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  • Why does my Perl CGI script cause a 500 internal server error?

    - by Nitish
    I get a 500 internal server error when I try to run the code below in a web server which supports perl: #! /usr/bin/perl use LWP; my $ua = LWP::UserAgent->new; $ua->agent("TestApp/0.1 "); $ua->env_proxy(); my $req = HTTP::Request->new(POST => 'http://www.google.com/loc/json'); $req->content_type('application/jsonrequest'); $req->content('{ "cell_towers": [{"location_area_code": "55000", "mobile_network_code": "95", "cell_id": "20491", "mobile_country_code": "404"}], "version": "1.1.0", "request_address": "true"}'); my $res = $ua->request($req); if ($res->is_success) { print $res->content,"\n"; } else { print $res->status_line, "\n"; return undef; } But there is no error when I run the code below: #! /usr/bin/perl use CGI::Carp qw(fatalsToBrowser); print "Content-type: text/html\n\n"; print "<HTML>\n"; print "<HEAD><TITLE>Hello World!</TITLE></HEAD>\n"; print "<BODY>\n"; print "<H2>Hello World!</H2> <br /> \n"; foreach $key (sort keys(%ENV)) { print "$key = $ENV{$key}<p>" ; } print "</BODY>\n"; print "</HTML>\n"; So I think there is some problem with my code. When I run the first perl script in my local machine with the -wc command, it says that the syntax is OK. Help me please.

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  • ruby on rails one-to-many relationship

    - by fenec
    I would like to model a betting system relationship using the power of rails. so lets start with doing something very simple modelling the relationship from a user to a bet.i would like to have a model bet with 2 primary keys. here are my migrations enter code here class CreateBets < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :bets do |t| t.integer :user_1_id t.integer :user_2_id t.integer :amount t.timestamps end end def self.down drop_table :bets end end class CreateUsers < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :users do |t| t.string :name t.timestamps end end def self.down drop_table :users end end the models enter code here class Bet < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user_1,:class_name=:User belongs_to :user_2,:class_name=:User end class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :bets, :foreign_key =:user_1) has_many :bets, :foreign_key =:user_2) end when i test here in the console my relationships I got an error enter code here u1=User.create :name="aa" = # u2=User.create :name="bb" = # b=Bet.create(:user_1=u1,:user_2=u2) *****error***** QUESTIONS: 1 How do I define the relationships between these tables correctly? 2 are there any conventions to name the attributes (ex:user_1_id...) thank you for your help

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  • Hibernate noob fetch join problem

    - by Bruce
    Hi all I have two classes, Test2 and Test3. Test2 has an attribute test3 that is an instance of Test3. In other words, I have a unidirectional OneToOne association, with test2 having a reference to test3. When I select Test2 from the db, I can see that a separate select is being made to get the details of the associated test3 class. This is the famous 1+N selects problem. To fix this to use a single select, I am trying to use the fetch=join annotation, which I understand to be @Fetch(FetchMode.JOIN) However, with fetch set to join, I still see separate selects. Here are the relevant portions of my setup.. hibernate.cfg.xml: <property name="max_fetch_depth">2</property> Test2: public class Test2 { @OneToOne (cascade=CascadeType.ALL , fetch=FetchType.EAGER) @JoinColumn (name="test3_id") @Fetch(FetchMode.JOIN) public Test3 getTest3() { return test3; } NB I set the FetchType to EAGER out of desperation, even though it defaults to EAGER anyway for OneToOne mappings, but it made no difference. Thanks for any help! Edit: I've pretty much given up on trying to use FetchMode.JOIN - can anyone confirm that they have got it to work ie produce a left outer join? In the docs I see that "Usually, the mapping document is not used to customize fetching. Instead, we keep the default behavior, and override it for a particular transaction, using left join fetch in HQL" If I do a left join fetch instead: query = session.createQuery("from Test2 t2 left join fetch t2.test3"); then I do indeed get the results I want - ie a left outer join in the query.

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  • Windows 8 Data Binding Bug - OnPropertyChanged Updates Wrong Object

    - by Andrew
    I'm experiencing some really weird behavior with data binding in Windows 8. I have a combobox set up like this: <ComboBox VerticalAlignment="Center" Margin="0,18,0,0" HorizontalAlignment="Right" Height="Auto" Width="138" Background="{StaticResource DarkBackgroundBrush}" BorderThickness="0" ItemsSource="{Binding CurrentForum.SortValues}" SelectedItem="{Binding CurrentForum.CurrentSort, Mode=TwoWay}"> <ComboBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBlock HorizontalAlignment="Right" Text="{Binding Converter={StaticResource SortValueConverter}}"/> </DataTemplate> </ComboBox.ItemTemplate> </ComboBox> Inside of a page with the DataContext set to a statically located ViewModel. When I change that ViewModel's CurrentForm attribute, who's property is implemented like this... public FormViewModel CurrentForm { get { return _currentForm; } set { _currentForm = value; if (!_currentForm.IsLoaded) { _currentSubreddit.Refresh.Execute(null); } RaisePropertyChanged("CurrentForm"); } } ... something really strange happens. The previous FormViewModel's CurrentSort property is changed to the new FormViewModel's current sort property. This happens as the RaisePropertyChanged event is called, through a managed-to-native transition, with native code invoking the setter of CurrentSort of the previous FormViewModel. Does that sound like a bug in Win8's data binding? Am I doing something wrong?

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  • Conditional operator in Mako using Pylons

    - by Antoine Leclair
    In PHP, I often use the conditional operator to add an attribute to an html element if it applies to the element in question. For example: <select name="blah"> <option value="1"<?= $blah == 1 ? ' selected="selected"' : '' ?>> One </option> <option value="2"<?= $blah == 2 ? ' selected="selected"' : '' ?>> Two </option> </select> I'm starting a project with Pylons using Mako for the templating. How can I achieve something similar? Right now, I see two possibilities that are not ideal. Solution 1: <select name="blah"> % if blah == 1: <option value="1" selected="selected">One</option> % else: <option value="1">One</option> % endif % if blah == 2: <option value="2" selected="selected">Two</option> % else: <option value="2">Two</option> % endif </select> Solution 2: <select name="blah"> <option value="1" % if blah == 1: selected="selected" % endif >One</option> <option value="2" % if blah == 2: selected="selected" % endif >Two</option> </select> In this particular case, the value is equal to the variable tested (value="1" = blah == 1), but I use the same pattern in other situations, like <?= isset($variable) ? ' value="$variable" : '' ?>. I am looking for a clean way to achieve this using Mako.

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  • C# Configuration Manager . ConnectionStrings

    - by Yoda
    I have a console app containing an application configuration file containing one connection string as shown below: <configuration> <connectionStrings> <add name="Target" connectionString="server=MYSERVER; Database=MYDB; Integrated Security=SSPI;" /> </connectionStrings> </configuration> When I pass this to my Connection using: ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings[1].ToString() I have two values in there, hence using the second in the collection, my question is where is this second coming from? I have checked the Bin version and original and its not mine! Its obviously a system generated one but I have not seen this before? Can anyone enlighten me? The mystery connection string is: data source=.\SQLEXPRESS;Integrated Security=SSPI;AttachDBFilename=|DataDirectory|aspnetdb.mdf;User Instance=true This isn't a problem as such I would just like to know why this is occuring? Thanks in advance! For future reference to those who may or may not stumble on this, after discovering the machine.config its become apparent it is bad practice to refer to a config by its index as each stack will potentially be different, which is why "Keys" are used. Cheers all!

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  • Locating SSL certificate, key and CA on server

    - by jovan
    Disclaimer: you don't need to know Node to answer this question but it would help. I have a Node server and I need to make it work with HTTPS. As I researched around the internet, I found that I have to do something like this: var fs = require('fs'); var credentials = { key: fs.readFileSync('path/to/ssl/private-key'), cert: fs.readFileSync('path/to/ssl/cert'), ca: fs.readFileSync('path/to/something/called/CA') }; var app = require('https').createServer(credentials, handler); I have several problems with this. First off, all the examples I found use completely different approaches. Some link to .pem files for both the certificate and key. I don't know what pem files are but I know my certificate is .crt and my key is .key. Some start off at the root folder and some seem to just have these .pem files in the application directory. I don't. Some use the ca thing too and some don't. This CA is supposed to be my domain's CA bundle according to some articles - but none explain where to find this file. In the ssl directory on my server I have one .crt file in the certs directory and one .key file in the keys directory, in addition to an empty csrs directory and an ssl.db file. So, where do I find these 3 files (key, cert, ca) and how do I link to them correctly?

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  • Can Delphi dragging be "promoted" to docking?

    - by mghie
    I have a TPageControl whose pages are all various forms that are attached using ManualDock(). The user should be able to rearrange the tabs by dragging them, which works already. It should however also be possible to undock the docked forms. For now I have the following code: procedure TMainForm.PageControlMouseDown(Sender: TObject; Button: TMouseButton; Shift: TShiftState; X, Y: Integer); begin if (Button = mbLeft) and (Shift * [ssShift, ssCtrl] = []) and PageControl.DockSite then begin PageControl.BeginDrag(False, 32); end; end; If either the Shift or the Ctrl key are held down, then a docking operation will be started, otherwise the tabs can be rearranged by dragging them. Using the keys as modifiers is awkward though. Is there any way to cancel the active drag operation when the mouse cursor is outside of the tab area of the page control, and start docking the child form? This is with Delphi 2009.

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  • jQuery issue with anchor tag using jqTransform

    - by James Helms
    I'm using jqtransform on my site. When the user is on a for them to be able to use hot keys to move through the selections. I added this function: $wrapper.find('a').keydown(function (e) { var Esc = 27; var code = (e.keyCode ? e.keyCode : e.which); if(code== Esc || (code>=65 &&code<=90)){ var letter = String.fromCharCode(code); if (code==Esc) keyCodes = ""; else{ if (keyCodes=='') keyCodes += letter; else keyCodes += letter.toLowerCase(); var item = $wrapper.find('a[text^=\'' + keyCodes + '\']:first'); item.click(); } } }); inside of $.fn.jqTransSelect. This code works fine in all browsers but IE. the only thing i can find is that IE doesn't like the click event. Can anyone please help me with this? If i debug into the code I can see that item is a select not an anchor like i would expect it to be, and that confuses me even more.

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  • How to detect how many time the users have click the button...

    - by Jerry
    Hello guys. Just want to know if there is a way to detect how many times a user has clicked a button by using Jquery. My main application has a button that can add input fields depend on the users. He/She can adds as many input fields as they need. When they submit the form, The add page will add the data to my database. My current idea is to create a hidden input field and set the value to zero. Every time a user clicks the button, jquery would update the attribute of the hidden input field value. Then the "add page" can detect the loop time. See the example below. I just want to know if there are better practices to do this. Thanks for the helps. main page <form method='post' action='add.php'> //omit <input type="hidden" id="add" name="add" value="0"/> <input type="button" id="addMatch" value="Add a match"/> //omit </form> jquery $(document).ready(function(){ var a =0; $("#addMatch").live('click', function(){ $('#table').append("<input name='match"+a+"Name' />") //the input field will append //as many as the user wants. a++; $('#add').attr('name', 'a'); //pass the a value to hidden input field return false; }); Add Page $a=$_POST['a']; // for($k=0;$k<$a;$k++){ //get all matchName input field $matchName=$_POST['match'.$k.'Name']; //insert the match $updateQuery=mysql_query("INSERT INTO game (team) values('$matchName')",$connection); if(!$updateQuery){ DIE('mysql Error:'+mysql_error()); }

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  • Using PHP and cURL to login to indyarocks.com

    - by Divya
    I am new to cURL and don't know much about it. I basically want to login to my account on www.indyarocks.com through libcurl for PHP. I don't know what type of authentication it uses (I don't know how to find that out.). When I go to http://www.indyarocks.com, I get a login form which asks for my username and password. I put in my username and password and click login and everything is good. I tried to automate this using cURL. This is a snippet of my code. curl_setopt($curl_connection, CURLOPT_URL, "http://www.indyarocks.com/loginchk.php"); curl_setopt($curl_connection, CURLOPT_POST, 1); curl_setopt($curl_connection, CURLOPT_HTTPAUTH, CURLAUTH_ANY); curl_setopt($curl_connection, CURLOPT_USERPWD, $username.':'.$password); I looked at the source of the login page and found out the address of the page to which the username and password are sent (the action attribute of the form) which is "http://www.indyarocks.com/loginchk.php" and set it as the target url. When I run this, I get username or password is wrong error and the login fails. My username and password is correct. I don't know what the problem is. Can the password be encrypted? Can that be responsible for this failure? Please help me get around this problem. I'll be really thankful. Thanks in advance.

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  • php simplexmlelement - I can access most properties (except the one with a dash?)

    - by Matthew Steiner
    So I run some code like this: $quote = simplexml_load_string($xml); $quote = $quote->Stock; echo 'Name: '; echo $quote->Name; echo '<br>'; echo 'Sybmol: '; echo $quote->Symbol; echo '<br>'; echo 'Last Price: '; echo $quote->Last; echo '<br>'; echo 'Earnings To Price Ratio: '; echo $quote->P-E; echo '<br>'; I know that the second to last line ($quote-P-E) is incorrect - I don't think you can use dashes like that. But for some reason I can't figure out how to access that property. The weird thing is that's how it's written if I var_dump($quote) (It's towards the end): object(SimpleXMLElement)#17 (16) { ["Symbol"]=> string(4) "AAPL" ["Last"]=> string(6) "271.87" ["Date"]=> string(9) "6/17/2010" ["Time"]=> string(6) "3:59pm" ["Change"]=> string(5) "+4.62" ["Open"]=> string(6) "270.72" ["High"]=> string(6) "272.90" ["Low"]=> string(6) "269.50" ["Volume"]=> string(8) "31195032" ["MktCap"]=> string(6) "247.4B" ["PreviousClose"]=> string(6) "267.25" ["PercentageChange"]=> string(6) "+1.73%" ["AnnRange"]=> string(15) "132.88 - 272.90" ["Earns"]=> string(6) "11.796" ["P-E"]=> string(5) "22.66" ["Name"]=> string(10) "Apple Inc." } How should I be accessing this attribute/property?

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  • JSON feed to Java Object

    - by mnml
    Hi, I would like to know if there is a webpage/software that can "translate" a Json feed object to a Java object with attributes. For example : { 'firstName': 'John', 'lastName': 'Smith', 'address': { 'streetAddress': '21 2nd Street', 'city': 'New York' } } Would become: class Person { private String firstName; private String lastName; private Address address; public String getFirstName() { return firstName; } public String getLastName() { return lastName; } public Address getAddress() { return address; } public void setFirstName(String firstName) { this.firstName = firstName; } public void setLastName(String lastName) { this.lastName = lastName; } public void setAddress(Address address) { this.address = address; } public String toString() { return String.format("firstName: %s, lastName: %s, address: [%s]", firstName, lastName, address); } } class Address { private String streetAddress; private String city; public String getStreetAddress() { return streetAddress; } public String getCity() { return city; } public void setStreetAddress(String streetAddress) { this.streetAddress = streetAddress; } public void setCity(String city) { this.city = city; } public String toString() { return String.format("streetAddress: %s, city: %s", streetAddress, city); } } I'm not asking that because I'm lazy, but the JSON I would like to parse has quite a lot of attribute.

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  • jQuery .trigger() or $(window) not working in Google Chrome

    - by Jonathan
    I have this jQuery ajax navigation tabs plugin that I created using some help from CSS-Tricks.com and the jQuery hashchange event plugin (detects hash changes in browsers that don't support it). The code is little long to post it here but it goes something like this: Part 1) When a tab is clicked, it gets the href attribute of that tab and add it to the browsers navigation bar like '#tab_name': window.location.hash = $(this).attr("href"); Part 2) When the navigation bar changes (hash change), it gets the href change like this: window.location.hash.substring(1); (substring is to get only 'tab_name' without the '#'), and then call the ajax function to get the info to display. I want to automatically trigger the plugin to load the first tab when the page is accessed, so at the start of the code I put: if (window.location.hash === '') { // If no '#' is in the browser navigation bar window.location.hash = '#tab_1'; // Add #tab_1 to the navigation bar $(window).trigger('hashchange'); // Trigger a hashchange so 'Part 2' of the plugin calls the ajax function using the '#tab_1' added } The probles is that it works in FF but not in Chrome, I mean, everything works but it seems like the $(window).trigger('hashchange'); is not working because it doesnt get the first tab.. Any suggestions??

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  • Weird MySQL behavior, seems like a SQL bug

    - by Daniel Magliola
    I'm getting a very strange behavior in MySQL, which looks like some kind of weird bug. I know it's common to blame the tried and tested tool for one's mistakes, but I've been going around this for a while. I have 2 tables, I, with 2797 records, and C, with 1429. C references I. I want to delete all records in I that are not used by C, so i'm doing: select * from i where id not in (select id_i from c); That returns 0 records, which, given the record counts in each table, is physically impossible. I'm also pretty sure that the query is right, since it's the same type of query i've been using for the last 2 hours to clean up other tables with orphaned records. To make things even weirder... select * from i where id in (select id_i from c); DOES work, and brings me the 1297 records that I do NOT want to delete. So, IN works, but NOT IN doesn't. Even worse: select * from i where id not in ( select i.id from i inner join c ON i.id = c.id_i ); That DOES work, although it should be equivalent to the first query (i'm just trying mad stuff at this point). Alas, I can't use this query to delete, because I'm using the same table i'm deleting from in the subquery. I'm assuming something in my database is corrupt at this point. In case it matters, these are all MyISAM tables without any foreign keys, whatsoever, and I've run the same queries in my dev machine and in the production server with the same result, so whatever corruption there might be survived a mysqldump / source cycle, which sounds awfully strange. Any ideas on what could be going wrong, or, even more importantly, how I can fix/work around this? Thanks! Daniel

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  • ASP.Net IE6 disable button

    - by RemotecUk
    Hi, I have the following code running as part of my OnClientclick attribute on my custom ASP.Net button.... function clickOnce(btnSubmit) { if ( typeof( Page_ClientValidate ) == 'function' ) { if ( ! Page_ClientValidate() ) { return false; } } btnSubmit.disabled = true; } There is a validator on the page. If a given text box is empty then the validator activates no problem. If a given text box is populated then the button disables but a post back does not occur. The rendered markup looks like this... <input type="submit" name="TestButton" value="Test Button" onclick="clickOnce(this);WebForm_DoPostBackWithOptions(new WebForm_PostBackOptions(&quot;TestButton&quot;, &quot;&quot;, true, &quot;&quot;, &quot;&quot;, false, false))" id="TestButton" class="euva-button-decorated" /> This works nicely in Firefox but not in IE6. Its almost like after the button has been disabled it simply does not run the post back javascript. Any ideas welcomed. EDIT: I have tried returning true from the function as well.

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  • ColdFusion 9 ORM - Securing an object at a low level...

    Hiya: I wonder if anybody has an idea on this... I'm looking at securing a low level object in my model (a "member" object) so by default only certain information can be accessed from it. Here's a possible approach (damn sexy if it would work!): 1) Add a property called "locked" - defaulting to "true" to the object itself. It appears that the only option to do this, and not tie it to a db table column, is to use the formula attribute that takes a query. So to default locked to TRUE I've got: <cfproperty name="locked" formula="select 1" /> 2) Then, I overwrite the existing set-ers and get-ers to use this: e.g. <cffunction name="getFullname" returnType="string"> <cfscript> if (this.getLocked()) { return this.getScreenName(); } else { return this.getFullname(); } </cfscript> </cffunction> 3) When i use it like this: <p> #oMember.getFullName()# </p> shows the ScreenName (great!) but... When I do this: <cfset oMember.setLocked(false)> <p> #oMember.getFullName()# </p> Just hangs!!! It appears that attempting to set a property that's been defined using "formula" is a no-no. Any ideas? Any other way we can have properties attached to an ORM object that are gettable and settable without them being present in the db? Ideas appreciated!

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  • translate a PHP $string using google translator API

    - by Toni Michel Caubet
    hey there! been google'ing for a while how is the best way to translate with google translator in PHP, found very different ways converting URLS, or using Js but i want to do it only with php (or with a very simple solution JS/JQUery) example: //hopefully with $from_lan and $to_lan being like 'en','de', .. or similar function translate($from_lan, $to_lan, $text){ // do return $translated_text; } can you give me a clue? or maybe you already have this function.. my intention it's to use it only for the languages i have not already defined (or keys i haven't defined), that's why i wan it so simple, will be only temporal.. EDIT thanks for your replies we are now trying this soulutions: function auto_translate($from_lan, $to_lan, $text){ // do $json = json_decode(file_get_contents('https://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/services/language/translate?v=1.0&q=' . urlencode($text) . '&langpair=' . $from_lan . '|' . $to_lan)); $translated_text = $json->responseData->translatedText; return $translated_text; } (there was a extra 'g' on variables for lang... anyway) it returns: works now :) i don't really understand much the function, so any idea why is not acepting the object? (now i do) OR: unction auto_translate($from_lan, $to_lan, $text){ // do // $json = json_decode(file_get_contents('https://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/services/language/translate?v=1.0&q=' . urlencode($text) . '&langpair=' . $from_lan . '|' . $to_lan)); // $translated_text = $json['responseData']['translatedText']; error_reporting(1); require_once('GTranslate.php'); try{ $gt = new Gtranslate(); $translated_text = $gt-english_to_german($text); } catch (GTranslateException $ge) { $translated_text= $ge->getMessage(); } return $translated_text; } And this one looks great but it doesn't even gives me an error, the page won't load (error_report(1) :S) thanks in advance!

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  • How to structure the tables of a very simple blog in MySQL?

    - by Programmer
    I want to add a very simple blog feature on one of my existing LAMP sites. It would be tied to a user's existing profile, and they would be able to simply input a title and a body for each post in their blog, and the date would be automatically set upon submission. They would be allowed to edit and delete any blog post and title at any time. The blog would be displayed from most recent to oldest, perhaps 20 posts to a page, with proper pagination above that. Other users would be able to leave comments on each post, which the blog owner would be allowed to delete, but not pre-moderate. That's basically it. Like I said, very simple. How should I structure the MySQL tables for this? I'm assuming that since there will be blog posts and comments, I would need a separate table for each, is that correct? But then what columns would I need in each table, what data structures should I use, and how should I link the two tables together (e.g. any foreign keys)? I could not find any tutorials for something like this, and what I'm looking to do is really offer my users the simplest version of a blog possible. No tags, no moderation, no images, no fancy formatting, etc. Just a simple diary-type, pure-text blog with commenting by other users.

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  • Dropping not working on Chrome Mac version

    - by user600641
    I tried to work with html5 drag&drop api, and it works very well on my chrome 20.0.1132 on windows machine, but most fun - that the same version of chrome on mac os lion is not working. I mean dragstart is working, but drop event, dragleave, dragover is not fired. Here is html: <form id="fake_form" action="#" > <div id="canvas_wrapper" style="overflow: hidden;width: 600px; position: relative;border: 1px solid black; margin-left: 30px;"> <canvas width="600" height="300" > </canvas> </div> </form> Here is javascript: var canvas = $('canvas')[0]; canvas.addEventListener('dragenter', function(e){ console.log('dragenter'); }, false); canvas.addEventListener('dragleave', function(){ console.log('dragleave'); }, false) canvas.addEventListener('dragover', function(e){ console.log('dragover'); if(e.preventDefault){ e.preventDefault(); } return false; }, false); canvas.ondrop = function(e){ console.log('ondrop'); /** OTHER CODE **/ If it helps: on safari on the same mac - it works, i`m dragging image tags some of them have draggable attribute, some of them - not. Just checked - on canary mac version 22 it works. UPDATE: i figured out that there is some magic with dragstart event, if i delete line with this e.dataTransfer.setData('src', src_var) everythings become working

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  • Detaching all entities of T to get fresh data

    - by Goran
    Lets take an example where there are two type of entites loaded: Product and Category, Product.CategoryId - Category.Id. We have available CRUD operations on products (not Categories). If on another screen Categories are updated (or from another user in the network), we would like to be able to reload the Categories, while preserving the context we currently use, since we could be in the middle of editing data, and we do not want changes to be lost (and we cannot depend on saving, since we have incomplete data). Since there is no easy way to tell EF to get fresh data (added, removed and modified), we thought of twp possible ways: 1) Getting products attached to context, and categories detached from context. This would mean that we loose the ability to access Product.Category.Name, which we do sometimes require, so we would need to manually resolve it (example when printing data). 2) detaching / attaching all Categories from current context. Context.ChangeTracker.Entries().Where(x => x.Entity.GetType() == typeof(T)).ForEach(x => x.State = EntityState.Detached); And then reload the categories, which will get fresh data. Do you find any problem with this second approach? We understand that this will require all constraints to be put on foreign keys, and not navigation properties, since when detaching all Categories, Product.Category navigation properties would be reset to null also. Also, there could be a potential performance problem, which we did not test, since there could be couple of thousand products loaded, and all would need to resolve navigation property when reloading. Which of the two do you prefer, and is there a better way (EF6 + .NET 4.0)?

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  • How can I handle dynamic calculated attributes in a model in Django?

    - by bullfish
    In Django I calculate the breadcrumb (a list of fathers) for an geographical object. Since it is not going to change very often, I am thinking of pre calculating it once the object is saved or initialized. 1.) What would be better? Which solution would have a better performance? To calculate it at _init_ or to calculate it when the object is saved (the object takes about 500-2000 characters in the DB)? 2.) I tried to overwrite the _init_ or save() methods but I don't know how to use attributes of the just saved object. Accessing *args, **kwargs did not work. How can I access them? Do I have to save, access the father and then save again? 3.) If I decide to save the breadcrumb. Whats the best way to do it? I used http://www.djangosnippets.org/snippets/1694/ and have crumb = PickledObjectField(). Thats the method to calculate the attribute crumb() def _breadcrumb(self): breadcrumb = [ ] x = self while True: x = x.father try: if hasattr(x, 'country'): breadcrumb.append(x.country) elif hasattr(x, 'region'): breadcrumb.append(x.region) elif hasattr(x, 'city'): breadcrumb.append(x.city) else: break except: break breadcrumb.reverse() return breadcrumb Thats my save-Method: def save(self,*args, **kwargs): # how can I access the father ob the object? father = self.father # does obviously not work father = kwargs['father'] # does not work either # the breadcrumb gets calculated here self.crumb = self._breadcrumb(father) super(GeoObject, self).save(*args,**kwargs) Please help me out. I am working on this for days now. Thank you.

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  • Asp MVC - "The Id field is required" validation message on Create; Id not set to [Required]

    - by burnt_hand
    This is happening when I try to create the entity using a Create style action in Asp.Net MVC 2. The POCO has the following properties: public int Id {get;set;} [Required] public string Message {get; set} On the creation of the entity, the Id is set automatically, so there is no need for it on the Create action. The ModelState says that "The Id field is required", but I haven't set that to be so. Is there something automatic going on here? EDIT - Reason Revealed The reason for the issue is answered by Brad Wilson via Paul Speranza in one of the comments below where he says (cheers Paul): You're providing a value for ID, you just didn't know you were. It's in the route data of the default route ("{controller}/{action}/{id}"), and its default value is the empty string, which isn't valid for an int. Use the [Bind] attribute on your action parameter to exclude ID. My default route was: new { controller = "Customer", action = "Edit", id = " " } // Parameter defaults EDIT - Update Model technique I actually changed the way I did this again by using TryUpdateModel and the exclude parameter array asscoiated with that. [HttpPost] public ActionResult Add(Venue collection) { Venue venue = new Venue(); if (TryUpdateModel(venue, null, null, new[] { "Id" })) { _service.Add(venue); return RedirectToAction("Index", "Manage"); } return View(collection); }

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  • updating dataset using join and bindingsource?

    - by netadictos
    Hi, I have created a dataset and in the designer I have created the relations and foreign keys that exist in the database. Basically, I have a product that has a relationship to a table of prices. The keyfield they share is IdProduct in the Prices table. In the Fill/Get of the product I return the Price field. I also have a DataGrid that uses a BindingSource which uses this table. Everything displays correctly and when I double click on a row within the datagrid I then open up a tabbed form that contains a detailed view of the record selected. The user at this point is able to make changes to the record and they are properly propogated back to the BindingSource. The problem is that the TableAdapter does not contain the appopriate update, therefore I am not able to call the TableAdapter.Update method with the dataset as I would had I created a tableadapter not using a join. How am I best to handle this situation. At the same time I cannot get any modified row: dTiendasDs.ProductosDataTable modified = (dTiendasDs.ProductosDataTable) dTiendasDs.Productos.GetChanges(DataRowState.Modified); modified is always null Thanks,

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  • Is there a way to parse XML via SAX/DOM with line numbers available per node.

    - by Chris
    I already have written a DOM parser for a large XML document format that contains a number of items that can be used to automatically generate Java code. This is limited to small expressions that are then merged into a dynamically generated Java source file. So far - so good. Everything works. BUT - I wish to be able to embed the line number of the XML node where the Java code was included from (so that if the configuration contains uncompilable code, each method will have a pointer to the source XML document and the line number for ease of debugging). I don't require the line number at parse-time and I don't need to validate the XML Source Document and throw an error at a particular line number. I need to be able to access the line number for each node and attribute in my DOM or per SAX event. Any suggestions on how I might be able to achieve this? P.S. Also, I read the StAX has a method to obtain line number whilst parsing, but ideally I would like to achieve the same result with regular SAX/DOM processing in Java 4/5 rather than become a Java 6+ application or take on extra .jar files.

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