Search Results

Search found 11954 results on 479 pages for 'gets'.

Page 365/479 | < Previous Page | 361 362 363 364 365 366 367 368 369 370 371 372  | Next Page >

  • What are the most time consuming checks performed by .NET when executing a managed appplication?

    - by ltorje
    I've developed a .NET based Windows service that uses part managed (C#) and unmanaged code (C/C++ libraries). In some domain environments (e.g. Win 2k3 32bit server inside domain abc.com) sometimes the service takes more than 30 seconds to start (especially on OS restart), thus failing to start the service. I suspect that it has something to do with enterprise level security but I do not know for sure. http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa720255%28VS.71%29.aspx I've tried the following without success: - delay loading references by moving the using directives as far as possible from the servicebase implementation (especially the xml namespace - know to cause delays in loading) - delay loading and configuring log4net - precompiling the code by using ngen - delaying the start of the worker thread - add/remove manifest + decencies set inside - sign/unsign the binaries - use the configuration settings (there are a lot of settings and the scope level for all is set to application ) as later as possible - add all dependencies to GAC I didn't tried yet to add security demands for the class that has the Main method implemented. I didn't tries to implement my own configuration loader because after inspecting the autogenerated code, I've noticed that the setting class is a singletone and it gets its instance on call. By completely removing the log4net dependency it worked, but this is not an option. When the network card is disabled the service starts immediately. Any suggestions/comments/solution you have would be most welcomed.

    Read the article

  • Rapid calls to fread crashes the application

    - by Slynk
    I'm writing a function to load a wave file and, in the process, split the data into 2 separate buffers if it's stereo. The program gets to i = 18 and crashes during the left channel fread pass. (You can ignore the couts, they are just there for debugging.) Maybe I should load the file in one pass and use memmove to fill the buffers? if(params.channels == 2){ params.leftChannelData = new unsigned char[params.dataSize/2]; params.rightChannelData = new unsigned char[params.dataSize/2]; bool isLeft = true; int offset = 0; const int stride = sizeof(BYTE) * (params.bitsPerSample/8); for(int i = 0; i < params.dataSize; i += stride) { std::cout << "i = " << i << " "; if(isLeft){ std::cout << "Before Left Channel, "; fread(params.leftChannelData+offset, sizeof(BYTE), stride, file + i); std::cout << "After Left Channel, "; } else{ std::cout << "Before Right Channel, "; fread(params.rightChannelData+offset, sizeof(BYTE), stride, file + i); std::cout << "After Right Channel, "; offset += stride; std::cout << "After offset incr.\n"; } isLeft != isLeft; } } else { params.leftChannelData = new unsigned char[params.dataSize]; fread(params.leftChannelData, sizeof(BYTE), params.dataSize, file); }

    Read the article

  • Passing IDisposable objects through constructor chains

    - by Matt Enright
    I've got a small hierarchy of objects that in general gets constructed from data in a Stream, but for some particular subclasses, can be synthesized from a simpler argument list. In chaining the constructors from the subclasses, I'm running into an issue with ensuring the disposal of the synthesized stream that the base class constructor needs. Its not escaped me that the use of IDisposable objects this way is possibly just dirty pool (plz advise?) for reasons I've not considered, but, this issue aside, it seems fairly straightforward (and good encapsulation). Codes: abstract class Node { protected Node (Stream raw) { // calculate/generate some base class properties } } class FilesystemNode : Node { public FilesystemNode (FileStream fs) : base (fs) { // all good here; disposing of fs not our responsibility } } class CompositeNode : Node { public CompositeNode (IEnumerable some_stuff) : base (GenerateRaw (some_stuff)) { // rogue stream from GenerateRaw now loose in the wild! } static Stream GenerateRaw (IEnumerable some_stuff) { var content = new MemoryStream (); // molest elements of some_stuff into proper format, write to stream content.Seek (0, SeekOrigin.Begin); return content; } } I realize that not disposing of a MemoryStream is not exactly a world-stopping case of bad CLR citizenship, but it still gives me the heebie-jeebies (not to mention that I may not always be using a MemoryStream for other subtypes). It's not in scope, so I can't explicitly Dispose () it later in the constructor, and adding a using statement in GenerateRaw () is self-defeating since I need the stream returned. Is there a better way to do this? Preemptive strikes: yes, the properties calculated in the Node constructor should be part of the base class, and should not be calculated by (or accessible in) the subclasses I won't require that a stream be passed into CompositeNode (its format should be irrelevant to the caller) The previous iteration had the value calculation in the base class as a separate protected method, which I then just called at the end of each subtype constructor, moved the body of GenerateRaw () into a using statement in the body of the CompositeNode constructor. But the repetition of requiring that call for each constructor and not being able to guarantee that it be run for every subtype ever (a Node is not a Node, semantically, without these properties initialized) gave me heebie-jeebies far worse than the (potential) resource leak here does.

    Read the article

  • C Run-Time library part 2

    - by b-gen-jack-o-neill
    Hi, I was suggested when I have some further questions on my older ones, to create newer Question and reffer to old one. So, this is the original question: What is the C runtime library? OK, from your answers, I now get thet statically linked libraries are Microsoft implementation of C standart functions. Now: If I get it right, the scheme would be as follow: I want to use printf(), so I must include which just tels compiler there us functio printf() with these parameters. Now, when I compile code, becouse printf() is defined in C Standart Library, and becouse Microsoft decided to name it C Run Time library, it gets automatically statically linked from libcmt.lib (if libcmt.lib is set in compiler) at compile time. I ask, becouse on wikipedia, in article about runtime library there is that runtime library is linked in runtime, but .lib files are linked at compile time, am I right? Now, what confuses me. There is .dll version of C standart library. But I thought that to link .dll file, you must actually call winapi program to load that library. So, how can be these functions dynamically linked, if there is no static library to provide code to tell Windows to load desired functions from dll? And really last question on this subject - are C Standart library functions also calls to winapi even they are not .dll files like more advanced WinAPI functions? I mean, in the end to access framebuffer and print something you must tell Windows to do it, since OS cannot let you directly manipulate HW. I think of it like the OS must be written to support all C standart library functions same way across similiar versions, since they are statically linked, and can differently support more complex WinAPI calls becouse new version of OS can have adjustements in the .dll file.

    Read the article

  • Validation control issue

    - by Mael
    Hello, I have a multiview that simulates a menu with different kind of options. Each view within the multiview control holds a bunch of controls (listbox, label, etc..) Everything worked just fine, until i wanted to implement Validation control(s). For example when i click on my menu viewA gets displayed with its controls. There i wish to implement a RequiredFieldValidator. But the problem is, if i click on a other menu option (which is in fact a other view in my multiview) then it gives the error message 'Please enter a message" which is the errorMessage of the first RequiredFieldValidator of the first menu option (first view). All my controls are named with a unique name, so there is no mixup amongst the ControlToValidate="" Offcourse this is not suitable, cause those menu choices are indepentant. And its not the intention i have to fill in everything, cause its a menu afterall, and not a form where i have to enter everything at once. How can i have a RequiredFieldValidator on my views that do not take each other in account? Some code on how my active view is handled protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!IsPostBack) { View activeView = (View)this.mvMultiview.FindControl(this.getViewFromRequest()); if (!(activeView == null)) { this.mvMultiview.SetActiveView(activeView); } } } Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How do you save and retrieve a Key/IV pair securely?

    - by Shawn Steward
    I'm using VB.Net's RijndaelManaged (RM) to encrypt files, using the RM.GenerateKey and RM.GenerateIV methods to generate the Key and IV and encrypting the file using the CryptoStream class. I'm planning on saving this Key and IV to a file and want to make sure I'm doing it the right way. I am combining the IV+Key, and encrypting that with my RSA Public key and writing it out to a file. Then, to decrypt I use the RSA Private key on this file to get the IV+Key, split them up and set RM.Key and RM.IV to these values and run the decryptor. Is this the best method to accomplish this, or is there a preferred method for saving the IV & Key? Also, what's the best way to construct and deconstruct the byte array? I used the .Concat method to join them together and that seems to work well but I can't seem to find something as easy to deconstruct it. I played with the .Take method that takes the first x # of bytes and it works for the first part but can't find anything that gets the rest of it.

    Read the article

  • C# class design - expose variables for reading but not setting

    - by James Brauman
    I have a a polygon class which stores a list of Microsoft.Xna.Framework.Vector2 as the vertices of the polygon. Once the polygon is created, I'd like other classes to be able to read the position of the vertices, but not change them. I am currently exposing the vertices through this field: /// <summary> /// Gets the vertices stored for this polygon. /// </summary> public List<Vector2> Vertices { get { return _vertices; } } List<Vector2> _vertices; However you can change any vertex using code like: Polygon1.Vertices[0] = new Vector2(0, 0); or Polygon1.Vertices[0].X = 0; How can I limit other classes to be able to only read the properties of these vertices, and not be able to set a new one to my List? The only thing I can think of is to pass a copy to classes that request it. Note that Vector2 is a struct that is part of the XNA framework and I cannot change it. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Allow paste in worksheet without overwriting locked cells

    - by jjeaton
    I have a protected worksheet that users would like to copy and paste into. I have no control over the workbook they are copying from. The protected worksheet has some rows that are available for data entry, and other rows that are locked and greyed out to the user. The users would like to be able to paste over the top of the entire worksheet from another random workbook and have all the cells available for data entry filled in, while the locked cells are undisturbed. In the current state, the user gets an error when they try to paste, because it cannot paste over the locked cells. Example: Worksheet 1: Act1 100 100 100 Act2 100 100 100 Act3 100 100 100 Worksheet 2: (The second row is locked) Act1 300 300 300 Act2 200 200 200 Act3 100 100 100 After copying/pasting Worksheet 2 should look like this: Act1 100 100 100 Act2 200 200 200 Act3 100 100 100 The values from worksheet 1 are populated and the locked rows are undisturbed. I've been thinking along the lines of having a hook where on paste, the locked cells are unlocked so that the paste can happen, and then are reverted to their original values and relocked. Is there some way I can loop through the cells in the clipboard and only paste cells where the target isn't locked? It is preferable to not create a separate button for paste, so there is less impact on the users, but if that's the only way, I'm not opposed to it. Currently, I plan on grouping the locked rows together, so that the data entry cells are contiguous, but then the accounts will be out of order, which is not preferred.

    Read the article

  • SQL Server Express performance issue

    - by Developer IT
    Hi folks ! I know my questions will sound silly and probably nobody will have perfect answer but since I am in a complete dead-end with the situation it will make me feel better to post it here. So... I have a SQL Server Express database that's 500 Mb. It contains 5 tables and maybe 30 stored procedure. This database is use to store articles and is use for the Developer It web site. Normally the web pages load quickly, let's say 2 ou 3 sec. BUT, sqlserver process uses 100% of the processor for those 2 or 3 sec. I try to find which stored procedure was the problem and I could not find one. It seems like every read into the table dans contains the articles (there are about 155,000 of them and 20 or so gets added every 15 minutes). I added few index but without luck... It is because the table is full text indexed ? Should I have order with the primary key instead of date ? I never had any problems with ordering by dates.... Should I use dynamic SQL ? Should I add the primary key into the url of the articles ? Should I use mutiple indexes for seperate columns or one big index ? I you want more details or code bits, just ask for it. Basicly, every little hint is much apreciated. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • javascript equivalent of ASP preInit event

    - by Pankaj Kumar
    Hi guys, searching for this has yielded no resuts.. i have a middle page that has an iframe and all the pages open in that iframe...i have to implement a chat system just like in Google and so to ensure that the chat windows did not close whwn the page would postback i am opening all pages in iframe.... this is a social networking site and user can have themes which have background images per theme now when i visit a friends profile the backgrounf image of the middle page should change... i have this code to find parent of iframe and change background image $(document).ready(function(){ var theme=document.getElementById("ctl00_decideFooterH").value; var t= parent.document.getElementsByTagName("body"); if(theme=='basicTheme'){ t[0].className="basic"; } else if(theme=='Tranquility') { t[0].className="Tranquility"; } else if(theme=='AbstractPink') { t[0].className="abstractPink"; } }); and this code is the master page that all child pages that would open in iframe would access..the trouble is that there is a lag between the theme application on server side(which happens at PreInit) and the background image change which is done by this document.ready that gets executed after the iframe has loaded.. so essentially i need a javascript function that would either execute parallel to PreInit or some other logic....so guys plz help its urgent

    Read the article

  • Images in Applet not showing in web page

    - by Leanne C
    I am trying to display a JPEG image and a moving dot on a Java applet which I am using on a web based application. However, when I run the applet it works fine, but when I display the applet from the JSP page, I get the moving dot but not the JPEG image. Is there a specific folder where the JPEG needs to be? These are the 2 methods i use for drawing the picture and the moving dot on the screen. public class mapplet extends Applet implements Runnable { int x_pos = 10; int y_pos = 100; int radius = 20; Image img, img2; Graphics gr; URL base; MediaTracker m; @Override public void init() { mt = new MediaTracker(this); try { //getDocumentbase gets the applet path. base = getCodeBase(); img = getImage(base, "picture.jpg"); m.addImage(img, 1); m.waitForAll(); } catch (InterruptedException ex) { Logger.getLogger(movement.class.getName()).log(Level.SEVERE, null, ex); } public void paint (Graphics g) { g.drawImage(img, 0, 0, this); // set color g.setColor (Color.red); // paint a filled colored circle g.fillOval (x_pos - radius, y_pos - radius, 2 * radius, 2 * radius); } The code one below is the call from the jsp page <applet archive="mapplet.jar" code="myapplets/mapplet.class" width=350 height=200> </applet> The jar file and the picture are in the same folder as the jsp page, and there is also a folder containing the contents of the class and image of the applet in the web section of the application. The applet loads fine however the picture doesn't display. I think it's not the code but the location of the picture that is causing a problem. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Using Interface Builder efficiently

    - by Aaron Wetzler
    I am new to iPhone and objective c. I have spent hours and hours and hours reading documents and trying to understand how things work. I have RTFM or at least am in the process. My main problem is that I want to understand how to specify where an event gets passed to and the only way I have been able to do it is by specifying delegates but I am certain there is an easier/quicker way in IB. So, an example. Lets say I have 20 different views and view controllers and one MyAppDelegate. I want to be able to build all of these different Xib files in IB and add however many buttons and text fields and whatever and then specify that they all produce some event in the MyAppDelegate object. To do this I added a MyAppDelegate object in each view controller in IB's list view. Then I created an IBAction method in MyAppDelegate in XCode and went back to IB and linked all of the events to the MyAppDelegate object in each Xib file. However when I tried running it it just crashed with a bad read exception. My guess is that each Xib file is putting a MyAppDelegate object pointer that has nothing to do with the eventual MyAppDelegate adress that will actually be created at runtime. So my question is...how can I do this?!!!

    Read the article

  • Multiple Concurrent Postbacks when using UpdatePanels

    - by d4nt
    Here's an example app that I built to demonstrate my problem. A single aspx page with the following on it: <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:ScriptManager runat="server" /> <asp:Button runat="server" ID="btnGo" Text="Go" OnClick="btnGo_Click" /> <asp:UpdatePanel runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:TextBox runat="server" ID="txtVal1" /> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> </form> Then, in code behind, we have the following: protected void btnGo_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Thread.Sleep(5000); Debug.WriteLine(string.Format("{0}: {1}", DateTime.Now.ToString("HH:MM:ss.fffffff"), txtVal1.Text)); txtVal1.Text = ""; } If you run this and click on the "Go" button multiple times you will see multiple debug statements on the "Output" window showing that multiple requests have been processed. This appears to contradict the documented behaviour of update panels (i.e. If you make a request while one is processing, the first requests gets terminated and the current one is processed). Anyway, the point is I want to fix it. The obvious option would be to use Javascript to disable the button after the first press, but that strikes me as hard to maintain, we potentially have the same issue on a lot of screens it could be easily broken if someone renames a button. Do you have any suggestions? Perhaps there is something I could do in BeginRequest in Global.asax to detect a duplicate request? Is there some setting or feature on the UpdatePanel to stop it doing this, or maybe something in the AjaxControlToolkit that will prevent it?

    Read the article

  • How to take advantage of an auto-property when refactoring this .Net 1.1 sample?

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    I see a lot of legacy .Net 1.1-style code at work like in example below, which I would like to shrink with the help of an auto-property. This will help many classes shrink by 30-40%, which I think would be good. public int MyIntThingy { get { return _myIntThingy; } set { _myIntThingy = value; } } private int _myIntThingy = -1; This would become: public int MyIntThingy { get; set; } And the only question is - where do I set MyIntThingy = -1;? If I wrote the class from the start, then I would have a better idea, but I did not. An obvious answer would be: put it in the constructor. Trouble is: there are many constructors in this class. Watching the initialization to -1 in the debugger, I see it happen (I believe) before the constructor gets called. It is almost as if I need to use a static constructor as described here: http://www.c-sharpcorner.com/uploadfile/cupadhyay/staticconstructors11092005061428am/staticconstructors.aspx except that my variables are not static. Java's static initializer comes to mind, but again - my variables are not static. http://www.glenmccl.com/tip_003.htm I want to make stylistic but not functional changes to this class. As crappy as it is, it has been tested and working for a few years now. breaking the functionality would be bad. So ... I am looking for shorter, sweeter, cuter, and yet EQUIVALENT code. Let me know if you have questions.

    Read the article

  • Fiscal year, quarters, student table, and faculty table... How do I relate these?!

    - by yuudachi
    I have a student and faculty table. The primary key for student is studendID (SID) and faculty's primary key is facultyID, naturally. Student has an advisor column and a requested advisor column, which are foreign key to faculty. That's simple enough, right? However, now I have to throw in dates. I want to be able to view who their advisor was for a certain quarter (such as 2009 Winter) and who they had requested. The result will be a table like this: Year | Term | SID | Current | Requested ------------------------------------------------ 2009 | Winter | 860123456 | 1 | NULL 2009 | Winter | 860445566 | 3 | NULL 2009 | Winter | 860369147 | 5 | 1 And then if I feel like it, I could also go ahead and view a different year and a different term. I am not sure how these new table(s) will look like. Will there be a year table with three columns that are Fall, Spring and Winter? And what will the Fall, Spring, Winter table have? I am new to the art of tables, so this is baffling me... Also, I feel I should clarify how the site works so far now. Admin can approve student requests, and what happens is that the student's current advisor gets overwritten with their request. However, I think I should not do that anymore, right?

    Read the article

  • jquery google visual api graph's data rows does not work.

    - by marharépa
    Hi! I'd like to use google drawVisualization API. Example: var data = new google.visualization.DataTable(); data.addColumn('string'); data.addColumn('number'); data.addRows([ ['a', 14], ['b', 47], ['c', 80], ['d', 55], ['e', 16], ['f', 90], ['g', 29], ['h', 23], ['i', 58], ['j', 48] ]); My version gets elements by an other google api, and join them, and after place the variable between ([ and ]), to be like in the example. var outputGraph = []; for (var i = 0, entry; entry = entries[i]; ++i) { var asd = [ entry.getValueOf('ga:pageTitle'), entry.getValueOf('ga:pageviews') ].join("',"); outputGraph.push(" ['" + asd + "]"); //get the 2 elements and join them to be like ['asd', 2], } // this is fine, the outputgraph is like ['asd', 2], ['asd', 2], ['asd', 2] as seen in the example var outputGraphFine = ("(["+outputGraph+"])"); // i suggest this is which fails the script. var data = new google.visualization.DataTable(); data.addColumn('string', 'Task'); data.addColumn('number', 'Hours per Day'); data.addRows = outputGraphFine; But it doesn't work. Why?

    Read the article

  • My android tests don't get internet access!

    - by Malachii
    The subject says it all. My application gets internet access thanks to the android.permission.INTERNET permission, but my test cases don't while using the instrumentation test runner. This means I can't test my server IO routines in my test cases. What's up? Here's my manifest in case it helps you. Thanks! Sorry about the lack of indents - could not get it working on short notice with this site. Thanks! <manifest xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" package="com.example.helloandroid" android:versionCode="1" android:versionName="1.0"> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.INTERNET"></uses-permission> <application android:icon="@drawable/icon" android:label="@string/app_name"> <uses-library android:name="android.test.runner" /> <activity android:name=".HelloAndroid" android:label="@string/app_name"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER" /> </intent-filter> </activity> </application> <uses-sdk android:minSdkVersion="2" /> <instrumentation android:name="android.test.InstrumentationTestRunner" android:targetPackage="qnext.mobile.redirect" android:label="Qnext Redirect Tests" /> </manifest>

    Read the article

  • Facebook Open Graph - post to all approved users feeds.

    - by simnom
    Hi, I'm struggling to get to grips with posting a feed item to all the members of an approved application. Within the application settings for the user it is stating that the application has permission to post to the wall but I can only achieve this if that user is currently logged in to facebook. Obviously I would like this to function so that any items I uploaded are posted to all the members of the application at any one time. I am using the Facebook PHP SDK from http://github.com/facebook/php-sdk/ and currrently my code is as follows: require 'src/facebook.php'; //Generates access token for this transaction $accessToken = file_get_contents("https://graph.facebook.com/oauth/access_token?type=client_cred&client_id=MyAppId&client_secret=MySecret"); //Gets the full user details as an object $contents = json_decode(file_get_contents("https://graph.facebook.com/SomeUserId?scope=publish_stream&" . $accessToken)); print_r($contents); if ($facebook->api('/' . $contents->id . '/feed', 'POST', array( 'title' => 'New and Improved, etc - 12/03/2010', 'link' => 'http://www.ib3.co.uk/news/2010/03/12/new-and-improved--etc', 'picture' => 'http://www.ib3.co.uk/userfiles/image/etc-booking.jpg', 'scope' => 'publish_stream' ) )==TRUE) { echo "message posted"; } else { echo "message failed"; } The output from $contents shows the expected user details but nothing relating to the permissions for my application. Am I missing a trick here? Then using the $facebook-api() function I am receiving a #200 - Permissions error. The application does not have permission to perform this action. This is driving me a little potty as I suspect I'm missing something straightforward with the authorisation but what? Many thanks in advance for an assistance offered.

    Read the article

  • Can threads safely read variables set by VCL events?

    - by Tom1952
    Is it safe for a thread to READ a variable set by a Delphi VCL event? When a user clicks on a VCL TCheckbox, the main thread sets a boolean to the checkbox's Checked state. CheckboxState := CheckBox1.Checked; At any time, a thread reads that variable if CheckBoxState then ... It doesn't matter if the thread "misses" a change to the boolean, because the thread checks the variable in a loop as it does other things. So it will see the state change eventually... Is this safe? Or do I need special code? Is surrounding the read and write of the variable (in the thread and main thread respectively) with critical code calls necessary and sufficient? As I said, it doesn't matter if the thread gets the "wrong" value, but I keep thinking that there might be a low-level problem if one thread tries to read a variable while the main thread is in the middle of writing it, or vice versa. My question is similar to this one: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1353096/cross-thread-reading-of-a-variable. (Also related to my previous question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2449183/using-entercriticalsection-in-thread-to-update-vcl-label)

    Read the article

  • how to edit a text message ( sms ) as it arrives in windows mobile 6 using managed code

    - by x86shadow
    I want to make an application to be installed on two pocket PCs and send Encrypted text messages and receive and decrypt them on the other device. I already made an application that gets special text messages ( starting with !farenc! ) and I know how to Encrypt/Decrypt the messages as well but I don't know how to edit a text message as it's arrive ( for decryption ). please help. thanks in advance and sorry for my bad English using System; using System.Linq; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Data; using System.Drawing; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; using Microsoft.WindowsMobile; using Microsoft.WindowsMobile.PocketOutlook; using Microsoft.WindowsMobile.PocketOutlook.MessageInterception; namespace SMSDECRYPT { public partial class Form1 : Form { MessageInterceptor _SMSCatcher = new MessageInterceptor(InterceptionAction.Notify, true); MessageCondition _SMSFilter = new MessageCondition(); public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); _SMSFilter.Property = MessageProperty.Body; _SMSFilter.ComparisonType = MessagePropertyComparisonType.StartsWith; _SMSFilter.CaseSensitive = true; _SMSFilter.ComparisonValue = "!farenc!"; _SMSCatcher.MessageCondition = _SMSFilter; _SMSCatcher.MessageReceived += new MessageInterceptorEventHandler(_SMSCatcher_MessageReceived); } private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { //... } void _SMSCatcher_MessageReceived(object sender, MessageInterceptorEventArgs e) { SmsMessage mySMS = (SmsMessage)e.Message; string sms = mySMS.Body.ToString(); sms = sms.Substring(8); //Decryption //... //Update the received message and replace it with the decrypted text //!!!HELP!!! } } }

    Read the article

  • How to customize the process employed by WCF when serializing contract method arguments?

    - by mark
    Dear ladies and sirs. I would like to formulate a contrived scenario, which nevertheless has firm actual basis. Imagine a collection type COuter, which is a wrapper around an instance of another collection type CInner. Both implement IList (never mind the T). Furthermore, a COuter instance is buried inside some object graph, the root of which (let us refer to it as R) is returned from a WCF service method. My question is how can I customize the WCF serialization process, so that when R is returned, the request to serialize the COuter instance will be routed through my code, which will extract CInner and pass it to the serializer instead. Thus the receiving end still gets R, only no COuter instance is found in the object graph. I hoped that http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2220516/how-does-wcf-serialize-the-method-call will contain the answer, unfortunately the article mentioned there (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/magazine/cc163569.aspx) only barely mentions that advanced serialization scenarios are possible using IDataContractSurrogate interface, but no details are given. I am, on the other hand, would really like to see a working example. Thank you very much in advance.

    Read the article

  • Increment non unique field during SQL insert

    - by phill
    I'm not sure how to word this cause I am a little confused at the moment, so bare with me while I attempt to explain, I have a table with the following fields: OrderLineID, OrderID, OrderLine, and a few other unimportant ones. OrderLineID is the primary key and is always unique(which isn't a problem), OrderID is a foreign key that isn't unique(also not a problem), and OrderLine is a value that is not unique in the table, but should be unique for any OrderIDs that are the same...so if that didn't make sense, perhaps a picture OrderLineID, OrderID, OrderLine 1 1 1 2 1 2 3 1 3 4 2 1 5 2 2 For all OrderIDs there is a unique OrderLine. I am trying to create an insert statement that gets the max OrderLine value for a specific OrderId so I can increment it, but it's not working so well and I could use a little help. What I have right now is below, I build the sql statement in a program and replace OrderID # with an actual value. I am pretty sure the problem is with the nested select statement, and incrementing the result, but I can't find any examples that do this since my google skills are weak apparently.... INSERT INTO tblOrderLine (OrderID, OrderLine) VALUES (<OrderID #>, (SELECT MAX(OrderLine) FROM tblOrderLine WHERE orderID = <same OrderID #>)+1) any help would be nice.

    Read the article

  • With NHibernate and Transaction do I rollback on commit failure or does it auto rollback on single c

    - by mattcodes
    I've built the following Dispose method for my Unit Of Work which essentially wraps the active NH session & transaction (transaction set as variable after opening session as to not be replaced if NH session gets new transaction after error) public void Dispose() { Func<ITransaction,bool> transactionStateOkayFunc = trans => trans != null && trans.IsActive && !trans.WasRolledBack; try { if(transactionStateOkayFunc(this.transaction)) { if (HasErrored) { transaction.Rollback(); } else { try { transaction.Commit(); } catch (Exception) { if(transactionStateOkayFunc(transaction)) transaction.Rollback(); throw; } } } } finally { if(transaction != null) transaction.Dispose(); if(session.IsOpen) session.Close(); } I can't help feeling that code is a little bloated, will a transaction automatically rollback is a discrete Commit fails in the case of non-nested transactions? Will Commit or Rollback automatically Dipose the transaction? If not will Session.Close() automatically dispose the associated transaction?

    Read the article

  • Declare module name of classes for logging

    - by Space_C0wb0y
    I currently am adding some features to our logging-library. One of these is the possibility to declare a module-name for a class that automatically gets preprended to any log-messages writing from within that class. However, if no module-name is provided, nothing is prepended. Currently I am using a trait-class that has a static function that returns the name. template< class T > struct ModuleNameTrait { static std::string Value() { return ""; } }; template< > struct ModuleNameTrait< Foo > { static std::string Value() { return "Foo"; } }; This class can be defined using a helper-macro. The drawback is, that the module-name has to be declared outside of the class. I would like this to be possible within the class. Also, I want to be able to remove all logging-code using a preprocessor directive. I know that using SFINAE one can check if a template argument has a certain member, but since other people, that are not as friendly with templates as I am, will have to maintain the code, I am looking for a much simpler solution. If there is none, I will stick with the traits approach. Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Comparing two images from the clipboard class

    - by VeXe
    In a C# winform app. I'm writing a Clipboard log manager that logs test to a log file, (everytime a Ctrl+c/x is pressed the copied/cut text gets appended to the file) I also did the same for images, that is, if you press "prtScreen", the screen shot you took will also go to a folder. I do that by using a timer, inside I have something which 'looks' like this: if (Clipboard.ContainsImage()) { if (IsClipboardUpdated()) { LogData(); UpdateLastClipboardData(); } } This is how the rest of the methods look like: public void UpdateLastClipboardData() { // ... other updates LastClipboardImage = Clipboard.GetImage(); } // This is how I determine if there's a new image in the clipboard... public bool IsClipboardUpdated() { return (LastClipboardImage != Clipboard.GetImage()); } public void LogData() { Clipboard.GetImage().Save(ImagesLogFolder + "\\Image" + now_hours + "_" + now_mins + "_" + now_secs + ".jpg"); } The problem is: inside the update method, "LastClipboardImage != Clipboard.GetImage()" is always returning true! I even did the following inside the update method: Image img1 = Clipboard.GetImage(); Image img2 = Clipboard.GetImage(); Image img3 = img2; bool b1 = img1 == img2; // this returned false. WHY?? bool b2 = img3 == img2; // this returned true. Makes sense. Please help, the comparison isn't working... why?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 361 362 363 364 365 366 367 368 369 370 371 372  | Next Page >