Search Results

Search found 9715 results on 389 pages for 'bad passwords'.

Page 366/389 | < Previous Page | 362 363 364 365 366 367 368 369 370 371 372 373  | Next Page >

  • Incorrect string encodings

    - by James
    Note: I have read all of the related PHP, UTF-8, character encoding articles that are usually suggested, but my question relates to data inserted before I applied such techniques. I am wishing to retrospectively fix all character encoding problems. Now all connections are set as utf8 using PDO. PDO::MYSQL_ATTR_INIT_COMMAND => 'SET NAMES utf8' Unfortunately, a large amount of data was inserted that is of questionable encoding before I had implemented correct character encoding practices. As displayed by: $sql = "SELECT name FROM data LIMIT 3"; foreach ($pdo->query($sql) as $row) { $name = $row['name']; echo $name . "\n"; echo utf8_encode($name) . "\n"; echo utf8_decode($name) . "\n"; echo htmlspecialchars($name, ENT_QUOTES, 'UTF-8') . "\n"; echo htmlspecialchars(utf8_encode($name), ENT_QUOTES, 'UTF-8') . "\n"; echo htmlspecialchars(utf8_decode($name), ENT_QUOTES, 'UTF-8') . "\n"; echo '<hr/>'; } Which produces: Antonín Dvořák AntonÃÆÃ­n DvoÃâ¦Ãâ¢ÃÆÃ¡k Anton??­n Dvo??????¡k Antonín Dvořák AntonÃÆÃ­n DvoÃâ¦Ãâ¢ÃÆÃ¡k ---------- Ô±Ö€Õ¡Õ´ Ô½Õ¡Õ¹Õ¡Õ¿Ö€ÕµÕ¡Õ¶ ñÃâ¬Ã¡Ã´ ýáùáÿÃâ¬ÃµÃ¡Ã¶ ????? ?????????? Ô±Ö€Õ¡Õ´ Ô½Õ¡Õ¹Õ¡Õ¿Ö€ÕµÕ¡Õ¶ ñÃâ¬Ã¡Ã´ ýáùáÿÃâ¬ÃµÃ¡Ã¶ ---------- Tiësto Tiësto Tiësto Tiësto Tiësto Tiësto ---------- When removing 'SET NAMES utf8' with PDO it produces the data: Antonín DvoÅák Antonín DvoÃÂák Antonín Dvorák Antonín DvoÅák Antonín DvoÃÂák Antonín Dvorák ---------- ???? ????????? Ô±ÖÕ¡Õ´ Ô½Õ¡Õ¹Õ¡Õ¿ÖÕµÕ¡Õ¶ ???? ????????? ???? ????????? Ô±ÖÕ¡Õ´ Ô½Õ¡Õ¹Õ¡Õ¿ÖÕµÕ¡Õ¶ ???? ????????? ---------- Tiësto Tiësto Ti?sto Tiësto Tiësto ---------- And here is a dump of the database rows concerned: DROP TABLE IF EXISTS `data`; CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `data` ( `id` int(10) unsigned NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `name` varchar(80) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), KEY `name` (`name`(10)), ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 AUTO_INCREMENT=0; INSERT INTO `data` (`id`, `name`) VALUES (0, 'Antonín Dvořák'), (1, 'Ô±Ö€Õ¡Õ´ Ô½Õ¡Õ¹Õ¡Õ¿Ö€ÕµÕ¡Õ¶'), (2, 'Tiësto'); The 3rd and 6th lines of the 3rd row "Tiësto" are then correctly echoed. I'm just unsure what is the best way to correct encodings/detect the encodings of bad strings and correct, etc.

    Read the article

  • Refactoring Singleton Overuse

    - by drharris
    Today I had an epiphany, and it was that I was doing everything wrong. Some history: I inherited a C# application, which was really just a collection of static methods, a completely procedural mess of C# code. I refactored this the best I knew at the time, bringing in lots of post-college OOP knowledge. To make a long story short, many of the entities in code have turned out to be Singletons. Today I realized I needed 3 new classes, which would each follow the same Singleton pattern to match the rest of the software. If I keep tumbling down this slippery slope, eventually every class in my application will be Singleton, which will really be no logically different from the original group of static methods. I need help on rethinking this. I know about Dependency Injection, and that would generally be the strategy to use in breaking the Singleton curse. However, I have a few specific questions related to this refactoring, and all about best practices for doing so. How acceptable is the use of static variables to encapsulate configuration information? I have a brain block on using static, and I think it is due to an early OO class in college where the professor said static was bad. But, should I have to reconfigure the class every time I access it? When accessing hardware, is it ok to leave a static pointer to the addresses and variables needed, or should I continually perform Open() and Close() operations? Right now I have a single method acting as the controller. Specifically, I continually poll several external instruments (via hardware drivers) for data. Should this type of controller be the way to go, or should I spawn separate threads for each instrument at the program's startup? If the latter, how do I make this object oriented? Should I create classes called InstrumentAListener and InstrumentBListener? Or is there some standard way to approach this? Is there a better way to do global configuration? Right now I simply have Configuration.Instance.Foo sprinkled liberally throughout the code. Almost every class uses it, so perhaps keeping it as a Singleton makes sense. Any thoughts? A lot of my classes are things like SerialPortWriter or DataFileWriter, which must sit around waiting for this data to stream in. Since they are active the entire time, how should I arrange these in order to listen for the events generated when data comes in? Any other resources, books, or comments about how to get away from Singletons and other pattern overuse would be helpful.

    Read the article

  • Which is the "best" data access framework/approach for C# and .NET?

    - by Frans
    (EDIT: I made it a community wiki as it is more suited to a collaborative format.) There are a plethora of ways to access SQL Server and other databases from .NET. All have their pros and cons and it will never be a simple question of which is "best" - the answer will always be "it depends". However, I am looking for a comparison at a high level of the different approaches and frameworks in the context of different levels of systems. For example, I would imagine that for a quick-and-dirty Web 2.0 application the answer would be very different from an in-house Enterprise-level CRUD application. I am aware that there are numerous questions on Stack Overflow dealing with subsets of this question, but I think it would be useful to try to build a summary comparison. I will endeavour to update the question with corrections and clarifications as we go. So far, this is my understanding at a high level - but I am sure it is wrong... I am primarily focusing on the Microsoft approaches to keep this focused. ADO.NET Entity Framework Database agnostic Good because it allows swapping backends in and out Bad because it can hit performance and database vendors are not too happy about it Seems to be MS's preferred route for the future Complicated to learn (though, see 267357) It is accessed through LINQ to Entities so provides ORM, thus allowing abstraction in your code LINQ to SQL Uncertain future (see Is LINQ to SQL truly dead?) Easy to learn (?) Only works with MS SQL Server See also Pros and cons of LINQ "Standard" ADO.NET No ORM No abstraction so you are back to "roll your own" and play with dynamically generated SQL Direct access, allows potentially better performance This ties in to the age-old debate of whether to focus on objects or relational data, to which the answer of course is "it depends on where the bulk of the work is" and since that is an unanswerable question hopefully we don't have to go in to that too much. IMHO, if your application is primarily manipulating large amounts of data, it does not make sense to abstract it too much into objects in the front-end code, you are better off using stored procedures and dynamic SQL to do as much of the work as possible on the back-end. Whereas, if you primarily have user interaction which causes database interaction at the level of tens or hundreds of rows then ORM makes complete sense. So, I guess my argument for good old-fashioned ADO.NET would be in the case where you manipulate and modify large datasets, in which case you will benefit from the direct access to the backend. Another case, of course, is where you have to access a legacy database that is already guarded by stored procedures. ASP.NET Data Source Controls Are these something altogether different or just a layer over standard ADO.NET? - Would you really use these if you had a DAL or if you implemented LINQ or Entities? NHibernate Seems to be a very powerful and powerful ORM? Open source Some other relevant links; NHibernate or LINQ to SQL Entity Framework vs LINQ to SQL

    Read the article

  • How can I append and execute a script inside an iframe in a cross browser way (specifically IE!)?

    - by agmin
    Background: I need to load ad scripts after the DOM has loaded. Because many of the scripts use document.write() and other potentially bad functions to run after the DOM has loaded, I want to load the scripts inside an iframe. So when the ad needs to be shown, an event is triggered which does the following: var iframe = document.createElement('iframe'); iframe.setAttribute('id', 'iframeId'); iframe.setAttribute('src', 'about:blank'); var adContainer = document.getElementById('AdContainer'); adContainer.appendChild(iframe); var val = '<html><head></head><body>'; val += '<scr' + 'ipt type="text/javascript" src="' + url + '"></scr' + 'ipt>'; val += '</body></html>'; If I don't assign the html and body tags to val, the script automatically gets appended to the head of the iframe and fails to execute in FF. In IE, the script doesn't execute with or without the head/body/html tags. var doc = iframe.contentWindow || iframe.contentDocument; if (doc.document){ doc = doc.document } doc.open(); doc.write(val); doc.close(); I found this last bit of code here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1591135/why-does-appending-a-script-to-a-dynamically-created-iframe-seem-to-run-the-s. I do NOT want to load jquery in the iframe though, I just want to append a script and have it execute. My current solution seems to work great in FF and Webkit. However, IE doesn't execute the script. The script is written to the page, but doesn't start running. Is there a better way to append the script to the iframe so it will run cross browser? Or is it possible to tell IE to run the script? I know that I could load an external document with the ad script via the iframe, but I don't want to make the extra call to my server if I can do this dynamically. Also, I've tried using appendChild() on the iframe's body to insert the script, but since the script element is created outside the iframe's DOM this doesn't seem to work.

    Read the article

  • .NET Free memory usage (how to prevent overallocation / release memory to the OS)

    - by Ronan Thibaudau
    I'm currently working on a website that makes large use of cached data to avoid roundtrips. At startup we get a "large" graph (hundreds of thouthands of different kinds of objects). Those objects are retrieved over WCF and deserialized (we use protocol buffers for serialization) I'm using redgate's memory profiler to debug memory issues (the memory didn't seem to fit with how much memory we should need "after" we're done initializing and end up with this report Now what we can gather from this report is that: 1) Most of the memory .NET allocated is free (it may have been rightfully allocated during deserialisation, but now that it's free, i'd like for it to return to the OS) 2) Memory is fragmented (which is bad, as everytime i refresh the cash i need to redo the memory hungry deserialisation process and this, in turn creates large object that may throw an OutOfMemoryException due to fragmentation) 3) I have no clue why the space is fragmented, because when i look at the large object heap, there are only 30 instances, 15 object[] are directly attached to the GC and totally unrelated to me, 1 is a char array also attached directly to the GC Heap, the remaining 15 are mine but are not the cause of this as i get the same report if i comment them out in code. So my question is, what can i do to go further with this? I'm not really sure what to look for in debugging / tools as it seems my memory is fragmented, but not by me, and huge amounts of free spaces are allocated by .net , which i can't release. Also please make sure you understand the question well before answering, i'm not looking for a way to free memory within .net (GC.Collect), but to free memory that is already free in .net , to the system as well as to defragment said memory. Note that a slow solution is fine, if it's possible to manually defragment the large heap i'd be all for it as i can call it at the end of RefreshCache and it's ok if it takes 1 or 2 second to run. Thanks for your help! A few notes i forgot: 1) The project is a .net 2.0 website, i get the same results running it in a .net 4 pool, idem if i run it in a .net 4 pool and convert it to .net 4 and recompile. 2) These are results of a release build, so debug build can not be the issue. 3) And this is probably quite important, i do not get these issues at all in the webdev server, only in IIS, in the webdev i get memory consumption rather close to my actual consumption (well more, but not 5-10X more!)

    Read the article

  • How would you structure your entity model for storing arbitrary key/value data with different data t

    - by Nathan Ridley
    I keep coming across scenarios where it will be useful to store a set of arbitrary data in a table using a per-row key/value model, rather than a rigid column/field model. The problem is, I want to store the values with their correct data type rather than converting everything to a string. This means I have to choose either a single table with multiple nullable columns, one for each data type, or a set of value tables, one for each data type. I'm also unsure as to whether I should use full third normal form and separate the keys into a separate table, referencing them via a foreign key from the value table(s), or if it would be better to keep things simple and store the string keys in the value table(s) and accept the duplication of strings. Old/bad: This solution makes adding additional values a pain in a fluid environment because the table needs to be modified regularly. MyTable ============================ ID Key1 Key2 Key3 int int string date ---------------------------- 1 Value1 Value2 Value3 2 Value4 Value5 Value6 Single Table Solution This solution allows simplicity via a single table. The querying code still needs to check for nulls to determine which data type the field is storing. A check constraint is probably also required to ensure only one of the value fields contains non-nulll data. DataValues ============================================================= ID RecordID Key IntValue StringValue DateValue int int string int string date ------------------------------------------------------------- 1 1 Key1 Value1 NULL NULL 2 1 Key2 NULL Value2 NULL 3 1 Key3 NULL NULL Value3 4 2 Key1 Value4 NULL NULL 5 2 Key2 NULL Value5 NULL 6 2 Key3 NULL NULL Value6 Multiple-Table Solution This solution allows for more concise purposing of each table, though the code needs to know the data type in advance as it needs to query a different table for each data type. Indexing is probably simpler and more efficient because there are less columns that need indexing. IntegerValues =============================== ID RecordID Key Value int int string int ------------------------------- 1 1 Key1 Value1 2 2 Key1 Value4 StringValues =============================== ID RecordID Key Value int int string string ------------------------------- 1 1 Key2 Value2 2 2 Key2 Value5 DateValues =============================== ID RecordID Key Value int int string date ------------------------------- 1 1 Key3 Value3 2 2 Key3 Value6 How do you approach this problem? Which solution is better? Also, should the key column be separated into a separate table and referenced via a foreign key or be should it be kept in the value table and bulk updated if for some reason the key name changes?

    Read the article

  • Distinguishing between failure and end of file in read loop

    - by celtschk
    The idiomatic loop to read from an istream is while (thestream >> value) { // do something with value } Now this loop has one problem: It will not distinguish if the loop terminated due to end of file, or due to an error. For example, take the following test program: #include <iostream> #include <sstream> void readbools(std::istream& is) { bool b; while (is >> b) { std::cout << (b ? "T" : "F"); } std::cout << " - " << is.good() << is.eof() << is.fail() << is.bad() << "\n"; } void testread(std::string s) { std::istringstream is(s); is >> std::boolalpha; readbools(is); } int main() { testread("true false"); testread("true false tr"); } The first call to testread contains two valid bools, and therefore is not an error. The second call ends with a third, incomplete bool, and therefore is an error. Nevertheless, the behaviour of both is the same. In the first case, reading the boolean value fails because there is none, while in the second case it fails because it is incomplete, and in both cases EOF is hit. Indeed, the program above outputs twice the same line: TF - 0110 TF - 0110 To solve this problem, I thought of the following solution: while (thestream >> std::ws && !thestream.eof() && thestream >> value) { // do something with value } The idea is to detect regular EOF before actually trying to extract the value. Because there might be whitespace at the end of the file (which would not be an error, but cause read of the last item to not hit EOF), I first discard any whitespace (which cannot fail) and then test for EOF. Only if I'm not at the end of file, I try to read the value. For my example program, it indeed seems to work, and I get TF - 0100 TF - 0110 So in the first case (correct input), fail() returns false. Now my question: Is this solution guaranteed to work, or was I just (un-)lucky that it happened to give the desired result? Also: Is there a simpler (or, if my solution is wrong, a correct) way to get the desired result?

    Read the article

  • ZF Autoloader to load ancestor and requested class

    - by Pekka
    I am integrating Zend Framework into an existing application. I want to switch the application over to Zend's autoloading mechanism to replace dozens of include() statements. I have a specific requirement for the autoloading mechanism, though. Allow me to elaborate. The existing application uses a core library (independent from ZF), for example: /Core/Library/authentication.php /Core/Library/translation.php /Core/Library/messages.php this core library is to remain untouched at all times and serves a number of applications. The library contains classes like class ancestor_authentication { ... } class ancestor_translation { ... } class ancestor_messages { ... } in the application, there is also a Library directory: /App/Library/authentication.php /App/Library/translation.php /App/Library/messages.php these includes extend the ancestor classes and are the ones that actually get instantiated in the application. class authentication extends ancestor_authentication { } class translation extends ancestor_translation { } class messages extends ancestor_messages { } usually, these class definitions are empty. They simply extend their ancestors and provide the class name to instantiate. $authentication = new authentication(); The purpose of this solution is to be able to easily customize aspects of the application without having to patch the core libraries. Now, the autoloader I need would have to be aware of this structure. When an object of the class authentication is requested, the autoloader would have to: 1. load /Core/Library/authentication.php 2. load /App/Library/authentication.php My current approach would be creating a custom function, and binding that to Zend_Loader_Autoloader for a specific namespace prefix. Is there already a way to do this in Zend that I am overlooking? The accepted answer in this question kind of implies there is, but that may be just a bad choice of wording. Are there extensions to the Zend Autoloader that do this? Can you - I am new to ZF - think of an elegant way, conforming with the spirit of the framework, of extending the Autoloader with this functionality? I'm not necessary looking for a ready-made implementation, some pointers (This should be an extension to the xyz method that you would call like this...) would already be enough.

    Read the article

  • EXC_BAD_ACCESS when simply casting a pointer in Obj-C

    - by AlexChilcott
    Hi all, Frequent visitor but first post here on StackOverflow, I'm hoping that you guys might be able to help me out with this. I'm fairly new to Obj-C and XCode, and I'm faced with this really... weird... problem. Googling hasn't turned up anything whatsoever. Basically, I get an EXC_BAD_ACCESS signal on a line that doesn't do any dereferencing or anything like that that I can see. Wondering if you guys have any idea where to look for this. I've found a work around, but no idea why this works... The line the broken version barfs out on is the line: LevelEntity *le = entity; where I get my bad access signal. Here goes: THIS VERSION WORKS NSArray *contacts = [self.body getContacts]; for (PhysicsContact *contact in contacts) { PhysicsBody *otherBody; if (contact.bodyA == self.body) { otherBody = contact.bodyB; } if (contact.bodyB == self.body) { otherBody = contact.bodyA; } id entity = [otherBody userData]; if (entity != nil) { LevelEntity *le = entity; CGPoint point = [contact contactPointOnBody:otherBody]; } } THIS VERSION DOESNT WORK NSArray *contacts = [self.body getContacts]; for (NSUInteger i = 0; i < [contacts count]; i++) { PhysicsContact *contact = [contacts objectAtIndex:i]; PhysicsBody *otherBody; if (contact.bodyA == self.body) { otherBody = contact.bodyB; } if (contact.bodyB == self.body) { otherBody = contact.bodyA; } id entity = [otherBody userData]; if (entity != nil) { LevelEntity *le = entity; CGPoint point = [contact contactPointOnBody:otherBody]; } } Here, the only difference between the two examples is the way I enumerate through my array. In the first version (which works) I use for (... in ...), where as in the second I use for (...; ...; ...). As far as I can see, these should be the same. This is seriously weirding me out. Anyone have any similar experience or idea whats going on here? Would be really great :) Cheers, Alex

    Read the article

  • In R, how do you get the best fitting equation to a set of data?

    - by Matherion
    I'm not sure wether R can do this (I assume it can, but maybe that's just because I tend to assume that R can do anything :-)). What I need is to find the best fitting equation to describe a dataset. For example, if you have these points: df = data.frame(x = c(1, 5, 10, 25, 50, 100), y = c(100, 75, 50, 40, 30, 25)) How do you get the best fitting equation? I know that you can get the best fitting curve with: plot(loess(df$y ~ df$x)) But as I understood you can't extract the equation, see Loess Fit and Resulting Equation. When I try to build it myself (note, I'm not a mathematician, so this is probably not the ideal approach :-)), I end up with smth like: y.predicted = 12.71 + ( 95 / (( (1 + df$x) ^ .5 ) / 1.3)) Which kind of seems to approximate it - but I can't help to think that smth more elegant probably exists :-) I have the feeling that fitting a linear or polynomial model also wouldn't work, because the formula seems different from what those models generally use (i.e. this one seems to need divisions, powers, etc). For example, the approach in Fitting polynomial model to data in R gives pretty bad approximations. I remember from a long time ago that there exist languages (Matlab may be one of them?) that do this kind of stuff. Can R do this as well, or am I just at the wrong place? (Background info: basically, what we need to do is find an equation for determining numbers in the second column based on the numbers in the first column; but we decide the numbers ourselves. We have an idea of how we want the curve to look like, but we can adjust these numbers to an equation if we get a better fit. It's about the pricing for a product (a cheaper alternative to current expensive software for qualitative data analysis); the more 'project credits' you buy, the cheaper it should become. Rather than forcing people to buy a given number (i.e. 5 or 10 or 25), it would be nicer to have a formula so people can buy exactly what they need - but of course this requires a formula. We have an idea for some prices we think are ok, but now we need to translate this into an equation.

    Read the article

  • jquery in ajax loaded content

    - by Kim Gysen
    My application is supposed to be a single page application and I have the following code that works fine: home.php: <div id="container"> </div> accordion.php: //Click functions: load content $('#parents').click(function(){ //Load parent in container $('#container').load('http://www.blabla.com/entities/parents/parents.php'); }); parents.php: <div class="entity_wrapper"> Some divs and selectors </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ //Some jQuery / javascript }); </script> So the content loads fine, while the scripts dynamically loaded execute fine as well. I apply this system repetitively and it continues to work smoothly. I've seen that there are a lot of frameworks available on SPA's (such as backbone.js) but I don't understand why I need them if this works fine. From the backbone.js website: When working on a web application that involves a lot of JavaScript, one of the first things you learn is to stop tying your data to the DOM. It's all too easy to create JavaScript applications that end up as tangled piles of jQuery selectors and callbacks, all trying frantically to keep data in sync between the HTML UI, your JavaScript logic, and the database on your server. For rich client-side applications, a more structured approach is often helpful. Well, I totally don't have the feeling that I'm going through the stuff they mention. Adding the javascript per page works really well for me. They are html containers with clear scope and the javascript is just related to that part. More over, the front end doesn't do that much, most of the logic is managed based on Ajax calls to external PHP scripts. Sometimes the js can be a bit more extended for some functionalities, but all just loads as smooth in less than a second. If you think that this is bad coding, please tell me why I cannot do this and more importantly, what is the alternative I should apply. At the moment, I really don't see a reason on why I would change this approach as it just works too well. I'm kinda stuck on this question because it just worries me sick as it seems to easy to be true. Why would people go through hard times if it would be as easy as this...

    Read the article

  • How can I force the server socket to re-accept a request from a client?

    - by Roman
    For those who does not want to read a long question here is a short version: A server has an opened socket for a client. The server gets a request to open a socket from the same client-IP and client-port. I want to fore the server not to refuse such a request but to close the old socket and open a new one. How can I do ti? And here is a long (original) question: I have the following situation. There is an established connection between a server and client. Then an external software (Bonjour) says to my client the it does not see the server in the local network. Well, client does nothing about that because of the following reasons: If Bonjour does not see the server it does not necessarily means that client cannot see the server. Even if the client trusts the Bonjour and close the socket it does not improve the situation ("to have no open socket" is worser that "to have a potentially bad socket"). So, client do nothing if server becomes invisible to Bonjour. But than the server re-appears in the Bonjour and Bonjour notify the client about that. In this situation the following situations are possible: The server reappears on a new IP address. So, the client needs to open a new socket to be able to communicate with the server. The server reappears on the old IP address. In this case we have two subcases: 2.1. The server was restarted (switched off and then switched on). So, it does not remember the old socket (which is still used by the client). So, client needs to close the old socket and open a new one (on the same server-IP address and the same server-port). 2.2. We had a temporal network problem and the server was running the whole time. So, the old socket is still available for the use. In this case the client does not really need to close the old socket and reopen a new one. But to simplify my life I decide to close and reopen the socket on the client side in any case (in spite on the fact that it is not really needed in the last described situation). But I can have problems with that solution. If I close the socket on the client side and than try to reopen a socket from the same client-IP and client-port, server will not accept the call for a new socket. The server will think that such a socket already exists. Can I write the server in such a way, that it does not refuse such calls. For example, if it (the server) sees that a client send a request for a socket from the same client-IP and client-port, it (server) close the available socket, associated with this client-IP and client-port and than it reopens a new socket.

    Read the article

  • Casting between variant and bstr_t causing inconsisten crash in Windows 2008

    - by user58470
    We have a C# application, calling a simple C++ wrapper class, that then calls an existing C++ DLL. The C++ code is all VC++ 6.0. We are getting inconsistent behaviour, but the crash, when it happens, always happens within the C++ wrapper DLL, and always in the same spot (have confirmed using painful logging statements). It never happens on any environment except on Windows 2008, so we suspect some bad-but-not-fatal memory trashing is going on that somehow Windows 2008 is being more mindful of. Here's the relevant code, if anyone has any ideas on why this might be crashing it would be much appreciated. We've been tearing our hair out for a few days and project timelines are slipping all for the want of being able to return a simple string back to C#... I've been told we've tried setting the VARIANT vresult using VariantInit, and clearing it when we are done with VariantClear, but that didn't help. // JobMgrDll.cpp : Defines the entry point for the DLL application. // #include "stdafx.h" #include "JobMgrDll.h" #include "jobmgr.h" CString gcontext; CString guser; CString ghost; CString glog; JOBMGRDLL_API int nJobMgrDll=0; extern "C" JOBMGRDLL_API char* perform_billcalc(char* cmd, char* context, char* user,char* host,BSTR* log,int* loglen) { char* result = new char[1000]; memset(result,0,999); result[999] = '\0'; bstr_t bt_command = cmd; UUID uuid = __uuidof(BRLib::Rules); VARIANT vresult; char *p_rv; gcontext = context; guser = user; ghost = host; write_log("execute_job"); p_rv = execute_job(uuid, "none", bt_command, &vresult); write_log("DONE execute_job"); CString message; write_log ("Intializing bstr_t with variant"); // WE ALWAYS GET HERE bstr_t res(vresult); //message.Format("%s result = %s",p_rv,res); //write_log(message); write_log("copying Result"); // WE DON'T ALWAYS GET HERE, BUT SOMETIMES WE DO strcpy(result,(char*)res); write_log(CString(result)); *loglen = glog.GetLength(); *log = glog.AllocSysString(); return result; } Again, any ideas much, much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • What do I need to distribute (keys, certs) for Python w/ SSL-socket connection?

    - by fandingo
    I'm trying to write a generic server-client application that will be able to exchange data amongst servers. I've read over quite a few OpenSSL documents, and I have successfully setup my own CA and created a cert (and private key) for testing purposes. I'm stuck with Python 2.3, so I can't use the standard "ssl" library. Instead, I'm stuck with PyOpenSSL, which doesn't seem bad, but there aren't many documents out there about it. My question isn't really about getting it working. I'm more confused about the certificates and where they need to go. Here are my two programs that do work: Server: #!/bin/env python from OpenSSL import SSL import socket import pickle def verify_cb(conn, cert, errnum, depth, ok): print('Got cert: %s' % cert.get_subject()) return ok ctx = SSL.Context(SSL.TLSv1_METHOD) ctx.set_verify(SSL.VERIFY_PEER|SSL.VERIFY_FAIL_IF_NO_PEER_CERT, verify_cb) # ?????? ctx.use_privatekey_file('./Dmgr-key.pem') ctx.use_certificate_file('Dmgr-cert.pem') # ?????? ctx.load_verify_locations('./CAcert.pem') server = SSL.Connection(ctx, socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_STREAM)) server.bind(('', 50000)) server.listen(3) a, b = server.accept() c = a.recv(1024) print(c) Client: from OpenSSL import SSL import socket import pickle def verify_cb(conn, cert, errnum, depth, ok): print('Got cert: %s' % cert.get_subject()) return ok ctx = SSL.Context(SSL.TLSv1_METHOD) ctx.set_verify(SSL.VERIFY_PEER, verify_cb) # ?????????? ctx.use_privatekey_file('/home/justin/code/work/CA/private/Dmgr-key.pem') ctx.use_certificate_file('/home/justin/code/work/CA/Dmgr-cert.pem') # ????????? ctx.load_verify_locations('/home/justin/code/work/CA/CAcert.pem') sock = SSL.Connection(ctx, socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_STREAM)) sock.connect(('10.0.0.3', 50000)) a = Tester(2, 2) b = pickle.dumps(a) sock.send("Hello, world") sock.flush() sock.send(b) sock.shutdown() sock.close() I found this information from ftp://ftp.pbone.net/mirror/ftp.pld-linux.org/dists/2.0/PLD/i586/PLD/RPMS/python-pyOpenSSL-examples-0.6-2.i586.rpm which contains some example scripts. As you might gather, I don't fully understand the sections between the " # ????????." I don't get why the certificate and private key are needed on both the client and server. I'm not sure where each should go, but shouldn't I only need to distribute one part of the key (probably the public part)? It undermines the purpose of having asymmetric keys if you still need both on each server, right? I tried alternating removing either the pkey or cert on either box, and I get the following error no matter which I remove: OpenSSL.SSL.Error: [('SSL routines', 'SSL3_READ_BYTES', 'sslv3 alert handshake failure'), ('SSL routines', 'SSL3_WRITE_BYTES', 'ssl handshake failure')] Could someone explain if this is the expected behavior for SSL. Do I really need to distribute the private key and public cert to all my clients? I'm trying to avoid any huge security problems, and leaking private keys would tend to be a big one... Thanks for the help!

    Read the article

  • Sending string to wcf service using jquery ajax. why can i only send strings of numbers?

    - by Robodude
    Hi Guys, For some reason, I'm only able to pass strings containing numbers to my web service when using jquery ajax. This hasn't been an issue so far because I was always just passing IDs to my wcf service. But I'm trying to do something more complex now but I can't figure it out. In my interface: [OperationContract] [WebInvoke(ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json)] DataTableOutput GetDataTableOutput(string json); My webservice: public DataTableOutput GetDataTableOutput(string json) { DataTableOutput x = new DataTableOutput(); x.iTotalDisplayRecords = 9; x.iTotalRecords = 50; x.sColumns = "1"; x.sEcho = "1"; x.aaData = null; return x; } Javascript/Jquery: var x = "1"; $.ajax({ type: "POST", async: false, url: "Services/Service1.svc/GetDataTableOutput", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", data: x, dataType: "json", success: function (msg) { }, error: function (XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { //alert(XMLHttpRequest.status); //alert(XMLHttpRequest.responseText); } }); The above code WORKS perfectly. But when I change x to "t" or even to "{'test':'test'}" I get a Error 400 Bad Request error in Firebug. Thanks, John EDIT: Making some progress! data: JSON.stringify("{'test':'test'}"), Sends the string to my function! EDIT2: var jsonAOData = JSON.stringify(aoData); $.ajax({ type: "POST", async: false, url: sSource, contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", data: "{'Input':" + jsonAOData + "}", dataType: "json", success: function (msg) { }, error: function (XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { //alert(XMLHttpRequest.status); //alert(XMLHttpRequest.responseText); } }); EDIT3: I modified the code block I put in EDIT2 up above. Swapping the " and ' did the trick! $.ajax({ type: "POST", async: false, url: sSource, contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", data: '{"Input":' + jsonAOData + '}', dataType: "json", success: function (msg) { }, error: function (XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { //alert(XMLHttpRequest.status); //alert(XMLHttpRequest.responseText); } }); However, I have a new problem: public DataTableOutput GetDataTableOutput(DataTableInputOverview Input) { The input here is completely null. The values I passed from jsonAOData didn't get assigned to the DataTableInputOverview Input variable. :(

    Read the article

  • CodeIgniter Form Validation

    - by mmcglynn
    I am trying to set up validation on a simple contact form that is created using the form helper. No validation at all occurs. What is wrong? In the code below, the “good” keyword always shows, regardless of what is entered into the form, and the saved values set via set_value are never shown. Controller // Contact function contact() { $data['pageTitle'] = "Contact"; $data['bodyId'] = "contact"; $this->load->library('form_validation'); $config_rules = array ('email' => 'required','message' => 'required'); $this->form_validation->set_rules($config_rules); if ($this->form_validation->run() == FALSE) { echo "bad"; $data['include'] = "v_contact"; $this->load->view('v_template',$data); } else { echo "good"; $data['include'] = "v_contact"; $this->load->view('v_template',$data); } } View echo validation_errors(); echo form_open('events/contact'); // name echo form_label('Name', 'name'); $data = array ( 'name' => 'name', 'id' => 'name', 'maxlength' => '64', 'size' => '40', 'value' => set_value('name') ); echo form_input($data) . "\n<br />"; // email address echo form_label('Email Address', 'email'); $data = array ( 'name' => 'email', 'id' => 'email', 'maxlength' => '64', 'size' => '40', 'value' => set_value('email') ); echo form_input($data) . "\n<br />"; // message echo form_label('Message', 'message'); $data = array ( 'name' => 'message', 'id' => 'message', 'rows' => '8', 'cols' => '35', 'value' => set_value('message') ); echo form_textarea($data) . "\n<br />"; echo form_submit('mysubmit', 'Send Message'); echo form_close();

    Read the article

  • Send multidimensional array to php with jQuery

    - by robertdd
    hy, i have a little, big problem here :) after i upload some images i get a list with all the images. I have some jQuery function for rotate, duplicate, delete, shuffle images! when i select a image and hit delete i send a post to php with the alt="" value of the image,i identify the picture and edit. I want to make a save button, Instead of sending a post every time i rotate a image, better send a post after editing the list of images with an array that contains all data? my php array after upload looks like this: [files] => Array ( [lcxkijgr] => lcxkijgr.jpg [xcewxpfv] => xcewxpfv.jpg [rtiurwxf] => rtiurwxf.jpg [gsbxdsdc] => gsbxdsdc.jpg ) say that I uploaded 4 pictures, firs picture i rotate 90 degrees second i want to duplicate third i rotate 270 degrees and the fourth image i delete i can do all this only with jQuery, but on the server the images are the same, after a refresh the images are the same this is the list with the images: <div class="upimage"> <ul id="upimagesQueue"> <li id="upimagesHPVEJM"> <a href="javascript:jQuery('#upimagesHPVEJM').showlargeimage('HPVEJM')"> <img alt="lcxkijgr" src="uploads/s6id9r9icnp8q9102h8md9kfd7/lcxkijgr.jpg?1272087830477" id="HPVEJM" style="display: block;" > </a> </li> <li id="upimagesSTCSAV"> <a href="javascript:jQuery('#upimagesSTCSAV').showlargeimage('STCSAV')"> <img alt="xcewxpfv" src="uploads/s6id9r9icnp8q9102h8md9kfd7/xcewxpfv.jpg?1272087831360" id="STCSAV" style="display: block;" > </a> </li> <li id="upimagesBFPUEQ"> <a href="javascript:jQuery('#upimagesBFPUEQ').showlargeimage('BFPUEQ')"> <img alt="rtiurwxf" src="uploads/s6id9r9icnp8q9102h8md9kfd7/rtiurwxf.jpg?1272087832162" id="BFPUEQ" style="display: block;" > </a> </li> <li id="upimagesRKXNSV"> <a href="javascript:jQuery('#upimagesRKXNSV').showlargeimage('RKXNSV')"> <img alt="gsbxdsdc" src="uploads/s6id9r9icnp8q9102h8md9kfd7/gsbxdsdc.jpg?1272087832957" id="RKXNSV" style="display: block;"> </a> </li> <ul> </div> is ok if i make one array like this: array{ imgFromLi = array(img1,img2,img3,img4,img5,img6) rotate = array{img1=90, img2=270, img3=90} delete = array{img4,img5,img6} duplicate = array{img2, img3} } how i can make/send/cache this array?? sorry for my very bad english

    Read the article

  • Twitter RSS feed, [domdocument.load]: failed to open stream:

    - by dave1019
    hi i'm using the following: <?php $doc = new DOMDocument(); $doc->load('http://twitter.com/statuses/user_timeline/XXXXXX.rss'); $arrFeeds = array(); foreach ($doc->getElementsByTagName('item') as $node) { $itemRSS = array ( 'title' => $node->getElementsByTagName('title')->item(0)->nodeValue, 'desc' => $node->getElementsByTagName('description')->item(0)->nodeValue, 'link' => $node->getElementsByTagName('link')->item(0)->nodeValue, 'date' => $node->getElementsByTagName('pubDate')->item(0)->nodeValue ); array_push($arrFeeds, $itemRSS); } for($i=0;$i<=3;$i++) { $tweet=substr($arrFeeds[$i]['title'],17); $tweetDate=strtotime($arrFeeds[$i]['date']); $newDate=date('G:ia l F Y ',$tweetDate); if($i==0) { $b='style="border:none;"'; } $tweetsBox.='<div class="tweetbox" ' . $b . '> <div class="tweet"><p>' . $tweet . '</p> <div class="tweetdate"><a href="http://twitter.com/XXXXXX">@' . $newDate .'</a></div> </div> </div>'; } return $tweetsBox; ?> to return the 4 most recent tweets from a given timeline (XXXXX is the relevant feed) It seems to work fine but i've recently been getting the following error sporadically: PHP error debug Error: DOMDocument::load(http://twitter.com/statuses/user_timeline/XXXXXX.rss) [domdocument.load]: failed to open stream: HTTP request failed! HTTP/1.1 502 Bad Gateway I've read that the above code is dependant on Twitter beign available and I know it gets rather busy sometimes. Is there either a better way of receiving twits, or is there any kind of error trapping i could do to just to display "tweets are currently unavailable..." ind of message rather than causing an error. I'm usnig ModX CMS so any parse error kills the site rather than just ouputs a warning. thanks.

    Read the article

  • Is It possible to use the second part of this code for repository patterns and generics

    - by newToCSharp
    Is there any issues in using version 2,to get the same results as version 1. Or is this just bad coding. Any Ideas public class Customer { public int CustomerID { get; set; } public string EmailAddress { get; set; } int Age { get; set; } } public interface ICustomer { void AddNewCustomer(Customer Customer); void AddNewCustomer(string EmailAddress, int Age); void RemoveCustomer(Customer Customer); } public class BALCustomer { private readonly ICustomer dalCustomer; public BALCustomer(ICustomer dalCustomer) { this.dalCustomer = dalCustomer; } public void Add_A_New_Customer(Customer Customer) { dalCustomer.AddNewCustomer(Customer); } public void Remove_A_Existing_Customer(Customer Customer) { dalCustomer.RemoveCustomer(Customer); } } public class CustomerDataAccess : ICustomer { public void AddNewCustomer(Customer Customer) { // MAKE DB CONNECTION AND EXECUTE throw new NotImplementedException(); } public void AddNewCustomer(string EmailAddress, int Age) { // MAKE DB CONNECTION AND EXECUTE throw new NotImplementedException(); } public void RemoveCustomer(Customer Customer) { // MAKE DB CONNECTION AND EXECUTE throw new NotImplementedException(); } } // VERSION 2 public class Customer_New : DataRespository<CustomerDataAccess> { public int CustomerID { get; set; } public string EmailAddress { get; set; } public int Age { get; set; } } public class DataRespository<T> where T:class,new() { private T item = new T(); public T Execute { get { return item; } set { item = value; } } public void Update() { //TO BE CODED } public void Save() { //TO BE CODED } public void Remove() { //TO BE CODED } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Customer_New cus = new Customer_New() { Age = 10, EmailAddress = "[email protected]" }; cus.Save(); cus.Execute.RemoveCustomer(new Customer()); // Repository Version Customer customer = new Customer() { EmailAddress = "[email protected]", CustomerID = 10 }; BALCustomer bal = new BALCustomer(new CustomerDataAccess()); bal.Add_A_New_Customer(customer); } } }

    Read the article

  • Inheritance of jQuery's prototype partially fails

    - by user1065745
    I want to use Coffeescript to create an UIObject class. This class should inherit from jQuery, so that instances of UIObject can be used as if they where created with jQuery. class UIObject isObject: (val) -> typeof val is "object" constructor: (tag, attributes) -> @merge jQuery(tag, attributes), this @UIObjectProperties = {} merge: (source, destination) -> for key of source if destination[key] is undefined destination[key] = source[key] else if @isObject(source[key]) @merge(source[key], destination[key]) return It partially works. Consider the Foobar class below: class Foobar extends UIObject constructor: -> super("<h1/>", html: "Foobar") $("body").append(new Foobar) works fine. BUT: (new Foobar).appendTo("body") places the tag, but also raises RangeError: Maximum call stack size exceeded. Was it just a bad idea to inherit from jQuery? Or is there a solurion? For those who don't know CoffeeScript, the JavaScript source is: var Foobar, UIObject; var __hasProp = Object.prototype.hasOwnProperty, __extends = function(child, parent) { for (var key in parent) { if (__hasProp.call(parent, key)) child[key] = parent[key]; } function ctor() { this.constructor = child; } ctor.prototype = parent.prototype; child.prototype = new ctor; child.__super__ = parent.prototype; return child; }; UIObject = (function () { UIObject.prototype.isObject = function (val) { return typeof val === "object"; }; function UIObject(tag, attributes) { this.merge(jQuery(tag, attributes), this); this.UIObjectProperties = {}; } UIObject.prototype.merge = function (source, destination) { var key; for (key in source) { if (destination[key] === void 0) { destination[key] = source[key]; } else if (this.isObject(source[key])) { this.merge(source[key], destination[key]); } } }; return UIObject; })(); Foobar = (function () { __extends(Foobar, UIObject); function Foobar() { Foobar.__super__.constructor.call(this, "<h1/>", { html: "Foobar" }); } return Foobar; })();

    Read the article

  • How can I improve my select query for storing large versioned data sets?

    - by Jason Francis
    At work, we build large multi-page web applications, consisting mostly of radio and check boxes. The primary purpose of each application is to gather data, but as users return to a page they have previously visited, we report back to them their previous responses. Worst-case scenario, we might have up to 900 distinct variables and around 1.5 million users. For several reasons, it makes sense to use an insert-only approach to storing the data (as opposed to update-in-place) so that we can capture historical data about repeated interactions with variables. The net result is that we might have several responses per user per variable. Our table to collect the responses looks something like this: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[results]( [id] [bigint] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [userid] [int] NULL, [variable] [varchar](8) NULL, [value] [tinyint] NULL, [submitted] [smalldatetime] NULL) Where id serves as the primary key. Virtually every request results in a series of insert statements (one per variable submitted), and then we run a select to produce previous responses for the next page (something like this): SELECT t.id, t.variable, t.value FROM results t WITH (NOLOCK) WHERE t.userid = '2111846' AND (t.variable='internat' OR t.variable='veteran' OR t.variable='athlete') AND t.id IN (SELECT MAX(id) AS id FROM results WITH (NOLOCK) WHERE userid = '2111846' AND (t.variable='internat' OR t.variable='veteran' OR t.variable='athlete') GROUP BY variable) Which, in this case, would return the most recent responses for the variables "internat", "veteran", and "athlete" for user 2111846. We have followed the advice of the database tuning tools in indexing the tables, and against our data, this is the best-performing version of the select query that we have been able to come up with. Even so, there seems to be significant performance degradation as the table approaches 1 million records (and we might have about 150x that). We have a fairly-elegant solution in place for sharding the data across multiple tables which has been working quite well, but I am open for any advice about how I might construct a better version of the select query. We use this structure frequently for storing lots of independent data points, and we like the benefits it provides. So the question is, how can I improve the performance of the select query? I assume the nested select statement is a bad idea, but I have yet to find an alternative that performs as well. Thanks in advance. NB: Since we emphasize creating over reading in this case, and since we never update in place, there doesn't seem to be any penalty (and some advantage) for using the NOLOCK directive in this case.

    Read the article

  • What is the most idiomatic way to emulating Perl's Test::More::done_testing?

    - by DVK
    I have to build unit tests for in environment with a very old version of Test::More (perl5.8 with $Test::More::VERSION being '0.80') which predates the addition of done_testing(). Upgrading to newer Test::More is out of the question for practical reasons. And I am trying to avoid using no_tests - it's generally a bad idea not catching when your unit test exits prematurely - say due to some logic not executing when you expected it to. What is the most idiomatic way of running a configurable amount of tests, assuming no no_tests or done_testing() is used? Details: My unit tests usually take the form of: use Test::More; my @test_set = ( [ "Test #1", $param1, $param2, ... ] ,[ "Test #1", $param1, $param2, ... ] # ,... ); foreach my $test (@test_set) { run_test($test); } sub run_test { # $expected_tests += count_tests($test); ok(test1($test)) || diag("Test1 failed"); # ... } The standard approach of use Test::More tests => 23; or BEGIN {plan tests => 23} does not work since both are obviously executed before @tests is known. My current approach involves making @tests global and defining it in the BEGIN {} block as follows: use Test::More; BEGIN { our @test_set = (); # Same set of tests as above my $expected_tests = 0; foreach my $test (@tests) { my $expected_tests += count_tests($test); } plan tests = $expected_tests; } our @test_set; # Must do!!! Since first "our" was in BEGIN's scope :( foreach my $test (@test_set) { run_test($test); } # Same sub run_test {} # Same I feel this can be done more idiomatically but not certain how to improve. Chief among the smells is the duplicate our @test_test declarations - in BEGIN{} and after it. Another approach is to emulate done_testing() by calling Test::More->builder->plan(tests=>$total_tests_calculated). I'm not sure if it's any better idiomatically-wise.

    Read the article

  • Java Flow Control Problem

    - by Kyle_Solo
    I am programming a simple 2d game engine. I've decided how I'd like the engine to function: it will be composed of objects containing "events" that my main game loop will trigger when appropriate. A little more about the structure: Every GameObject has an updateEvent method. objectList is a list of all the objects that will receive update events. Only objects on this list have their updateEvent method called by the game loop. I’m trying to implement this method in the GameObject class (This specification is what I’d like the method to achieve): /** * This method removes a GameObject from objectList. The GameObject * should immediately stop executing code, that is, absolutely no more * code inside update events will be executed for the removed game object. * If necessary, control should transfer to the game loop. * @param go The GameObject to be removed */ public void remove(GameObject go) So if an object tries to remove itself inside of an update event, control should transfer back to the game engine: public void updateEvent() { //object's update event remove(this); System.out.println("Should never reach here!"); } Here’s what I have so far. It works, but the more I read about using exceptions for flow control the less I like it, so I want to see if there are alternatives. Remove Method public void remove(GameObject go) { //add to removedList //flag as removed //throw an exception if removing self from inside an updateEvent } Game Loop for(GameObject go : objectList) { try { if (!go.removed) { go.updateEvent(); } else { //object is scheduled to be removed, do nothing } } catch(ObjectRemovedException e) { //control has been transferred back to the game loop //no need to do anything here } } // now remove the objects that are in removedList from objectList 2 questions: Am I correct in assuming that the only way to implement the stop-right-away part of the remove method as described above is by throwing a custom exception and catching it in the game loop? (I know, using exceptions for flow control is like goto, which is bad. I just can’t think of another way to do what I want!) For the removal from the list itself, it is possible for one object to remove one that is farther down on the list. Currently I’m checking a removed flag before executing any code, and at the end of each pass removing the objects to avoid concurrent modification. Is there a better, preferably instant/non-polling way to do this?

    Read the article

  • avoiding enums as interface identifiers c++ OOP

    - by AlasdairC
    Hi I'm working on a plugin framework using dynamic loaded shared libraries which is based on Eclipse's (and probally other's) extension-point model. All plugins share similar properties (name, id, version etc) and each plugin could in theory satisfy any extension-point. The actual plugin (ie Dll) handling is managed by another library, all I am doing really is managing collections of interfaces for the application. I started by using an enum PluginType to distinguish the different interfaces, but I have quickly realised that using template functions made the code far cleaner and would leave the grunt work up to the compiler, rather than forcing me to use lots of switch {...} statements. The only issue is where I need to specify like functionality for class members - most obvious example is the default plugin which provides a particular interface. A Settings class handles all settings, including the default plugin for an interface. ie Skin newSkin = settings.GetDefault<ISkin>(); How do I store the default ISkin in a container without resorting to some other means of identifying the interface? As I mentioned above, I currently use a std::map<PluginType, IPlugin> Settings::defaults member to achieve this (where IPlugin is an abstract base class which all plugins derive from. I can then dynamic_cast to the desired interface when required, but this really smells of bad design to me and introduces more harm than good I think. would welcome any tips edit: here's an example of the current use of default plugins typedef boost::shared_ptr<ISkin> Skin; typedef boost::shared_ptr<IPlugin> Plugin; enum PluginType { skin, ..., ... } class Settings { public: void SetDefault(const PluginType type, boost::shared_ptr<IPlugin> plugin) { m_default[type] = plugin; } boost::shared_ptr<IPlugin> GetDefault(const PluginType type) { return m_default[type]; } private: std::map<PluginType, boost::shared_ptr<IPlugin> m_default; }; SkinManager::Initialize() { Plugin thedefault = g_settings.GetDefault(skinplugin); Skin defaultskin = boost::dynamic_pointer_cast<ISkin>(theskin); defaultskin->Initialize(); } I would much rather call the getdefault as the following, with automatic casting to the derived class. However I need to specialize for every class type. template<> Skin Settings::GetDefault<ISkin>() { return boost::dynamic_pointer_cast<ISkin>(m_default(skin)); }

    Read the article

  • Achieving C# "readonly" behavior in C++

    - by Tommy Fisk
    Hi guys, this is my first question on stack overflow, so be gentle. Let me first explain the exact behavior I would like to see. If you are familiar with C# then you know that declaring a variable as "readonly" allows a programmer to assign some value to that variable exactly once. Further attempts to modify the variable will result in an error. What I am after: I want to make sure that any and all single-ton classes I define can be predictably instantiated exactly once in my program (more details at the bottom). My approach to realizing my goal is to use extern to declare a global reference to the single-ton (which I will later instantiate at a time I choose. What I have sort of looks like this, namespace Global { extern Singleton& mainInstance; // not defined yet, but it will be later! } int main() { // now that the program has started, go ahead and create the singleton object Singleton& Global::mainInstance = Singleton::GetInstance(); // invalid use of qualified name Global::mainInstance = Singleton::GetInstance(); // doesn't work either :( } class Singleton { /* Some details ommited */ public: Singleton& GetInstance() { static Singleton instance; // exists once for the whole program return instance; } } However this does not really work, and I don't know where to go from here. Some details about what I'm up against: I'm concerned about threading as I am working on code that will deal with game logic while communicating with several third-party processes and other processes I will create. Eventually I would have to implement some kind of synchronization so multiple threads could access the information in the Singleton class without worry. Because I don't know what kinds of optimizations I might like to do, or exactly what threading entails (never done a real project using it), I was thinking that being able to predictably control when Singletons were instantiated would be a Good Thing. Imagine if Process A creates Process B, where B contains several Singletons distributed against multiple files and/or libraries. It could be a real nightmare if I can not reliably ensure the order these singleton objects are instantiated (because they could depend on each other, and calling methods on a NULL object is generally a Bad Thing). If I were in C# I would just use the readonly keyword, but is there any way I can implement this (compiler supported) behavior in C++? Is this even a good idea? Thanks for any feedback.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 362 363 364 365 366 367 368 369 370 371 372 373  | Next Page >