut('4', 'a').setIcon(android.R.drawable.ic_menu_add); } ... } And in onPrepareOptionsMenu among others the following: final boolean scanAvailable = ScanIntent.isInstalled(this); final MusicCDItemScanAddTask task = new MusicCDItemScanAddTask(this); menu.findItem(MENU_ITEM_SCAN_ADD).setEnabled(scanAvailable && (tasks == null || !existsTask(task))); As you see, two options items have the same drawable set (android.R.drawable.ic_menu_add). Now, if in onPrepareOptionsMenu the second menu item gets disabled, its label and icon become gray, but also the icon of the first menu item becomes gray, while the label of that fist menu item stays black and it remains clickable. What is causing this crosstalk between the two icons/drawables? Shouldn't the system handle things like mutate() in this case? I've included a screenshot:

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  • How to create custom omniauth provider (how to return data)

    - by user2803917
    I searched all around the net, how to create a custom provider for omniauth.. and i succedded partly.. I created a gem, and it worked perfectly, except the part, that i cant understand how to return the gathered data to sessions controller, like other providers do.. here is the code in auth gem: require 'multi_json' require 'digest/md5' require 'rest-client' module OmniAuth module Strategies class Providername < OmniAuth::Strategies::OAuth attr_accessor :app_id, :api_key, :auth def initialize(app, app_id = nil, api_key = nil, options = {}) super(app, :providername) @app_id = app_id @api_key = api_key end protected def request_phase redirect "http://valid_url" end def callback_phase if request.params['code'] && request.params['status'] == 'ok' response = RestClient.get("http://valid_url2/?code=#{request.params['auth_code']}") auth = MultiJson.decode(response.to_s) unless auth['error'] @auth_data = auth if @auth_data @return_data = OmniAuth::Utils.deep_merge(super, { 'uid' => @auth_data['uid'], 'nickname' => @auth_data['nick'], 'user_info' => { 'first_name' => @auth_data['name'], 'last_name' => @auth_data['surname'], 'location' => @auth_data['place'], }, 'credentials' => { 'apikey' => @auth_data['apikey'] }, 'extra' => {'user_hash' => @auth_data} }) end end else fail!(:invalid_request) end rescue Exception => e fail!(:invalid_response, e) end end end end and here i call it in my initializers: Rails.application.config.middleware.use OmniAuth::Builder do provider "providername", Settings.providers.providername.app_id, Settings.providers.providername.app_secret end in this code, everything works fine so far, the provider gets called, i get the info from provider, i create a hash (@auth_data) with info, but how do i return it

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  • Dumping an ADODB recordset to XML, then back to a recordset, then saving to the db

    - by Mark Biek
    I've created an XML file using the .Save() method of an ADODB recordset in the following manner. dim res dim objXML: Set objXML = Server.CreateObject("MSXML2.DOMDocument") 'This returns an ADODB recordset set res = ExecuteReader("SELECT * from some_table) With res Call .Save(objXML, 1) Call .Close() End With Set res = nothing Let's assume that the XML generated above then gets saved to a file. I'm able to read the XML back into a recordset like this: dim res : set res = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.recordset") res.open server.mappath("/admin/tbl_some_table.xml") And I can loop over the records without any problem. However what I really want to do is save all of the data in res to a table in a completely different database. We can assume that some_table already exists in this other database and has the exact same structure as the table I originally queried to make the XML. I started by creating a new recordset and using AddNew to add all of the rows from res to the new recordset dim outRes : set outRes = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.recordset") dim outConn : set outConn = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") dim testConnStr : testConnStr = "DRIVER={SQL Server};SERVER=dev-windows\sql2000;UID=myuser;PWD=mypass;DATABASE=Testing" outConn.open testConnStr outRes.activeconnection = outConn outRes.cursortype = adOpenDynamic outRes.locktype = adLockOptimistic outRes.source = "product_accessories" outRes.open while not res.eof outRes.addnew for i=0 to res.fields.count-1 outRes(res.fields(i).name) = res(res.fields(i).name) next outRes.movefirst res.movenext wend outRes.updatebatch But this bombs the first time I try to assign the value from res to outRes. Microsoft OLE DB Provider for ODBC Drivers error '80040e21' Multiple-step OLE DB operation generated errors. Check each OLE DB status value, if available. No work was done. Can someone tell me what I'm doing wrong or suggest a better way for me to copy the data loaded from XML to a different database?

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  • iPhone application update (using Core Data on Sqlite)

    - by owen
    I have an app which is using Core Data on Sqlite, Now I have a update which has some DB structure changes say adding a new table I know when an app get updated, it updates the app binary only, nothing on document directory will be changed. When the app gets updated and launchs at the first time and run [[NSPersistentStoreCoordinator alloc] initWithManagedObjectModel:[self managedObjectModel]]; It will find the difference between the data model and DB structure in Sqlite and will throw an exception and quit. Error: "The model used to open the store is incompatible with the one used to create the store" So, can anyone here give me some idea how to update an app when there is a DB structure change? I think we can run a DB script to create that new table when it launchs the update at the first time. But if there are other changes like changing the type of some fields or deleting some fields, and we need to migrate the old data, this is really a headache. In this case, Is the only way to do is creating a new app? Is there anyone tried something similar like this?

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  • Combining cache methods - memcache/disk based

    - by Industrial
    Hi! Here's the deal. We would have taken the complete static html road to solve performance issues, but since the site will be partially dynamic, this won't work out for us. What we have thought of instead is using memcache + eAccelerator to speed up PHP and take care of caching for the most used data. Here's our two approaches that we have thought of right now: Using memcache on all<< major queries and leaving it alone to do what it does best. Usinc memcache for most commonly retrieved data, and combining with a standard harddrive-stored cache for further usage. The major advantage of only using memcache is of course the performance, but as users increases, the memory usage gets heavy. Combining the two sounds like a more natural approach to us, even though the theoretical compromize in performance. Memcached appears to have some replication features available as well, which may come handy when it's time to increase the nodes. What approach should we use? - Is it stupid to compromize and combine the two methods? Should we insted be focusing on utilizing memcache and instead focusing on upgrading the memory as the load increases with the number of users? Thanks a lot!

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  • Programmatically change an EditorGrid's cell value

    - by Snowright
    Hi, I have an Editor Grid where if a specific cell is in focus (is being edited), a window containing a tree panel pops up allowing the user to choose a node from the treepanel as the new value of the cell. This way, the user isn't actually editing the cell in question, but is using the window to choose the new value. However, I am having difficulties setting the value of the cell in question programmatically. Below is the code I use to set the grid up, including the column model that chooses what editor to use for a cell depending on the value type: var editorCM = new Ext.grid.ColumnModel({ //config ,editors : { //rest of editors 'id' : new Ext.grid.GridEditor(new Ext.form.TextField({readOnly : true})) } ,getCellEditor : function(col, row) { //choose editor depending on the type value of a cell } }) var editorGrid = new Ext.grid.EditorGridPanel({ //rest of config ,cm : editorCM }) Below is my code to change the cell's value once the user chooses from the treepanel. function submitNode(newValue) { var temp = editorGrid.GetSelectionModel().getSelectedCell(); //returns array containing column and row position of selected cell, which value we want to change. //temp[1] = column index, temp[0] = row index //Gets the cell editor at specific position and sets new value for that cell editorGrid.getColumnModel().getCellEditor(temp[1], temp[0]).setValue(newValue); } I've also tried a few other ways (all including setValue(newValue)), but have come up empty handed. I've looked through the API and the ExtJS forums for any clue but have also come up empty handed.

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  • What's your preferred pointer declaration style, and why?

    - by Owen
    I know this is about as bad as it gets for "religious" issues, as Jeff calls them. But I want to know why the people who disagree with me on this do so, and hear their justification for their horrific style. I googled for a while and couldn't find a style guide talking about this. So here's how I feel pointers (and references) should be declared: int* pointer = NULL; int& ref = *pointer; int*& pointer_ref = pointer; The asterisk or ampersand goes with the type, because it modifies the type of the variable being declared. EDIT: I hate to keep repeating the word, but when I say it modifies the type I'm speaking semantically. "int* something;" would translate into English as something like "I declare something, which is a pointer to an integer." The "pointer" goes along with the "integer" much more so than it does with the "something." In contrast, the other uses of the ampersand and asterisk, as address-of and dereferencing operators, act on a variable. Here are the other two styles (maybe there are more but I really hope not): int *ugly_but_common; int * uglier_but_fortunately_less_common; Why? Really, why? I can never think of a case where the second is appropriate, and the first only suitable perhaps with something like: int *hag, *beast; But come now... multiple variable declarations on one line is kind of ugly form in itself already.

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  • How to make Web Storage persistent in Cordova using JS?

    - by ett
    I have a small quiz app, which is a cross-platform mobile app, that I plan for it to run on Android, iOS, and WP8. I want to store a local highscore, where it will keep track how many points the user had, and if he/she does better than the already stored highscore, update the current highscore. Though, I want the highscore to be persistent, what I mean is, every time the user opens the app I want the last highscore to be present and it to be compared with the new quiz score. Meaning, I don't want the highscore to be deleted after each time the app is closed. I also want for the first time when the app is ran, the highscore to be set to 0, so obviously the first time the user finishes the quiz gets a new highscore. I have those codes so far: scoredb.js // Wait for device API libraries to load document.addEventListener("deviceready", initScoreDB, false); // Device APIs are available function initScoreDB() { window.localStorage.setItem("score", 0); highscore = window.localStorage.getItem("score"); } main.js var correct = 0; var highscore; // In between I have some code that keeps incrementing // correct variable for each correct answer. if (correct > highscore) { window.localStorage.setItem("score", correct); highscore = correct; } It does seem to work okay once the app is started. I did the quiz three times, in the simulator, and it keeps the score as it should. Though, each time I open the app, highscore is reseted to 0. I guess it is due to the fact that I call initScoreDB when the device is ready, and I initialize the score to 0 there and give that value to highscore. Can someone help me to initialize the score to 0 only when the app is ran for the first time, and all the other times to keep the latest highscore as the current highscore and compare it each time with the score that is achieved when the quiz is finished. If someone can help me, I would be glad.

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