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• Can FluentNHibernate be used with .Net4?

  - by stiank81

  I have a WPF application running with .Net3.5 using FluentNHibernate, and all works fine. When I upgraded to VS2010 I ran into some odd problems, but after changing to use x64 variant of SQLite it worked fine again. Now I want to change to use .Net4, but this has turned into a more painful experience then I expected.. First I met a problem which required that I set a [SecurityCritical] attribute. Fine - I fixed this. But the reason this was exposed was because an exception was thrown in the first place. And the exception thrown was the following - when calling FluentConfiguration.BuildConfiguration: FluentConfigurationException unhandled An invalid or incomplete configuration was used while creating a SessionFactory. Check PotentialReasons collection, and InnerException for more detail The inner exception gives us more information: Message = "Could not create the driver from NHibernate.Driver.SQLite20Driver, NHibernate, Version=2.1.2.4000, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=aa95f207798dfdb4." This is what I saw in my own project when moving to VS2010. I have tried changing Fluent to use the x64 variant of SQLite, but this doesn't change anything. Does it sound like it might be related to mixing of 32bit and 64bit assemblies? I see that there are also others that have seen this problem, but I haven't really seen any solution yet. Anyone out there using Fluent with .Net4 and SQLite - on a 64bit machine - successfully? Help! I'm lost...

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• How do you replicate changes from one excel sheet to another in two separate excel apps?

  - by incognick

  This is all in C# .NET Excel Interop Automation for Office 2007. Say you create two excel apps and open the same workbook for each application: app = new Excel.ApplicationClass(); app2 = new Excel.ApplicationClass(); string fileLocation = "myBook.xslx"; workbook = app.Workbooks.Open(fileLocation, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing); workbook2 = app2.Workbooks.Open(fileLocation, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing); Now, I want to replicate any changes that occur in workbook2, into workbook. I figured out I can hook up the SheetChanged event to capture cell changes: app.SheetChange += new Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel.AppEvents_SheetChangeEventHandler(app_SheetChange); void app_SheetChange(object Sh, Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel.Range Target) { Excel.Worksheet sheetReadOnly = (Excel.Worksheet)Sh; string changedRange = Target.get_Address(missing, missing, Excel.XlReferenceStyle.xlA1, missing, missing); Console.WriteLine("The value of " + sheetReadOnly.Name + ":" + changedRange + " was changed to = " + Target.Value2); Excel.Worksheet sheet = workbook.Worksheets[sheetReadOnly.Index] as Excel.Worksheet; Excel.Range range = sheet.get_Range(changedRange, missing); range.Value2 = Target.Value2; } How do you capture calculate changes? I can hook onto the calculate event but the only thing that is passed is the sheet, not the cells that were updated. I tried forcing an app.Calculate() or app.CalculateFullRebuild() but nothing updates in the other application. The change event does not get fired when formulas change (i.e. a slider control causes a SheetCalculate event and not a SheetChange event) Is there a way to see what formulas were updated? Or is there an easier way to sync two workbooks programmatically in real time?

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• when updating location.hash in Chrome the jQuery animation "freezes" for a second

  - by ubunut

  I'm trying to create a sort of "virtual gallery". I'm using Coda Slider 2.0 & jQuery v1.4.2 It behaves perfectly in IE, FF & Safari, but Chrome seems to reload/hang for a second when setting location.hash. This causes the jQuery animation to freeze for a second :S Example: http://hardyernst.dk/gallery.html try clicking on the navigation links above the pictures. The jQuery code that is being executed when clicking a navigation link: $('#coda-nav-' + sliderCount + ' a').each(function(z) { // What happens when a nav link is clicked $(this).bind("click", function() { offset = -(panelWidth*z); navClicks++; $(this).addClass('current').parents('ul').find('a').not($(this)).removeClass('current'); alterPanelHeight(z); currentPanel = z + 1; $('.panel-container', slider).stop().animate({ left: offset }, settings.slideEaseDuration, settings.slideEaseFunction, function(){ if (!settings.crossLinking) { return false; } // Don't change the URL hash unless cross-linking is specified }); }); }); if I add return false; at the end of the function. The animation will slide smoothly :)... BUT as you might have guessed the location.hash value remains unchanged :( I have tried setting the location.hash earlier in the function alas it did not change the behavior in Chrome Would be immensely grateful for any help :) Regards Ubunut

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• My jquery cookies are not resetting, even though am using the correct code.

  - by Adam Libonatti-Roche

  My problem is that I am trying to reset some form cookies so when someone has completed their form, they are reset so it is possible for someone else to complete the form. Simple and obvious. But However many different lines of code I put in, the cookies just do not seem to be disappearing. I am using the remember function from the site below: Komodo Media So the details stay when they move away from the page: the code i have for the page starting is as follows: <script type="text/javascript"> function remember( selector ){ $(selector).each( function(){ //if this item has been cookied, restore it var name = $(this).attr('name'); if( $.cookie( name ) ){ if( $(this).is(':checkbox') ){ $(this).attr('checked',$.cookie( name )); }else{ $(this).val( $.cookie(name) ); } } //assign a change function to the item to cookie it $(this).change( function(){ if( $(this).is(':checkbox') ){ $.cookie(name, $(this).attr('checked'), { path: '/', expires: 1 }); }else{ $.cookie(''+name+'', $(this).val(), { path: '/', expires: 1 }); } }); }); } // JQUERY FOR THIS PAGE $(document).ready( function(){ remember("[name=username]"); remember("[name=firstname]"); remember("[name=lastname]"); remember("[name=email]"); remember("[name=password]"); remember("[name=address1]"); remember("[name=address2]"); remember("[name=postcode]"); remember("[name=country]"); } ); </script> And the code for resetting them is simple enough, as it takes the cookie name and sets it to null. However, this does not work as on returning to the form, all fields from before are still there. Any help with this would be brilliant.

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• How to use the Request URL/URL Rewriting For Localization in ASP.NET - Using an HTTP Module or Globa

  - by LocalizedUrlDMan

  I wanted to see if there is a way to use the request URL/URL rewriting to set the language a page is rendered in by examining a portion of the URL in ASP.NET. We have a site that already works with ASP.NET’s resource localization and user’s can change the language that they see pages/resources on the site in, however the current mechanism in not very search engine friendly since the language variations for each language all appear as one page. It would be much better if we could have pages like www.site.com/en-mx/realfolder/realpage.aspx that allow linking to culture specific versions of a page. I know lots of people have likely done localization through URL structures before and I wanted to know if one of your could share how to do this in the Global.asax file or with an HTTP Module (pointing to links to blog postings would be great too). We have a restriction that the site is based on ASP.NET 2.0 (so we can't used the 3.5+ features yet). Here is the example scenario: A real page exits at: www.site.com/realfolder/realpage.aspx The page has a mechanism for the user to change the language it is displayed in via a dropdown. There are search engine optimization and user links sharing benefits to doing this since people can link directly to a page that has content that is applicable to a certain language (this could also include right-to-left layouts for languages like Japanese). I would like to use an HTTP module to see if the first part of the URL after www.site.com, site.com, subdomain.site.com, etc. contains a valid culture code (e.g. en-us, es-mx) then use that value to set the localization culture of the page/resources based on that URL. So if the user accesses the URL www.site.com/en-MX/realfolder/realpage.aspx Then the page will render in Mexico’s variant of Spanish. If the user goes to www.site.com/realfolder/realpage.aspx directly the page would just use their browser’s language settings.

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• Using FluentNHibernate with .Net4

  - by stiank81

  I have a WPF application running with .Net3.5 using FluentNHibernate, and all works fine. When I upgraded to VS2010 I ran into some odd problems, but after changing to use x64 variant of SQLite it worked fine again. Now I want to change to use .Net4, but this has turned into a more painful experience then I expected.. First I met a problem which required that I set a [SecurityCritical] attribute. Fine - I fixed this. But the reason this was exposed was because an exception was thrown in the first place. And the exception thrown was the following - when calling FluentConfiguration.BuildConfiguration: FluentConfigurationException unhandled An invalid or incomplete configuration was used while creating a SessionFactory. Check PotentialReasons collection, and InnerException for more detail The inner exception gives us more information: Message = "Could not create the driver from NHibernate.Driver.SQLite20Driver, NHibernate, Version=2.1.2.4000, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=aa95f207798dfdb4." This is what I saw in my own project when moving to VS2010. I have tried changing Fluent to use the x64 variant of SQLite, but this doesn't change anything. Does it sound like it might be related to mixing of 32bit and 64bit assemblies? I see that there are also others that have seen this problem, but I haven't really seen any solution yet. Anyone out there using Fluent with .Net4 and SQLite - on a 64bit machine - successfully? Help! I'm lost...

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• How can I sync files in two different git repositories (not clones) and maintain history?

  - by brian d foy

  I maintain two different git repos that need to share some files, and I'd like the commits in one repo to show up in the other. What's a good way to do that for ongoing maintenance? I've been one of the maintainers of the perlfaq (Github), and recently I fell into the role of maintaining the Perl core documentation, which is also in git. Long before I started maintaining the perlfaq, it lived in a separate source control repository. I recently converted that to git. Periodically, one of the perl5-porters would sync the shared files in the perlfaq repo and the perl repo. Since we've switched to git, we'e been a bit lazy converting the tools, and I'm now the one who does that. For the time being, the two repos are going to stay separate. Currently, to sync the FAQ for a new (monthly) release of perl, I'm almost ashamed to say that I merely copy the perlfaq*.pod files in the perlfaq repo and overlay them in the perl repo. That loses history, etc. Additionally, sometimes someone makes a change to those files in the perl repo and I end up overwriting it (yes, check git diff you idiot!). The files do not have the same paths in the repo, but that's something that I could change, I think. What I'd like to do, in the magical universe of rainbows and ponies, is pull the objects from the perlfaq repo and apply them in the perl repo, and vice-versa, so the history and commit ids correspond in each. Creating patches works, but it's also a lot work to manage it Git submodules seem to only work to pull in the entire external repo I haven't found something like svn's file externals, but that would work in both directions anyway I'd love to just fetch objects from one and cherry-pick them in the other What's a good way to manage this?

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• Splitting MS Access Database - Front End Part Location

  - by kristof

  One of the best practices as specified by Microsoft for Access Development is splitting Access application into 2 parts; Front End that hold all the object except tables and the Back End that holds the tables. The msdn page links there to the article Splitting Microsoft Access Databases to Improve Performance and Simplify Maintainability that describes the process in details. It is recommended that in multi user environment the Back End is stored on the server/shared folder while the Front End is distributed to each user. That implies that each time there are any changes made to the front end they need to be deployed to every user machine. My question is: Assuming that the users themselves do not have rights to modify the Front End part of the application what would be the drawbacks/dangers of leaving this on the server as well next to the Back End copy? I can see the performance issues here, but are there any dangers here like possible corruptions etc? Thank you EDIT Just to clarify, the scenario specified in question assumes one Front End stored on the server and shared by users. I understand that the recommendation is to have FE deployed to each user machine, but my question is more about what are the dangers if that is not done. E.g. when you are given an existing solution that uses the approach of both FE and BE on the server. Assuming the the performance is acceptable and the customer is reluctant to change the approach would you still push the change? And why exactly? For example the danger of possible data corruption would definitely be the strong enough argument, but is that the case? It is a part of follow up of my previous question From SQL Server to MS Access 2007

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• How to setup a Zend_Application with an application.ini and a user.ini

  - by Peter Smit

  I am using Zend_Application and it does not feel right that I am mixing in my application.ini both application and user configuration. What I mean with this is the following. For example, my application needs some library classes in the namespace MyApp_ . So in application.ini I put autoloaderNamespaces[] = "MyApp_". This is pure application configuration, no-one except a programmer would change these. On the other hand I put there a database configuration, something that a SysAdmin would change. My idea is that I would split options between an application.ini and an user.ini, where the options in user.ini take preference (so I can define standard values in application.ini). Is this a good idea? How can I best implement this? The idea's I have are Extending Zend_Application to take multiple config files Making an init function in my Bootstrap loading the user.ini Parsing the config files in my index.php and pass these to Zend_Application (sounds ugly) What shall I do? I would like to have the 'cleanest' solution, which is prepared for the future (newer ZF versions, and other developers working on the same app)

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• How do I use text in one cell to trigger row to be copied on another sheet in Excel?

  - by Brian Eby

  I provide all of the cut lists for our cabinet manufacturing in Excel. I tally all parts for the entire job on the first worksheet in an Excel file, and then filter the rows based on the "Material" column, and manually copy/paste each row in to its own material-specific worksheet (example: I filter "Materials" column for "Maple Ply", and then copy all "Maple Ply" rows to the "Maple Ply" worksheet). Then the material specific worksheets are sent to the shop floor for cutting. This is time consuming, and if I need to change any data in the first page, I have to go and manually update the copied row in its material-specific page. Is there any way to make each material page "look" for its material, and automatically populate itself with any row that has the appropriate material in the material column (example: any time I enter "Maple Ply" in the material column of sheet one, that row is automatically copied to the "Maple Ply" worksheet)? If so, could this link be dynamic, rather than just a copy, so that if I change a cell in a particular row on sheet one, that data is also updated on the material-specific worksheet copy? Thank you, Brian

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• Adding changes from one Mercurial repository to another

  - by Patrik Hägne

  When changing the VCS for my project FakeItEasy from SVN to Mercurial on Google Code I was a bit too eager (I'm funny like that). What I did was just checking the latest version out of SVN and then commiting that checkout as the first revision of the new Mercurial repo. This obviously has the effect that all history is lost. Later when getting a bit better acustomed to Mercurial I realized that there is such a thing as a "convert extension" that allows you to convert a SVN repo into a Mercurial repo. Now what I want to do is to convert the old SVN repo and then have all change sets from the currently existing Mercurial repo imported into this converted repo except the very first commit to Mercurial. I've converted the SVN repo to a local Mercurial repo but now is when I'm stuck. I thought I'd be able to use the convert extension to bring the current Mercurial repository into the converted one and having a splice map remove the first commit but I can not seem to get this to work. I've also tried to just use convert without splice map to get all change sets from the current Mercurial repo into the converted one and the rebase the second version in the current to the last commit from the old SVN repository but I can't get that to work either. To make this clearer lets say I have these two repositories: A: revA1-revA2 B: revB1-revB2-revB3 (Where revB1 is actually a copy of revA2) Now I want to combine these two into the new repository containing this: C: revA1-revA2-revB2-revB3

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• using style in WPF

  - by Polaris

  In my application I use ShinyBlue.xaml resourse Dictionary which has this code for GroupBox control: <Style TargetType="{x:Type GroupBox}"> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type GroupBox}"> <Grid SnapsToDevicePixels="true"> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="6" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="*" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="6" /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition Height="Auto" /> <RowDefinition Height="Auto" /> <RowDefinition Height="*" /> <RowDefinition Height="6" /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <Border Grid.ColumnSpan="4" Grid.RowSpan="4" Background="{DynamicResource LightBrush}" CornerRadius="4,4,4,4" BorderThickness="1,1,1,1" /> </Grid> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> These style common for all app. But in one of the forms I want to change background to Transparent. I want override only Background Property but it's not work <Style TargetType="GroupBox" BasedOn="{StaticResource {x:Type GroupBox}}"> <Setter Property="Background" Value="Transparent"/> </Style> code above not works properly How can I change GroupBox Background in specific form ?.

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• Unit tests - The benefit from unit tests with contract changes?

  - by Stefan Hendriks

  Recently I had an interesting discussion with a colleague about unit tests. We where discussing when maintaining unit tests became less productive, when your contracts change. Perhaps anyone can enlight me how to approach this problem. Let me elaborate: So lets say there is a class which does some nifty calculations. The contract says that it should calculate a number, or it returns -1 when it fails for some reason. I have contract tests who test that. And in all my other tests I stub this nifty calculator thingy. So now I change the contract, whenever it cannot calculate it will throw a CannotCalculateException. My contract tests will fail, and I will fix them accordingly. But, all my mocked/stubbed objects will still use the old contract rules. These tests will succeed, while they should not! The question that rises, is that with this faith in unit testing, how much faith can be placed in such changes... The unit tests succeed, but bugs will occur when testing the application. The tests using this calculator will need to be fixed, which costs time and may even be stubbed/mocked a lot of times... How do you think about this case? I never thought about it thourougly. In my opinion, these changes to unit tests would be acceptable. If I do not use unit tests, I would also see such bugs arise within test phase (by testers). Yet I am not confident enough to point out what will cost more time (or less). Any thoughts?

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• How can I find out why a website looks different when I upload it to IIS ?

  - by UXdesigner

  Good day... I've been working on a website project, that requires to be on a Microsoft IIS Web Server. It is HTML, pure HTML, with really nice CSS, web-standards, etc. I open this website using in my computer, using Firefox, IE 8.0, Safari, Google Chrome and it looks fine everywhere. But as I upload it to the Microsoft IIS server, it changes a few things. for example: the main menu, which is a navigation bar that has dropdowns, seems to change it's line-height for some reason, and it is bigger. Some <h3> or <h2> Alignment seems wrong as well... And the lines that are supposed to surround the photographs in the website (like a frame - dotted line) won't appear. But all the rest of the CSS is loading perfectly fine. I don't think it's a path problem as everything is loading fine. But this is making me look bad and it is very important to have this done as soon as possible. Can someone give me good suggestions on what to look at ? The IIS permissions seem fine. I'm not a big Microsoft fan...but I have to develop the website there. Also, I uploaded the site to my apache server and it worked wonders. I wish I could change the policies in this corporation, but I can't. Thank you so much for your kind help.

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• Binding event handlers to specific elements, using bubbling (JavaScript/jQuery)

  - by Bungle

  I'm working on a project that approximates the functionality of Firebug's inspector tool. That is, when mousing over elements on the page, I'd like to highlight them (by changing their background color), and when they're clicked, I'd like to execute a function that builds a CSS selector that can be used to identify them. However, I've been running into problems related to event bubbling, and have thoroughly confused myself. Rather than walk you down that path, it might make sense just to explain what I'm trying to do and ask for some help getting started. Here are some specs: I'm only interested in elements that contain a text node (or any descendant elements with text nodes). When the mouse enters such an element, change its background color. When the mouse leaves that element, change its background color back to what it was originally. When an element is clicked, execute a function that builds a CSS selector for that element. I don't want a mouseover on an element's margin area to count as a mouseover for that element, but for the element beneath (I think that's default browser behavior anyway?). I can handle the code that highlights/unhighlights, and builds the CSS selector. What I'm primarily having trouble with is efficiently binding event handlers to the elements that I want to be highlightable/clickable, and avoiding/stopping bubbling so that mousing over a (<p>) element doesn't also execute the handler function on the <body>, for example. I think the right way to do this is to bind event handlers to the document element, then somehow use bubbling to only execute the bound function on the topmost element, but I don't have any idea what that code looks like, and that's really where I could use help. I'm using jQuery, and would like to rely on that as much as possible. Thanks in advance for any guidance!

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• inverse relation to multiple inheriting classes in django

  - by Ofri Raviv

  Here are my schematic models: class Law(models.Model): ... class Bill(models.Model): ... # data for a proposed law, or change of an existing law class PrivateBill(Bill): ... # data for a Bill that was initiated by a parliament member class GovernmentBill(Bill): ... # data for a Bill that was initiated by the government It is possible and likely that in the future I (or maybe someone else) would want to add more Bill types. Every Bill should point to a Law (indicating what law this bill is going to change) and my question is: What is the best way to implement this? If I add the ForeignKey(Law) to Bill, I'll have a relation from every Bill to Law, but a Law would only have an inverse relation to Bills (bill_set), and not a different inverse relation to each type of bill. Of course I'll be able to filter each type of bill to get only the ones pointing to a specific Law, but this is something I think I'll need to use often, so I think having privatebill_set, governmentbill_set etc would make the code more readable. Another possible solution is to add the foreign key to each of the inheriting classes (this would give me a privatebill_set, governmentbill_set, futurebill_set), but that seems hairy because I would be relying on future programmers to remember to add that relation. How would you solve this?

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• WPF tree data binding

  - by Am

  Hi, I have a well defined tree repository. Where I can rename items, move them up, down, etc. Add new and delete. The data is stored in a table as follows: Index Parent Label Left Right 1 0 root 1 14 2 1 food 2 7 3 2 cake 3 4 4 2 pie 5 6 5 1 flowers 8 13 6 5 roses 9 10 7 5 violets 11 12 Representing the following tree: (1) root (14) (2) food (7) (8) flowers (13) (3) cake (4) (5) pie (6) (9) roeses (10) (11) violets (12) or root food cake pie flowers roses violets Now, my problem is how to represent this in a bindable way, so that a TreeView can handle all the possible data changes? Renaming is easy, all I need is to make the label an updatble field. But what if a user moves flowers above food? I can make the relevant data changes, but they cause a complete data change to all other items in the tree. And all the examples I found of bindable hierarchies are good for non static trees.. So my current (and bad) solution is to reload the displayed tree after relocation change. Any direction will be good. Thanks

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• Database sharing/versioning

  - by DarkJaff

  Hi everyone, I have a question but I'm not sure of the word to use. My problem: I have an application using a database to stock information. The database can ben in access (local) or in a server (SQL Server or Oracle). We support these 3 kind of database. We want to give the possibility to the user to do what I think we can call versioning. Let me explain : We have a database 1. This is the master. We want to be able to create a database 2 that will be the same thing as database 1 but we can give it to someone else. They each work on each other side, adding, modifying and deleting records on this very complex database. After that, we want the database 1 to include the change from database 2, but with the possibility to dismiss some of the change. For you information, ou application is already multiuser so why don't we just use this multi-user and forget about this versionning? It's because sometimes, we need to give a copy of the database to another company on another site and they can't connect on our server. They work on their side and then, we want to merge. Is there anyone here with experience with this type of requirement? We have a lot of ideas but most of them require a LOT of work, massive modification to the database or to the existing queries. This is a 2 millions and growing C++ app, so rewriting it is not possible! Thanks for any ideas that you may give us! J-F

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• jQuery date picker not persistant after AJAX

  - by ILMV

  So I'm using the jQuery date picker, and it works well. I am using AJAX to go and get some content, obviously when this new content is applied the bind is lost, I learnt about this last week and discovered about the .live() method. But how do I apply that to my date picker? Because this isn't an event therefore .live() won't be able to help... right? This is the code I'm using to bind the date picker to my input: $(".datefield").datepicker({showAnim:'fadeIn',dateFormat:'dd/mm/yy',changeMonth:true,changeYear:true}); I do not want to call this metho everytime my AJAX fires, as I want to keep that as generic as possible. Cheers :-) EDIT As @nick requested, below is my wrapper function got the ajax() method: var ajax_count = 0; function getElementContents(options) { if(options.type===null) { options.type="GET"; } if(options.data===null) { options.data={}; } if(options.url===null) { options.url='/'; } if(options.cache===null) { options.cace=false; } if(options.highlight===null || options.highlight===true) { options.highlight=true; } else { options.highlight=false; } $.ajax({ type: options.type, url: options.url, data: options.data, beforeSend: function() { /* if this is the first ajax call, block the screen */ if(++ajax_count==1) { $.blockUI({message:'Loading data, please wait'}); } }, success: function(responseText) { /* we want to perform different methods of assignment depending on the element type */ if($(options.target).is("input")) { $(options.target).val(responseText); } else { $(options.target).html(responseText); } /* fire change, fire highlight effect... only id highlight==true */ if(options.highlight===true) { $(options.target).trigger("change").effect("highlight",{},2000); } }, complete: function () { /* if all ajax requests have completed, unblock screen */ if(--ajax_count===0) { $.unblockUI(); } }, cache: options.cache, dataType: "html" }); } What about this solution, I have a rules.js which include all my initial bindings with the elements, if I were to put these in a function, then call that function on the success callback of the ajax method, that way I wouldn't be repeating code... Hmmm, thoughts please :D

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• jquery question for events

  - by OM The Eternity

  I have to copy the text from one text box to another using checkbox through jquery I have applied jquery event in my code, it works partially correct.. code is as follows: <html> <head> <script src="js/jquery.js" ></script> </head> <body> <form> <input type="text" name="startdate" id="startdate" value=""/> <input type="text" name="enddate" id="enddate" value=""/> <input type="checkbox" name="checker" id="checker" /> </form> <script> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#startdate").change(function(o){ if($("#checker").is(":checked")){ $("#enddate").val($("#startdate").val()); } }); }); </script> </body> </html> this code works as follows, I always have checkbox checked by default hence whenever i insert the start date and then tab, the start date gets copied to enddate. My Problem but now if uncheck the checkbox and change the start date and then recheck the check box, the start date is not copied, Now what should be done in this situation.. please help me....

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• SFINAE failing with enum template parameter

  - by zeroes00

  Can someone explain the following behaviour (I'm using Visual Studio 2010). header: #pragma once #include <boost\utility\enable_if.hpp> using boost::enable_if_c; enum WeekDay {MONDAY, TUESDAY, WEDNESDAY, THURSDAY, FRIDAY, SATURDAY, SUNDAY}; template<WeekDay DAY> typename enable_if_c< DAY==SUNDAY, bool >::type goToWork() {return false;} template<WeekDay DAY> typename enable_if_c< DAY!=SUNDAY, bool >::type goToWork() {return true;} source: bool b = goToWork<MONDAY>(); compiler this gives error C2770: invalid explicit template argument(s) for 'enable_if_c<DAY!=6,bool>::type goToWork(void)' and error C2770: invalid explicit template argument(s) for 'enable_if_c<DAY==6,bool>::type goToWork(void)' But if I change the function template parameter from the enum type WeekDay to int, it compiles fine: template<int DAY> typename enable_if_c< DAY==SUNDAY, bool >::type goToWork() {return false;} template<int DAY> typename enable_if_c< DAY!=SUNDAY, bool >::type goToWork() {return true;} Also the normal function template specialization works fine, no surprises there: template<WeekDay DAY> bool goToWork() {return true;} template<> bool goToWork<SUNDAY>() {return false;} To make things even weirder, if I change the source file to use any other WeekDay than MONDAY or TUESDAY, i.e. bool b = goToWork<THURSDAY>(); the error changes to this: error C2440: 'specialization' : cannot convert from 'int' to 'const WeekDay' Conversion to enumeration type requires an explicit cast (static_cast, C-style cast or function-style cast)

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• Just messed up a server misusing chown, how to execute it correctly?

  - by Jack Webb-Heller

  Hi! I'm moving from an old shared host to a dedicated server at MediaTemple. The server is running Plesk CP, but, as far as I can tell, there's no way via the Interface to do what I want to do. On the old shared host, running cPanel, I creative a .zip archive of all the website's files. I downloaded this to my computer, then uploaded it with FTP to the new host account I'd set up. Finally, I logged in via SSH, navigated to the directory the zip was stored in (something like var/www/vhosts/mysite.com/httpdocs/ and ran the unzip command on the file sitearchive.zip. This extracted everything just the fine. The site appeared to work just fine. The problem: When I tried to edit a file through FTP, I got Error - 160: Permission Denied. When I Get Info for the file I'm trying to edit, it says the owner and group is swimwir1. I attemped to use chown at this point to change owner - and yes, as you may be able to tell, I'm a little inexperienced in SSH ;) luckily the server was new, since the command I ran - chown -R newuser / appeared to mess a load of stuff up. The reason I used / on the end rather than /var/www/vhosts/mysite.com/httpdocs/ was because I'd already cded into their, so I presumed the / was relative to where I was working. This may be the case, I have no idea, either way - Plesk was no longer accessible, although Apache and things continued to work. I realised my mistake, and deciding it wasn't worth the hassle of 1) being an amateur and 2) trying to fix it, I just reprovisioned the server to start afresh. So - what do I do to change the owner of these files correctly? Thanks for helping out a confused beginner! Jack

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• IList<Item> Collection Class accessing database

  - by Mike

  Hi, I have a database with Users. Users have Items. These Items can change actively. How do you access the items in a collection type format? For the user, I fill all the user properties at the time of instantiation. If I load the user's items at the time of the instantiation, and the items change, they will have old data. I was thinking, maybe I need an ItemCollection class and have that a field/property apart of the user class, that way to traverse all the user's items I could use a foreach loop. So, my question is, what is the best practice/best way of accessing the items from a database using some sort of collection? On accessing the particular Item, it needs to get the latest database information, and when the user does do a foreach loop, the latest item information must be available. I.e. What I'm trying to do Console.WriteLine(User.Items[3].ID); returns 5. //this updates the item information and saves it to the database. User.Items[3].ID = 13; //Add a new item to the database. User.Items.Add(new Item { id = 17}); foreach (Item item in User.Items) { //this would traverse all items in the database. //not some cached copy at the time of instantiation of the user. }

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• Child sProc cannot reference a Local temp table created in parent sProc

  - by John Galt

  On our production SQL2000 instance, we have a database with hundreds of stored procedures, many of which use a technique of creating a #TEMP table "early" on in the code and then various inner stored procedures get EXECUTEd by this parent sProc. In SQL2000, the inner or "child" sProc have no problem INSERTing into #TEMP or SELECTing data from #TEMP. In short, I assume they can all refer to this #TEMP because they use the same connection. In testing with SQL2008, I find 2 manifestations of different behavior. First, at design time, the new "intellisense" feature is complaining in Management Studio EDIT of the child sProc that #TEMP is an "invalid object name". But worse is that at execution time, the invoked parent sProc fails inside the nested child sProc. Someone suggested that the solution is to change to ##TEMP which is apparently a global temporary table which can be referenced from different connections. That seems too drastic a proposal both from the amount of work to chase down all the problem spots as well as possible/probable nasty effects when these sProcs are invoked from web applications (i.e. multiuser issues). Is this indeed a change in behavior in SQL2005 or SQL2008 regarding #TEMP (local temp tables)? We skipped 2005 but I'd like to learn more precisely why this is occuring before I go off and try to hack out the needed fixes. Thanks.

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• PHP syntax for referencing self with late static binding

  - by Chris

  When I learned PHP it was pretty much in procedural form, more recently I've been trying to adapt to the OOP way of doing things. Hoever the tutorials I've been following were produced before PHP 5.3 when late static binding was introduced. What I want to know is how do I reference self when calling a function from a parent class. For example these two methods were written for a User class which is a child of DatabaseObject. Right now they're sitting inside the User class, but, as they're used in other child classes of DatabaseObject I'd like to promote them to be included inside DatabaseObject. public static function find_all() { global $database; $result_set = self::find_by_sql("select * from ".self::$table_name); return $result_set; } and: protected function cleaned_attributes() { global $database; $clean_attributes = array(); foreach($this->attributes() as $key => $value) { $clean_attributes[$key] = $database->escape_value($value); } return $clean_attributes; } So I have three questions: 1) How do I change the self:: reference when I move it to the parent. Is it static:: or something similar? 2) When calling the function from my code do I call it in the same way, as a function of the child class eg User::find_all() or is there a change there also? 3) Is there anything else I need to know before I start chopping bits up?

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