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  • Binding Silverlight UserControl custom properties to its' elements

    - by ghostskunks
    Hi. I'm trying to make a simple crossword puzzle game in Silverlight 2.0. I'm working on a UserControl-ish component that represents a square in the puzzle. I'm having trouble with binding up my UserControl's properties with its' elements. I've finally (sort of) got it working (may be helpful to some - it took me a few long hours), but wanted to make it more 'elegant'. I've imagined it should have a compartment for the content and a label (in the upper right corner) that optionally contains its' number. The content control probably be a TextBox, while label control could be a TextBlock. So I created a UserControl with this basic structure (the values are hardcoded at this stage): <UserControl x:Class="XWord.Square" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" FontSize="30" Width="100" Height="100"> <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot" Background="White"> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="*"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto"/> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition Height="Auto"/> <RowDefinition Height="*"/> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <TextBlock x:Name="Label" Grid.Row="0" Grid.Column="1" Text="7"/> <TextBox x:Name="Content" Grid.Row="1" Grid.Column="0" Text="A" BorderThickness="0" /> </Grid> </UserControl> I've also created DependencyProperties in the Square class like this: public static readonly DependencyProperty LabelTextProperty; public static readonly DependencyProperty ContentCharacterProperty; // ...(static constructor with property registration, .NET properties // omitted for brevity)... Now I'd like to figure out how to bind the Label and Content element to the two properties. I do it like this (in the code-behind file): Label.SetBinding( TextBlock.TextProperty, new Binding { Source = this, Path = new PropertyPath( "LabelText" ), Mode = BindingMode.OneWay } ); Content.SetBinding( TextBox.TextProperty, new Binding { Source = this, Path = new PropertyPath( "ContentCharacter" ), Mode = BindingMode.TwoWay } ); That would be more elegant done in XAML. Does anyone know how that's done?

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  • Strange error inserting new relationship data in core-data

    - by michael
    My app will allow users to create a personalised list of events from a large list of events. I have a table view which simply displays these events, tapping on one of them takes the user to the event details view, which has a button "add to my events". In this detailed view I own the original event object, retrieved via an NSFetchedResultsController and passed to the detailed view (via a table cell, the same as the core data recipes sample). I have no trouble retrieving/displaying information from this "event". I am then trying to add it to the list of MyEvents represented by a one to many (inverse) relationship: This code: NSManagedObjectContext *context = [event managedObjectContext]; MyEvents *myEvents = (MyEvents *)[NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"MyEvents" inManagedObjectContext:context]; [myEvents addEventObject:event];//ERROR And this code (suggested below): //would this add to or overwrite the "list" i am attempting to maintain NSManagedObjectContext *context = [event managedObjectContext]; MyEvents *myEvents = (MyEvents *)[NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"MyEvents" inManagedObjectContext:context]; NSMutableSet *myEvent = [myEvents mutableSetValueForKey:@"event"]; [myEvent addObject:event]; //ERROR Bot produce (at the line indicated by //ERROR): *** -[NSComparisonPredicate evaluateWithObject:]: message sent to deallocated instance Seems I may have missed something fundamental. I cant glean any more information through the use of debugging tools, with my knowledge of them. 1) Is this a valid way to compile and store an editable list like this? 2) Is there a better way? 3) What could possibly be the deallocated instance in error? -- I have now modified the Event entity to have a to-many relationship called "myEvents" which referrers to itself. I can add Events to this fine, and logging the object shows the correct memory addresses appearing for the relationship after a [event addMyEventObject:event];. The same failure happens right after this however. I am still at a loss to understand what is going wrong. This is the backtrace #0 0x01f753a7 in ___forwarding___ () #1 0x01f516c2 in __forwarding_prep_0___ () #2 0x01c5aa8f in -[NSFetchedResultsController(PrivateMethods) _preprocessUpdatedObjects:insertsInfo:deletesInfo:updatesInfo:sectionsWithDeletes:newSectionNames:treatAsRefreshes:] () #3 0x01c5d63b in -[NSFetchedResultsController(PrivateMethods) _managedObjectContextDidChange:] () #4 0x0002e63a in _nsnote_callback () #5 0x01f40005 in _CFXNotificationPostNotification () #6 0x0002bef0 in -[NSNotificationCenter postNotificationName:object:userInfo:] () #7 0x01bbe17d in -[NSManagedObjectContext(_NSInternalNotificationHandling) _postObjectsDidChangeNotificationWithUserInfo:] () #8 0x01c1d763 in -[NSManagedObjectContext(_NSInternalChangeProcessing) _createAndPostChangeNotification:withDeletions:withUpdates:withRefreshes:] () #9 0x01ba25ea in -[NSManagedObjectContext(_NSInternalChangeProcessing) _processRecentChanges:] () #10 0x01bdfb3a in -[NSManagedObjectContext processPendingChanges] () #11 0x01bd0957 in _performRunLoopAction () #12 0x01f4d252 in __CFRunLoopDoObservers () #13 0x01f4c65f in CFRunLoopRunSpecific () #14 0x01f4bc48 in CFRunLoopRunInMode () #15 0x0273878d in GSEventRunModal () #16 0x02738852 in GSEventRun () #17 0x002ba003 in UIApplicationMain () Cheers.

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  • velocity vector

    - by wanderer
    Hi, I am trying to simulate a collision. The collision is shown here http://www.freeimagehosting.net/image.php?c5ae01b476.jpg A particle falls down on a sphere and a collision between sphere and particle takes place. The sphere always remain stationary and the collision itself is not elastic. So if the particle falls directly n top of sphere, the velocity of particle will become zero. I was trying to set the velocity of particle to be zero after the collision. But that does not give good simulation when the collision does not occur on top of sphere but along the side of sphere. So now after the collision i need to make sure that the particle has a velocity which is orthogonal to the vector of the point of collision from the center of sphere. The velocity along the vector from center of sphere to point of collision should become zero. How do i do that? I am a bit mathematically challenged but i think it has something to do with dot product of vectors. Or maybe i am wrong :) I have the initial velocity vector and 'radiusvector' say :- 1)velocity <-1.03054, -1.56563, 1.33341e-016 2) radius vector <2.04406, 2.19587, 1.0514 Pseudo code for the problem is: foreach( particle particle in particlesCollections) { //sphere.x, sphere.y sphere.z give the center of the sphere dist = particle.pos-vector(sphere.x,sphere.y,sphere.z); //detect if a collision has taken place. if (dist.mag < sphere.radius) { rVector=dist/dist.mag*sphere.radius; particle.pos=vector(sphere.x,sphere.y,sphere.z) + rVector; //particle.Velocity gives the velocity vector of the particle at the time of collision //i need to modify particle.Velocity so that the component of velocity that runs along // with the rvector becomes zero as i have a non elsatic collision. The remaining //velocity that the particle will have is the one which runs along with tangent to the //rVector. The sphere remains stationary. //example values: particle.Velocity == <-1.03054, -1.56563, .006> //and rVector = <2.04406, 2.19587, 1.0514> } } Thanks

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  • Potential issues using member's "from" address and the "sender" header

    - by Paul Burney
    Hi all, A major component of our application sends email to members on behalf of other members. Currently we set the "From" address to our system address and use a "Reply-to" header with the member's address. The issue is that replies from some email clients (and auto-replies/bounces) don't respect the "Reply-to" header so get sent to our system address, effectively sending them to a black hole. We're considering setting the "From" address to our member's address, and the "Sender" address to our system address. It appears this way would pass SPF and Sender-ID checks. Are there any reasons not to switch to this method? Are there any other potential issues? Thanks in advance, -Paul Here are way more details than you probably need: When the application was first developed, we just changed the "from" address to be that of the sending member as that was the common practice at the time (this was many years ago). We later changed that to have the "from" address be the member's name and our address, i.e., From: "Mary Smith" <[email protected]> With a "reply-to" header set to the member's address: Reply-To: "Mary Smith" <[email protected]> This helped with messages being mis-categorized as spam. As SPF became more popular, we added an additional header that would work in conjunction with our SPF records: Sender: <[email protected]> Things work OK, but it turns out that, in practice, some email clients and most MTA's don't respect the "Reply-To" header. Because of this, many members send messages to [email protected] instead of the desired member. So, I started envisioning various schemes to add data about the sender to the email headers or encode it in the "from" email address so that we could process the response and redirect appropriately. For example, From: "Mary Smith" <[email protected]> where the string after "messages" is a hash representing Mary Smith's member in our system. Of course, that path could lead to a lot of pain as we need to develop MTA functionality for our system address. I was looking again at the SPF documentation and found this page interesting: http://www.openspf.org/Best_Practices/Webgenerated They show two examples, that of evite.com and that of egreetings.com. Basically, evite.com is doing it the way we're doing it. The egreetings.com example uses the member's from address with an added "Sender" header. So the question is, are there any potential issues with using the egreetings method of the member's from address with a sender header? That would eliminate the replies that bad clients send to the system address. I don't believe that it solves the bounce/vacation/whitelist issue since those often send to the MAIL FROM even if Return Path is specified.

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  • Eclipselink read complex oject model in an ordered way

    - by Raven
    Hi, I need to read a complex model in an ordered way with eclipselink. The order is mandantory because it is a huge database and I want to have an output of a small portion of the database in a jface tableview. Trying to reorder it in the loading/quering thread takes too long and ordering it in the LabelProvider blocks the UI thread too much time, so I thought if Eclipselink could be used that way, that the database will order it, it might give me the performance I need. Unfortunately the object model can not be changed :-( The model is something like: @SuppressWarnings("serial") @Entity public class Thing implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.TABLE) private int id; private String name; @OneToMany(cascade=CascadeType.ALL) @PrivateOwned private List<Property> properties = new ArrayList<Property>(); ... // getter and setter following here } public class Property implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.TABLE) private int id; @OneToOne private Item item; private String value; ... // getter and setter following here } public class Item implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.TABLE) private int id; private String name; .... // getter and setter following here } // Code end In the table view the y-axis is more or less created with the query Query q = em.createQuery("SELECT m FROM Thing m ORDER BY m.name ASC"); using the "name" attribute from the Thing objects as label. In the table view the x-axis is more or less created with the query Query q = em.createQuery("SELECT m FROM Item m ORDER BY m.name ASC"); using the "name" attribute from the Item objects as label. Each cell has the value Things.getProperties().get[x].getValue() Unfortunately the list "properties" is not ordered, so the combination of cell value and x-axis column number (x) is not necessarily correct. Therefore I need to order the list "properties" in the same way as I ordered the labeling of the x-axis. And exactly this is the thing I dont know how it is done. So querying for the Thing objects should return the list "properties" "ORDER BY name ASC" but of the "Item"s objects. My ideas are something like having a query with two JOINs. Joing Things with Property and with Item but somehow I was unable to get it to work yet. Thank you for your help and your ideas to solve this riddle.

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  • WPF / Silverlight Binding when setting DataTemplate programically

    - by Daniel
    I have my little designer tool (my program). On the left side I have TreeView and on the right site I have Accordion. When I select a node I want to dynamically build Accordion Items based on Properties from DataContext of selected node. Selecting nodes works fine, and when I use this sample code for testing it works also. XAML code: <layoutToolkit:Accordion x:Name="accPanel" SelectionMode="ZeroOrMore" SelectionSequence="Simultaneous"> <layoutToolkit:AccordionItem Header="Controller Info"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal" DataContext="{Binding}"> <TextBlock Text="Content:" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=Name}" /> </StackPanel> </layoutToolkit:AccordionItem> </layoutToolkit:Accordion> C# code: private void treeSceneNode_SelectedItemChanged(object sender, RoutedPropertyChangedEventArgs<object> e) { if (e.NewValue != e.OldValue) { if (e.NewValue is SceneNode) { accPanel.DataContext = e.NewValue; //e.NewValue is a class that contains Name property } } } But the problem occurs when I'm trying to achive this using DateTemplate and dynamically build AccordingItem, the Binding is not working: <layoutToolkit:Accordion x:Name="accPanel" SelectionMode="ZeroOrMore" SelectionSequence="Simultaneous" /> and DataTemplate in my ResourceDictionary <DataTemplate x:Key="dtSceneNodeContent"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal" DataContext="{Binding}"> <TextBlock Text="Content:" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=Name}" /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> and C# code: private void treeSceneNode_SelectedItemChanged(object sender, RoutedPropertyChangedEventArgs<object> e) { if (e.NewValue != e.OldValue) { ResourceDictionary rd = new ResourceDictionary(); rd.Source = new Uri("/SilverGL.GUI;component/SilverGLDesignerResourceDictionary.xaml", UriKind.RelativeOrAbsolute); if (e.NewValue is SceneNode) { accPanel.DataContext = e.NewValue; AccordionItem accController = new AccordionItem(); accController.Header = "Controller Info"; accController.ContentTemplate = rd["dtSceneNodeContent"] as DataTemplate; accPanel.Items.Add(accController); } else { // Other type of node } } } I really need help with this issue. Thanks for any support.

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  • Xsd recursion of complexTypes

    - by Hatch
    I am just learning XML/XSD and am struggling with the implementation of an XML-schema which models a folder structure. What I had in mind was defining a complexType for the folder which can have additional folder instances that represent subfolders. Using the xsd schema validator here always returns that the schema is invalid. I tried defining the complexType up front and then using the ref keyword for subfolders: <xs:complexType name="tFolder"> <xs:sequence> <xs:element name="Path" type="tFolderType" msdata:Ordinal="0" /> <xs:element ref="Folder" minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="unbounded" /> <xs:element name="File" nillable="true" minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="unbounded"> <xs:complexType> <xs:simpleContent msdata:ColumnName="File_Text" msdata:Ordinal="0"> <xs:extension base="xs:string"> </xs:extension> </xs:simpleContent> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> </xs:sequence> <xs:attribute name="Type" type="tFolderType" /> As for the element itself: <xs:element name="Folder" type="tFolder" /> The error returned by the validator is: "Cannot resolve the name 'Folder' to a(n) 'element declaration' component." and the error occurs at the line <xs:element ref="Folder" minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="unbounded" /\> Defining the complexType within the element itself yields the exact same error: <xs:element name="Folder"> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <xs:element name="Path" type="tFolderType" msdata:Ordinal="0" /> <xs:element ref="Folder" minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="unbounded" /> <xs:element name="File" nillable="true" minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="unbounded"> <xs:complexType> <xs:simpleContent msdata:ColumnName="File_Text" msdata:Ordinal="0"> <xs:extension base="xs:string"> </xs:extension> </xs:simpleContent> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> </xs:sequence> <xs:attribute name="Type" type="tFolderType" /> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> What I've read, this kind of recursion should work using ref. Can anyone tell me what I've done wrong? Maybe the xsd validator is just faulty? If so, does anyone know a better alternative? I've tried using the one from w3.org as well, but it seems to be taken offline...

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  • Absolute reRendering using RichFaces

    - by wheelie
    Hey there, I am implementing copy/paste functionality for a complex object tree, this means you can copy an object and paste it where the object type is the same. Therefore I need to reRender the <a4j:commandLink>-s which are performing the paste action (so it will show on the GUI or not). Simplified example: Problem is that copy links are deep in the tree. How is it possible to reRender on a higher level in the component tree? (very)Simplified example: ... <h:form id="form1"> ... <a4j:commandLink value="Copy" reRender=":paste1, :paste2, :paste3" /> <a4j:commandLink id="paste1" value="Paste" rendered="#{myBean.myHashMap.key}" /> <a4j:outputPanel> <a4j:region renderRegionOnly="true"> <a4j:commandLink value="Copy" reRender=":paste1, :paste2, :paste3" /> <a4j:commandLink id="paste2" value="Paste" rendered="#{myBean.myHashMap.key}" /> </a4j:region> <a4j:outputPanel> <a4j:region renderRegionOnly="true"> <a4j:commandLink value="Copy" reRender=":paste1, :paste2, :paste3" /> <a4j:commandLink id="paste3" value="Paste" rendered="#{myBean.myHashMap.key}" /> </a4j:region> </a4j:outputPanel> </a4j:outputPanel> ... </h:form> Something like that. In practise this differs in that a rich:tree is displayed. Also, there can be multiple instances of the same paste link: object:0::paste3, object:1::paste3. private final String pasteIDs = ":xxPaste, ... , :xyPaste"; According to the RichFaces reference, putting the separator to the beginning of the ID means it is an "absolute" search expression, however this way i get the same result: only the 'local' paste link gets rerendered, the others not. Every copy-paste link pair is encapsulated in <a4j:region renderRegionOnly="true">, because it is necessary for other components to restrict the reRender to that region. Could this be blocking the reRender I want to make? Also I want to rerender exactly those paste links, so no other rerender action is triggered. Hope it is clear what i want to achieve. Any help would be appreciated! Daniel

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  • Am I "wasting" my time learning C and other low level stuff ?

    - by Andreas Grech
    I have just recently started learning C and the reason I did that was because frankly, I consider myself to be of a "less-developer" than the people who know and work with C. Thus I planned to start learning ASM, C, C++ and bought the K&R book and started pushing myself to learn the C Programming Language and up till now I'm doing great...learning about arrays the low level way (ie the pointer + offset thing), pointers and all that and obviously asking questions on stackoverflow for guidance. My problem is that sometimes I get thinking if instead of learning this low level stuff, maybe I should maybe spend more time learning newer, more widely used technologies...basically, more web stuff. Now I am well versed with both C# and ASP.Net and currently that's what I do for a living, but still there exists Microsoft technologies that I haven't quite touched upon...such as ASP.Net MVC, The Entity Framework etc... And those are only Microsoft Technologies...obviously there are other stuff that I would like to touch upon...stuff like Ruby, which would lead me to Ruby on Rails, or Python for Django or even Java and J2EE, or maybe even PHP; ie, basically mainly Web Stuff. Mind you, I did touch upon some of the stuff I mentioned earlier on, such as PHP and Java but I am still not quite versed in them as I am in C# and ASP.Net...but still, I think that by learning other languages that are used in the web environment will broaden my horizons...both as a developer who loves learning, and also Career wise. My point is, am I really using up my time correctly by learning older, lower level stuff? Stuff that for my current line of work, will most probably never use, but still is interesting to know ? To be frankly honest, I am also learning C so that I could, maybe someday, get into Electronics and Micro-controller programming but that is a whole new world for me and, if I choose to go there, will take some time to get adjusted to. And even then, I don't know if I can get a career in working in that line of work. ...but I still wonder about this question over and over...Am I doing the right thing by learning C instead of something (Web-stuff) that will most probably be more useful for me career-wise? I'm sorry for such asking such a long and most probably a boring question, but I feel as if this is the only place where I can ask such a question and get an honest answer from experts in the field. Thank you for your time.

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  • How to Configure SSL over Database in Spring?

    - by Sameer Malhotra
    Hi, I want to add SSL security in the Database layer. I am using Struts2.1.6, Spring 2.5, JBOSS 5.0 and Informix 11.5. Any idea how to do this? I have researched through a lot on the internet but could not find any solution. Please suggest! Here is my datasource and entity manager beans which is working perfect without SSL: <bean id="entityManagerFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean"> <property name="dataSource" ref="dataSource" /> <property name="jpaVendorAdapter"> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.vendor.HibernateJpaVendorAdapter"> <property name="database" value="INFORMIX" /> <property name="showSql" value="true" /> </bean> </property> </bean> <bean id="dataSource" class="org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource" destroy-method="close"> <property name="driverClassName" value="com.informix.jdbc.IfxDriver" /> <property name="url" value="jdbc:informix-sqli://SERVER_NAME:9088/DB_NAME:INFORMIXSERVER=SERVER_NAME;DELIMIDENT=y;" /> <property name="username" value="username" /> <property name="password" value="password" /> <property name="minIdle" value="2" /> </bean> <bean class="org.springframework.beans.factory.config.MethodInvokingFactoryBean" lazy-init="false"> <property name="targetObject" ref="dataSource" /> <property name="targetMethod" value="addConnectionProperty" /> <property name="arguments"> <list> <value>characterEncoding</value> <value>UTF-8</value> </list> </property> </bean> <bean id="jdbcTemplate" class="org.springframework.jdbc.core.JdbcTemplate" scope="prototype"> <property name="dataSource" ref="dataSource" /> </bean> <bean id="transactionManager" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.JpaTransactionManager"> <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="entityManagerFactory" /> </bean> <tx:annotation-driven transaction-manager="transactionManager" />

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  • Maven webapp with maven-eclipse-plugin doesn't generates <dependent-module>

    - by chrsk
    I use the eclipse:eclipse goal to generate an Eclipse Project environment. The deployment works fine. The goal creates the var classpath entries for all needed dependencies. With m2eclipse there was the Maven Container which defines an export folder which was WEB-INF/lib for me. But i don't want to rely on m2eclipse so i don't use it anymore. the class path entries which are generated by eclipse:eclipse goal don't have such a export folder. While booting the servlet container with WTP it publishes all resources and classes except the libraries to the context. Whats missing to publish the needed libs, or isn't that possible without m2eclipse integration? Enviroment Eclipse 3.5 JEE Galileo Apache Maven 2.2.1 (r801777; 2009-08-06 21:16:01+0200) Java version: 1.6.0_14 m2eclipse The maven-eclipse-plugin configuration <plugin> <groupId>org.apache.maven.plugins</groupId> <artifactId>maven-eclipse-plugin</artifactId> <version>2.8</version> <configuration> <projectNameTemplate>someproject-[artifactId]</projectNameTemplate> <useProjectReferences>false</useProjectReferences> <downloadSources>false</downloadSources> <downloadJavadocs>false</downloadJavadocs> <wtpmanifest>true</wtpmanifest> <wtpversion>2.0</wtpversion> <wtpapplicationxml>true</wtpapplicationxml> <wtpContextName>someproject-[artifactId]</wtpContextName> <additionalProjectFacets> <jst.web>2.3</jst.web> </additionalProjectFacets> </configuration> </plugin> The generated files After executing the eclipse:eclipse goal, the dependent-module is not listed in my generated .settings/org.eclipse.wst.common.component, so on server booting i miss the depdencies. This is what i get: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <project-modules id="moduleCoreId" project-version="1.5.0"> <wb-module deploy-name="someproject-core"> <wb-resource deploy-path="/" source-path="src/main/java"/> <wb-resource deploy-path="/" source-path="src/main/webapp"/> <wb-resource deploy-path="/" source-path="src/main/resources"/> </wb-module> </project-modules>

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  • How to do validation on both client and server side for a service which is a store procedure(return a complex type)

    - by Tai
    Hi I am doing Silverlight 4 In my database, I have a store procedure(having two parameters) which returns rows (with extra fields). So i have to make a complex type for those rows on my Models. And Making a service to call that function import store procedure. The RIA will automatically create a matching Entity(to the complex type) and an operation for me. However, I don't know how to validation the parameters of the operation on both client and server side. For example, the parameter must be an integer only (and greater than 10) or datetime only. below is my xaml code. I am using DomainDataSource control and don't know how to validate the two field parameter.It has two TextBox to let the user types in the value of parameters. Plz help me, thank you <riaControls:DomainDataSource AutoLoad="False" d:DesignData="{d:DesignInstance my1:USPFinancialAccountHistory, CreateList=true}" Height="0" LoadedData="uSPFinancialAccountHistoryDomainDataSource_LoadedData" Name="uSPFinancialAccountHistoryDomainDataSource" QueryName="GetFinancialAccountHistoryQuery" Width="0" Margin="0,0,705,32"> <riaControls:DomainDataSource.DomainContext> <my:USPFinancialAccountHistoryContext /> </riaControls:DomainDataSource.DomainContext> <riaControls:DomainDataSource.QueryParameters> <riaControls:Parameter ParameterName="fiscalYear" Value="{Binding ElementName=fiscalYearTextBox, Path=Text}" /> <riaControls:Parameter ParameterName="fiscalPeriod" Value="{Binding ElementName=fiscalPeriodTextBox, Path=Text}" /> </riaControls:DomainDataSource.QueryParameters> </riaControls:DomainDataSource> <StackPanel Height="30" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Orientation="Horizontal" VerticalAlignment="Top"> <sdk:Label Content="Fiscal Year:" Margin="3" VerticalAlignment="Center" /> <TextBox Name="fiscalYearTextBox" Width="60" /> <sdk:Label Content="Fiscal Period:" Margin="3" VerticalAlignment="Center" /> <TextBox Name="fiscalPeriodTextBox" Width="60" /> <Button Command="{Binding Path=LoadCommand, ElementName=uSPFinancialAccountHistoryDomainDataSource}" Content="Load" Margin="3" Name="uSPFinancialAccountHistoryDomainDataSourceLoadButton" /> </StackPanel> <telerik:RadGridView ItemsSource="{Binding ElementName=uSPFinancialAccountHistoryDomainDataSource, Path=Data}" Name="uSPFinancialAccountHistoryRadGridView" Grid.Row="1" IsReadOnly="True" DataLoadMode="Asynchronous" AutoGenerateColumns="False" ShowGroupPanel="False"> <telerik:RadGridView.Columns> <telerik:GridViewDataColumn Header="Account Number" DataMemberBinding="{Binding AccountNumber}"/> <telerik:GridViewDataColumn Header="Department Number" DataMemberBinding="{Binding DepartmentNumber}"/> <telerik:GridViewDataColumn Header="Period code" DataMemberBinding="{Binding PeriodCode}" /> <telerik:GridViewDataColumn Header="Total Debit" DataMemberBinding="{Binding TotalDebit}" DataFormatString="{}{0:C2}"/> <telerik:GridViewDataColumn Header="Total Credit" DataMemberBinding="{Binding TotalCredit}" DataFormatString="{}{0:C2}"/> <telerik:GridViewDataColumn Header="Period Total" DataMemberBinding="{Binding PeriodTotal}" DataFormatString="{}{0:C2}"/> <telerik:GridViewDataColumn Header="Year To Date" DataMemberBinding="{Binding YearToDate}" DataFormatString="{}{0:C2}"/> </telerik:RadGridView.Columns> </telerik:RadGridView>

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  • How to create JPA EntityMananger in Spring Context?

    - by HDave
    I have a JPA/Spring application that uses Hibernate as the JPA provider. In one portion of the code, I have to manually create a DAO in my application with the new operator rather than use Spring DI. When I do this, the @PersistenceContext annotation is not processed by Spring. In my code where I create the DAO I have an EntityManagerFactory which I used to set the entityManager as follows: @PersistenceUnit private EntityManagerFactory entityManagerFactory; MyDAO dao = new MyDAOImpl(); dao.setEntityManager(entityManagerFactory.createEntityManager()); The problem is that when I do this, I get a Hibernate error: Could not find UserTransaction in JNDI [java:comp/UserTransaction] It's as if the HibernateEntityManager never received all the settings I've configured in Spring: <bean id="myAppTestLocalEmf" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean"> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="myapp-core" /> <property name="persistenceUnitPostProcessors"> <bean class="com.myapp.core.persist.util.JtaPersistenceUnitPostProcessor"> <property name="jtaDataSource" ref="myappPersistTestJdbcDataSource" /> </bean> </property> <property name="jpaProperties"> <props> <prop key="hibernate.transaction.factory_class">org.hibernate.transaction.JTATransactionFactory</prop> <prop key="hibernate.transaction.manager_lookup_class">com.atomikos.icatch.jta.hibernate3.TransactionManagerLookup</prop> </props> </property> <property name="jpaVendorAdapter"> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.vendor.HibernateJpaVendorAdapter"> <property name="showSql" value="true" /> <!-- The following use the PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer but it doesn't work in Eclipse --> <property name="database" value="$DS{hibernate.database}" /> <property name="databasePlatform" value="$DS{hibernate.dialect}" /> I am not sure, but I think the issue might be that I am not creating the entity manager correctly with the plain vanilla createEntityManager() call rather than passing in a map of properties. I say this because when Spring's LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean proxy's the call to Hibernate's createEntityManager() all of the Spring configured options are missing. That is, there is no Map argument to the createEntityManager() call. Perhaps it is another problem entirely however....not sure!

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  • Core-Data + AFNetworking + UI Updating (Responsiveness)

    - by Mustafa
    Here's the scenario: I'm writing a DownloadManager, that allows the user to download, pause, cancel, download all, and pause all. The DownloadManager is a singleton, and uses AFNetworking to download files. It has it's own private managed object context, so that user can freely use other parts of the application (by adding, editing, deleting) core-data objects. I have a core-data entity DownloadInfo that stores the download information i.e. fileURL, fileSize, bytesRead, etc. The DownloadManager updates the download progress in DownloadInfo (one for each file). I have a DownloadManagerViewController which uses NSFetchedResultsController to show the download status to the user. This download view controller is using the main managed object context. Now let's say that I have 20 files in the download queue. And let's say that only 3 concurrent downloads are allowed. The download manager should download the file, and show the download progress. Problem: The DownloadInfo objects are being updated by the DownloadManager at a very high rate. The DownloadManagerViewController (responsible for showing the download progress) is updating the list using NSFetchedResultsControllerDelegate methods. The result is that a lot is happening in the main queue and application has very poor responsiveness. How can I fix this? How can I make the application responsive, while showing the download progress? I don't know how else to communicate that the download status between DownloadManager and DownloadManagerViewController. Is there another/ a better way to do this? I don't want to use main managed object context in my DownloadManager, for reasons mentioned above. Note, that the DownloadManager is using AFNetworking which is handling the requests asynchronously, but eventually the DownloadInfo objects are updated in the main thread (as a result of the callback methods). Maybe there's a way to handle the downloads and status update operations in a background thread? but how? How will I communicate between the main thread and the background thread i.e. how will I tell the background thread to queue another file for download? Thanks.

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  • Mocking objects with complex Lambda Expressions as parameters

    - by iCe
    Hi there, I´m encountering this problem trying to mock some objects that receive complex lambda expressions in my projects. Mostly with with proxy objects that receive this type of delegate: Func<Tobj, Fun<TParam1, TParam2, TResult>> I have tried to use Moq as well as RhinoMocks to acomplish mocking those types of objects, however both fail. (Moq fails with NotSupportedException, and in RhinoMocks simpy does not satisgy expectation). This is simplified example of what I´m trying to do: I have a Calculator object that does calculations: public class Calculator { public Calculator() { } public int Add(int x, int y) { var result = x + y; return result; } public int Substract(int x, int y) { var result = x - y; return result; } } I need to validate parameters on every method in the Calculator class, so to keep with the Single Responsability principle, I create a validator class. I wire everything up using a Proxy class, that prevents having duplicate code: public class CalculatorProxy : CalculatorExample.ICalculatorProxy { private ILimitsValidator _validator; public CalculatorProxy(Calculator _calc, ILimitsValidator _validator) { this.Calculator = _calc; this._validator = _validator; } public int Operation(Func&lt;Calculator, Func&lt;int, int, int&gt;&gt; operation, int x, int y) { _validator.ValidateArgs(x, y); var calcMethod = operation(this.Calculator); var result = calcMethod(x, y); _validator.ValidateResult(result); return result; } public Calculator Calculator { get; private set; } } Now, I´m testing a component that does use the CalculatorProxy, so I want to mock it, for example using Rhino Mocks: [TestMethod] public void ParserWorksWithCalcultaroProxy() { var calculatorProxyMock = MockRepository.GenerateMock&lt;ICalculatorProxy&gt;(); calculatorProxyMock.Expect(x =&gt; x.Calculator).Return(_calculator); calculatorProxyMock.Expect(x =&gt; x.Operation(c =&gt; c.Add, 2, 2)).Return(4); var mathParser = new MathParser(calculatorProxyMock); mathParser.ProcessExpression("2 + 2"); calculatorProxyMock.VerifyAllExpectations(); } However I cannot get it to work! Any ideas about how this can be done? Thanks a lot!

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  • Experienced developer trying to get outsourcing contract with current client.

    - by Mike
    I work for a major bank as a contract software developer. I've been there a few months, and without exception this place has the worst software practices I've ever seen. The software my team makes has no formal testing, terrible code (not reusable, hard to read, etc), minimal documentation, no defined development process and an absolutely sickening amount of waste due to bureaucratic overhead. Part of my contract is to maintain a group of thousands of very poorly written batch jobs. When one of the jobs fails (read: crashes), it's a developers job to look at the source, figure out what's wrong, fix it, and check it in. There is no quality assurance process or auditing of the results whatsoever. Once the developer says "it works" a manager signs off and it goes into production. What's disturbing is that these jobs essentially grab market data and put it into a third-party risk management system, which provides the bank with critical intelligence. I've discovered the disturbing truth that this has been happening since the 90s and nobody really has evidence the system is getting the correct data! Without going into details, an issue arose on Friday that was so horrible I actually stormed out of the place. I was ready to quit, but I decided to just get out to calm my nerves and possibly go back Monday. I've been reflecting today on how to handle this. I have realized that, in probably less than 6 months, I could (with 2 other developers) remake a large component of this system. The new system would provide them with, as primary benefits, a maintainable codebase less prone to error and a solid QA framework. To do it properly I would have to be outside the bank, the internal bureaucracy is just too much. And moreover, I think a bank is fundamentally not a place that can make good software. This is my plan. Write a report explaining in depth all the problems with their current system Explain why their software practices fail and generate a tremendous amount of error and waste. Use this as the basis for claiming the project must be developed externally. Write a high level development plan, including what resources I will require Hand 1,2,3 to my manager, hopefully he passes it up the chain. Worst case he fires me, but this isn't so bad. Convinced Executive decides to award my company a contract for the new system I have 8 years experience as a software contractor and have delivered my share of successful software products, but all working in-house for small/medium sized companies. When I read this over, I think I have a dynamite plan. But since this is the first time doing something this bold so I have my doubts. My question is, is this a good idea? If you think not, please spare no detail.

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  • Is my understanding of "select distinct" correct?

    - by paxdiablo
    We recently discovered a performance problem with one of our systems and I think I have the fix but I'm not certain my understanding is correct. In simplest form, we have a table blah into which we accumulate various values based on a key field. The basic form is: recdate date rectime time system varchar(20) count integer accum1 integer accum2 integer There are a lot more accumulators than that but they're all of the same form. The primary key is made up of recdate, rectime and system. As values are collected to the table, the count for a given recdate/rectime/system is incremented and the values for that key are added to the accumulators. That means the averages can be obtained by using accumN / count. Now we also have a view over that table specified as follows: create view blah_v ( recdate, rectime, system, count, accum1, accum2 ) as select distinct recdate, rectime, system, count, value (case when count > 0 then accum1 / count end, 0), value (case when count > 0 then accum2 / count end, 0) from blah; In other words, the view gives us the average value of the accumulators rather than the sums. It also makes sure we don't get a divide-by-zero in those cases where the count is zero (these records do exist and we are not allowed to remove them so don't bother telling me they're rubbish - you're preaching to the choir). We've noticed that the time difference between doing: select distinct recdate from XX varies greatly depending on whether we use the table or the view. I'm talking about the difference being 1 second for the table and 27 seconds for the view (with 100K rows). We actually tracked it back to the select distinct. What seems to be happening is that the DBMS is actually loading all the rows in and sorting them so as to remove duplicates. That's fair enough, it's what we stupidly told it to do. But I'm pretty sure the fact that the view includes every component of the primary key means that it's impossible to have duplicates anyway. We've validated the problem since, if we create another view without the distinct, it performs at the same speed as the underlying table. I just wanted to confirm my understanding that a select distinct can not have duplicates if it includes all the primary key components. If that's so, then we can simply change the view appropriately.

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  • Calculations in a table of data

    - by Christian W
    I have a table of data with survey results, and I want to do certain calculations on this data. The datastructure is somewhat like this: ____________________________________________________________________________________ | group |individual | key | key | key | | | |subkey|subkey|subkey|subkey|subkey|subkey|subkey|subkey|subkey| | | |q|q|q |q |q |q|q|q |q|q|q |q |q |q|q|q |q|q|q |q |q |q|q|q | |-------|-----------|-|-|--|--|---|-|-|--|-|-|--|--|---|-|-|--|-|-|--|--|---|-|-|--| | 1 | 0001 |1|7|5 |1 |3 |1|4|1 |1|7|5 |1 |3 |1|4|1 |1|7|5 |1 |3 |1|4|1 | | 1 | 0002 |1|7|5 |1 |3 |1|4|1 |1|7|5 |1 |3 |1|4|1 |1|7|5 |1 |3 |1|4|1 | | 1 | 0003 |1|7|5 |1 |3 |1|4|1 |1|7|5 |1 |3 |1|4|1 |1|7|5 |1 |3 |1|4|1 | | 2 | 0004 |1|7|5 |1 |3 |1|4|1 |1|7|5 |1 |3 |1|4|1 |1|7|5 |1 |3 |1|4|1 | | 2 | 0005 |1|7|5 |1 |3 |1|4|1 |1|7|5 |1 |3 |1|4|1 |1|7|5 |1 |3 |1|4|1 | | 3 | 0006 |1|7|5 |1 |3 |1|4|1 |1|7|5 |1 |3 |1|4|1 |1|7|5 |1 |3 |1|4|1 | | 4 | 0007 |1|7|5 |1 |3 |1|4|1 |1|7|5 |1 |3 |1|4|1 |1|7|5 |1 |3 |1|4|1 | ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ Excuse my poor ascii skills... So, every individual belongs to a group, and has answered some questions. These questions are always grouped in keys and subkeys. Is there any simple method to calculate averages, deviations and similar based on the groupings. Something like public float getAverage(int key, int individual); float avg = getAverage(5,7); I think what I'm asking is what would be the best way to structure the data in C# to make it as easy as possible to work with? I have started making classes for every entity, but I got confused somewhere and something stopped working. So before I continue along this path, I was wondering if there are any other, better, ways of doing this? (Every individual can also have describing variables, like agegroup and such, but that's not important for the base functionality.) Our current solution does all calculations inline in the queries when requesting the data from the database. This works, but it's slow and the number of queries equals questions * individuals + keys * individuals, which could be alot if individual queries. Any suggestions?

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  • Issues with mx:method, mx.rpc.remoting.mxml.RemoteObject, and sub-classing mx.rpc.remoting.mxml.Remo

    - by Ryan Wilson
    I am looking to subclass RemoteObject. Instead of: <mx:RemoteObject ... > <mx:method ... /> <mx:method ... /> </mx:RemoteObject> I want to do something like: <remoting:CustomRemoteObject ...> <mx:method ... /> <mx:method ... /> </remoting:CustomRemoteObject> where CustomRemoteObject extends mx.rpc.remoting.mxml.RemoteObject like so: package remoting { import mx.rpc.remoting.mxml.RemoteObject; public class CustomRemoteObject extends RemoteObject { public function CustomRemoteObject(destination:String=null) { super(destination); } } } However, when doing so and declaring a CustomRemoteObject in MXML as above, the flex compiler shows the error: Could not resolve <mx:method> to a component implementation At first I thought it had something to do with CustomRemoteObject failing to do something, despite that (or since) it had no change except as to the name. So, I copied the source from mx.rpc.remoting.mxml.RemoteObject into CustomRemoteObject and modified it so the only difference was a refactoring of the class and package name. But still, the same error. Unlike many MXML components, I cannot cmd+click <mx:method> in FlashBuilder to open the source. Likewise, I have not found a reference in mx.rpc.remoting.mxml.RemoteObject, mx.rpc.remoting.RemoteObject, or mx.rpc.remoting.AbstractService, and have been unsuccessful in find its source online. Which leads me to the questions in the title: What exactly is <mx:method>? (yes, I know it's a declaration of a RemoteObject method, and I know how to use it, but it's peculiar in regard to other components) Why did my attempt at subclassing RemoteObject fail, despite it effectually being a rename? Perhaps the root, why can mx.rpc.remoting.mxml.RemoteObject as an MXML declaration accept <mx:method> child tags, yet the source of said class cannot when refactored in name only?

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  • Using VCL for the web (intraweb) as a trick for adding web interface to a legacy non-tiered (2 tiers

    - by user193655
    My team is maintaining a huge Client Server win32 Delphi application. It is a client/server application (Thick client) that uses DevArt (SDAC) components to connect to SQL Server. The business logic is often "trapped" in Component's event handlers, anyway with some degree of refactoring it is doable to move the business logic in common units (a big part of this work has already been done during refactoring... Maintaing legacy applications someone else wrote is very frustrating, but this is a very common job). Now there is the request of a web interface, I have several options of course, in this question i want to focus on the VCL for the web (intraweb) option. The idea is to use the common code (the same pas files) for both the client/server application and the web application. I heard of many people that moved legacy apps from delphi to intraweb, but here I am trying to keep the Thick client too. The idea is to use common code, may be with some compiler directives to write specific code: {$IFDEF CLIENTSERVER} {here goes the thick client specific code} {$ELSE} {here goes the Intraweb specific code} {$ENDIF} Then another problem is the "migration plan", let's say I have 300 features and on the first release I will have only 50 of them available in the web application. How to keep track of it? I was thinking of (ab)using Delphi interfaces to handle this. For example for the User Authentication I could move all the related code in a procedure and declare an interface like: type IUserAuthentication= interface['{0D57624C-CDDE-458B-A36C-436AE465B477}'] procedure UserAuthentication; end; In this way as I implement the IUserAuthentication interface in both the applications (Thick Client and Intraweb) I know that That feature has been "ported" to the web. Anyway I don't know if this approach makes sense. I made a prototype to simulate the whole process. It works for a "Hello world" application, but I wonder if it makes sense on a large application or this Interface idea is only counter-productive and can backfire. My question is: does this approach make sense? (the Interface idea is just an extra idea, it is not so important as the common code part described above) Is it a viable option? I understand it depends a lot of the kind of application, anyway to be generic my one is in the CRM/Accounting domain, and the number of concurrent users on a single installation is typically less than 20 with peaks of 50. EXTRA COMMENT (UPDATE): I ask this question because since I don't have a n-tier application I see Intraweb as the unique option for having a web application that has common code with the thick client. Developing webservices from the Delphi code makes no sense in my specific case, so the alternative I have is to write the web interface using ASP.NET (duplicating the business logic), but in this case I cannot take advantage of the common code in an easy way. Yes I could use dlls maybe, but my code is not suitable for that.

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  • how to read values from the remote OPC Server

    - by Shailesh Jaiswal
    I have created one asp.net web service. In this web service I am using the web method as follows. The web service is related to the OPC ( OLE for process control) public string ReadServerItems(string ServerName) { string txt = ""; ArrayList obj = new ArrayList(); XmlServer Srv = new XmlServer("XDAGW.CS.WCF.Eval.1"); RequestOptions opt = new RequestOptions(); ReadRequestItemList iList = new ReadRequestItemList(); iList.Items = new ReadRequestItem[3]; iList.Items[0] = new ReadRequestItem(); iList.Items[0].ItemName = "ServerInfo.ConnectedClients"; iList.Items[1] = new ReadRequestItem(); iList.Items[1].ItemName = "ServerInfo.TotalGroups"; iList.Items[2] = new ReadRequestItem(); iList.Items[2].ItemName = "EventSources.Area1.Tracking"; ReplyItemList rslt; OPCError[] err; ReplyBase reply = Srv.Read(opt, iList, out rslt, out err); if ((rslt == null)) txt += err[0].Text; else { foreach (xmldanet.xmlda.ItemValue iv in rslt.Items) { txt += iv.ItemName; if (iv.ResultID == null) // success { txt += " = " + iv.Value.ToString() + "\r\n"; obj.Add(txt); } else txt += " : Error: " + iv.ResultID.Name + "\r\n"; } } return txt; } I am using the namespaces as follows using xmldanet; using xmldanet.xmlda; I have installed XMLDA.NET client component evaluation. In this there is an in built Test client which successfully reads the values of these data items from the remote OPC server. I also provides the template through which we can build the OPC based applications. In the above code I am trying to read the values of the data items but i am not able to read the values. I have applied the breakpoint. In that I can see that the condition if (iv.ResultID == null) becomes false & also there is null values in the variable rslt. Please tell me where I am doing mistake ? how should I correct my mistake ? can provide me the correct code ?

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  • NSXMLDocument objectByApplyingXSLT with XSL Include

    - by Kristof
    I'm having some trouble with XSL-processing when there are stylesheets that include other stylesheets relatively. (the XML-files may be irrelevant but are included for completeness - code is at the bottom). Given the XML-file: <?xml version="1.0" ?> <famous-persons> <persons category="medicine"> <person> <firstname> Edward </firstname> <name> Jenner </name> </person> <person> <firstname> Gertrude </firstname> <name> Elion </name> </person> </persons> </famous-persons> and the XSL-file: <?xml version="1.0" ?> <xsl:stylesheet xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" xmlns:xi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XInclude" version="1.0"> <xsl:template match="/"> <html><head><title>Sorting example</title></head><body> <xsl:apply-templates select="famous-persons/persons"> <xsl:sort select="@category" /> </xsl:apply-templates> </body></html> </xsl:template> <xsl:include href="included.xsl" /> </xsl:stylesheet> referencing this stylesheet in included.xsl: <?xml version="1.0"?> <xsl:stylesheet xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" xmlns:xi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XInclude" version="1.0"> <xsl:template match="persons"> <h2><xsl:value-of select="@category" /></h2> <ul>Irrelevant</ul> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> how can I make it that the following code fragment: NSError *lError = nil; NSXMLDocument *lDocument = [ [ NSXMLDocument alloc ] initWithContentsOfURL: [ NSURL URLWithString: @"file:///pathto/data.xml" ] options: 0 error: &lError ]; NSXMLDocument *lResult = [ lDocument objectByApplyingXSLTAtURL: [ NSURL URLWithString: @"file:///pathto/style.xsl" ] arguments: nil error: nil ]; does not give me the error: I/O warning : failed to load external entity "included.xsl" compilation error: element include xsl:include : unable to load included.xsl I have been trying all sorts of options. Also loading XML documents with NSXMLDocumentXInclude beforehand does not seem to help. Is there any way to make the XSL processing so that a stylesheet can include another stylesheet in its local path?

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  • Applying Domain Model on top of Linq2Sql entities

    - by Thomas
    I am trying to practice the model first approach and I am putting together a domain model. My requirement is pretty simple: UserSession can have multiple ShoppingCartItems. I should start off by saying that I am going to apply the domain model interfaces to Linq2Sql generated entities (using partial classes). My requirement translates into three database tables (UserSession, Product, ShoppingCartItem where ProductId and UserSessionId are foreign keys in the ShoppingCartItem table). Linq2Sql generates these entities for me. I know I shouldn't even be dealing with the database at this point but I think it is important to mention. The aggregate root is UserSession as a ShoppingCartItem can not exist without a UserSession but I am unclear on the rest. What about Product? It is defiently an entity but should it be associated to ShoppingCartItem? Here are a few suggestion (they might all be incorrect implementations): public interface IUserSession { public Guid Id { get; set; } public IList<IShoppingCartItem> ShoppingCartItems{ get; set; } } public interface IShoppingCartItem { public Guid UserSessionId { get; set; } public int ProductId { get; set; } } Another one would be: public interface IUserSession { public Guid Id { get; set; } public IList<IShoppingCartItem> ShoppingCartItems{ get; set; } } public interface IShoppingCartItem { public Guid UserSessionId { get; set; } public IProduct Product { get; set; } } A third one is: public interface IUserSession { public Guid Id { get; set; } public IList<IShoppingCartItemColletion> ShoppingCartItems{ get; set; } } public interface IShoppingCartItemColletion { public IUserSession UserSession { get; set; } public IProduct Product { get; set; } } public interface IProduct { public int ProductId { get; set; } } I have a feeling my mind is too tightly coupled with database models and tables which is making this hard to grasp. Anyone care to decouple?

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  • ActionListener problem

    - by thegamer
    Hello, i am trying to make an actionListener on a button in another button which has also an actionlistener and i just couldn't figure it out for some way. I am trying to make an action on the 2nd button but i couldn't figure it out.If anyone helps me i'd appreciate! here is the code below: import java.awt.; import java.awt.event.; import javax.swing.; import java.io.; import java.util.*; public class basic implements ActionListener{ public static void main(String[] args) { basic process = new basic (); } public basic(){ JFrame fan = new JFrame("Scheme"); JPanel one = new JPanel(new BorderLayout()); fan.add(one); JPanel uno = new JPanel(); uno.setLayout(new BoxLayout(uno, BoxLayout.Y_AXIS)); JButton addB = new JButton("first choice"); addB.setAlignmentX(Component.CENTER_ALIGNMENT); uno.add(addB); addDButton.setActionCommand("hehe"); addDButton.addActionListener(this); one.add(uno,BorderLayout.CENTER); fan.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); fan.setSize(500,700); fan.setLocationByPlatform(true); fan.setVisible(true); } public void actionPerformed(ActionEvent evt) { JPanel markP = new JPanel(new FlowLayout(FlowLayout.RIGHT,10,20)); JDialog dialog = new JDialog((JFrame)null); dialog.getContentPane().add(markP,BorderLayout.CENTER); if (evt.getActionCommand().equals("hehe")) { JLabel title = new JLabel("Proceed"); title.setFont(new Font("Arial",Font.BOLD,15)); markP.add(title,BorderLayout.NORTH); JButton exit = new JButton("Exit"); markP.add(exit); //here i want to create another actionListener on the exit button only without affecting the other content which is in the button "addB " so that when i click on the addB button the J dialog pops up, and than when i click on exit button the program will return to the menu.I couldn't figure it out. dialog.toFront(); dialog.setModal(true); dialog.pack(); // dialog.setLocationRelativeTo(null); // dialog.setVisible(true); } // here the code goes on but the problem is that of the actionListener which is concerned.

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  • Referencing both an old version and new version of the same DLL (VB.Net)

    - by ckittel
    Consider the following situation: WidgetCompany produced a .NET DLL in 2006 called Widget.dll, version 1.0. I consumed this Widget.dll file throughout my VB.Net application. Over time, WidgetCompany has been updating Widget.dll, I never bothered to keep up, continuing to ship version 1.0 of Widget.dll with my software. It's now 2010, my project is now a VB.Net 3.5 application and WidgetCompany has come out with Widget.dll version 3.0. It looks and functions almost identical to Widget.dll version 1.0, using all the same namespaces and type names from before. However, Widget.dll version 3.0 has many run-time breaking changes since 1.0 and I cannot simply cut over to the new version; however, I don't want to continue developing against the 1.0 version and therefore keep digging myself deeper in the hole. What I want to do is do all new development in my project with Widget.dll version 3.0, whilst keeping Widget.dll version 1.0 around until I find time to convert all of my 1.0 consumption to the newer 3.0 code. Now, for starters, I obviously cannot simply reference both Widget.dll (Ver 1.0) and Widget.dll (Ver 3.0) in Visual Studio. Doing so gives me the following message: "A reference to 'Widget.dll' could not be added. A reference to the component 'Widget' already exists in the project." To work around that, I can simply rename version 3.0 Widget.dll to Widget.3.dll. But this is where I'm stuck. Any attempts to reference types found in "the dll" leads to ambiguity and the compiler obviously doesn't have any clue as to what I really want in this or that case. Is there something I can do that gives a DLL a new "root" Namespace or something? For example, if I could say "Widget.dll has a new root namespace of Legacy" then I could update existing code to reference the types found in Legacy.<RootNamespace> namespace while all new code could simply reference types from the <RootNamespace> namespace. Pipe dream or reality? Are there other solutions to situations this (besides "don't get in this situation in the first place")?

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