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• Best Way to View Generated Source of Webpage?

  - by jeremy

  I'm looking for a tool that will give me the proper generated source including DOM changes made by AJAX requests for input into W3's validator. I've tried the following methods: Web Developer Toolbar - Generates invalid source according to the doc-type (e.g. it removes the self closing portion of tags). Loses the doctype portion of the page. Firebug - Fixes potential flaws in the source (e.g. unclosed tags). Also loses doctype portion of tags and injects the console which itself is invalid HTML. IE Developer Toolbar - Generates invalid source according to the doc-type (e.g. it makes all tags uppercase, against XHTML spec). Highlight + View Selection Source - Frequently difficult to get the entire page, also excludes doc-type. Is there any program or add-on out there that will give me the exact current version of the source, without fixing or changing it in some way? So far, Firebug seems the best, but I worry it may fix some of my mistakes. Solution It turns out there is no exact solution to what I wanted as Justin explained. The best solution seems to be to validate the source inside of Firebug's console, even though it will contain some errors caused by Firebug. I'd also like to thank Forgotten Semicolon for explaining why "View Generated Source" doesn't match the actual source. If I could mark 2 best answers, I would.

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• Entity Framework 4 + POCO with custom classes and WCF contracts (serialization problem)

  - by eman

  Yesterday I worked on a project where I upgraded to Entity Framework 4 with the Repository pattern. In one post, I have read that it is necessary to turn off the custom tool generator classes and then write classes (same like entites) by hand. That I can do it, I used the POCO Entity Generator and then deleted the new generated files .tt and all subordinate .cs classes. Then I wrote the "entity classes" by myself. I added the repository pattern and implemented it in the business layer and then implemented a WCF layer, which should call the methods from the business layer. By calling an Insert (Add) method from the presentation layer and everything is OK. But if I call any method that should return some class, then I get an error like (the connection was interrupted by the server). I suppose there is a problem with the serialization or am I wrong? How can by this problem solved? I'm using Visual Studio S2010, Entity Framework 4, C#. UPDATE: I have uploaded the project and hope somebody can help me! link text UPDATE 2: My questions: Why is POCO good (pros/cons)? When should POCO be used? Is POCO + the repository pattern a good choice? Should POCO classes by written by myself or could I use auto generated POCO classes?

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• What makes an effective UI for displaying versioning of structured hierarchical data

  - by Fadrian Sudaman

  Traditional version control system are displaying versioning information by grouping Projects-Folders-Files with Tree view on the left and details view on the right, then you will click on each item to look at revision history for that configuration history. Assuming that I have all the historical versioning information available for a project from Object-oriented model perspective (e.g. classes - methods - parameters and etc), what do you think will be the most effective way to present such information in UI so that you can easily navigate and access the snapshot view of the project and also the historical versioning information? Put yourself in the position that you are using a tool like this everyday in your job like you are currently using SVN, SS, Perforce or any VCS system, what will contribute to the usability, productivity and effectiveness of the tool. I personally find the classical way for display folders and files like above are very restrictive and less effective for displaying deep nested logical models. Assuming that this is a greenfield project and not restricted by specific technology, how do you think I should best approach this? I am looking for idea and input here to add values to my research project. Feel free to make any suggestions that you think is valuable. Thanks again for anyone that shares their thoughts.

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• WCF Custom SOAP Header Issues

  - by WayneC

  I'm trying to implement an endpoint behavior which injects a custom SOAP header into all messages to and from a service. I've gotten pretty close by implementing the approach from the accepted answer of this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/986455/wcf-wsdl-soap-header-on-all-operations/995951#995951 After implementing that solution, my custom SOAP header does indeed show up in the WSDL; however, when I try to call the methods on my service, I get the following exception/fault: <ExceptionDetail xmlns="http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/System.ServiceModel" xmlns:i="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> <HelpLink i:nil="true" /> <InnerException i:nil="true" /> <Message>Index was outside the bounds of the array.</Message> <StackTrace> at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.DataContractSerializerOperationFormatter.AddHeadersToMessage(Message message, MessageDescription messageDescription, Object[] parameters, Boolean isRequest) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.OperationFormatter.SerializeReply(MessageVersion messageVersion, Object[] parameters, Object result) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.DispatchOperationRuntime.SerializeOutputs(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.DispatchOperationRuntime.InvokeBegin(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage5(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage4(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage3(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage2(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage1(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.MessageRpc.Process(Boolean isOperationContextSet)</StackTrace> <Type>System.IndexOutOfRangeException</Type> </ExceptionDetail> Looking in Reflector at the DataContractSerializerOperationFormatter.AddHeadersToMessage method thats throwing the exception, leads me to believe that the following snippet is causing the problem...but I'm not sure why. MessageHeaderDescription description = (MessageHeaderDescription) headerPart.Description; object parameterValue = parameters[description.Index]; I think the last line above is throwing the exception. The parameters variable is from IDispatchFormatter.SerializeReply What's going on?!?!! Any help would be greatly appreciated...

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• Is it better to use a relational database or document-based database for an app like Wufoo?

  - by mboyle

  I'm working on an application that's similar to Wufoo in that it allows our users to create their own databases and collect/present records with auto generated forms and views. Since every user is creating a different schema (one user might have a database of their baseball card collection, another might have a database of their recipes) our current approach is using MySQL to create separate databases for every user with its own tables. So in other words, the databases our MySQL server contains look like: main-web-app-db (our web app containing tables for users account info, billing, etc) user_1_db (baseball_cards_table) user_2_db (recipes_table) .... And so on. If a user wants to set up a new database to keep track of their DVD collection, we'd do a "create database ..." with "create table ...". If they enter some data in and then decide they want to change a column we'd do an "alter table ....". Now, the further along I get with building this out the more it seems like MySQL is poorly suited to handling this. 1) My first concern is that switching databases every request, first to our main app's database for authentication etc, and then to the user's personal database, is going to be inefficient. 2) The second concern I have is that there's going to be a limit to the number of databases a single MySQL server can host. Pretending for a moment this application had 500,000 user databases, is MySQL designed to operate this way? What if it were a million, or more? 3) Lastly, is this method going to be a nightmare to support and scale? I've never heard of MySQL being used in this way so I do worry about how this affects things like replication and other methods of scaling. To me, it seems like MySQL wasn't built to be used in this way but what do I know. I've been looking at document-based databases like MongoDB, CouchDB, and Redis as alternatives because it seems like a schema-less approach to this particular problem makes a lot of sense. Can anyone offer some advice on this?

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• Constructor Overloading

  - by Mark Baker

  Normally when I want to create a class constructor that accepts different types of parameters, I'll use a kludgy overloading principle of not defining any args in the constructor definition: e.g. for an ECEF coordinate class constructor, I want it to accept either $x, $y and $z arguments, or to accept a single array argument containg x, y and z values, or to accept a single LatLong object I'd create a constructor looking something like: function __construct() { // Identify if any arguments have been passed to the constructor if (func_num_args() > 0) { $args = func_get_args(); // Identify the overload constructor required, based on the datatype of the first argument $argType = gettype($args[0]); switch($argType) { case 'array' : // Array of Cartesian co-ordinate values $overloadConstructor = 'setCoordinatesFromArray'; break; case 'object' : // A LatLong object that needs converting to Cartesian co-ordinate values $overloadConstructor = 'setCoordinatesFromLatLong'; break; default : // Individual Cartesian co-ordinate values $overloadConstructor = 'setCoordinatesFromXYZ'; break; } // Call the appropriate overload constructor call_user_func_array(array($this,$overloadConstructor),$args); } } // function __construct() I'm looking at an alternative: to provide a straight constructor with $x, $y and $z as defined arguments, and to provide static methods of createECEFfromArray() and createECEFfromLatLong() that handle all the necessary extraction of x, y and z; then create a new ECEF object using the standard constructor, and return that Which option is cleaner from an OO purists perspective?

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• Ext JS 4.2.1 loading controller - best practice

  - by Hown_

  I am currently developing a Ext JS application with many views/controlers/... I am wondering myself what the best practice is for loading the JS controllers/views/and so on... currently i have my application defined like this: // enable javascript cache for debugging, otherwise Chrome breakpoints are lost Ext.Loader.setConfig({ disableCaching: false }); Ext.require('Ext.util.History'); Ext.require('app.Sitemap'); Ext.require('app.Error'); Ext.define('app.Application', { name: 'app', extend: 'Ext.app.Application', views: [ // TODO: add views here 'app.view.Viewport', 'app.view.BaseMain', 'app.view.Main', 'app.view.ApplicationHeader', //administration 'app.view.administration.User' ... ], controllers: [ 'app.controller.Viewport', 'app.controller.Main', 'app.controller.ApplicationHeader', //administration 'app.controller.administration.User', ... ], stores: [ // stores in there.. ] }); somehow this forces the client to load all my views and controllers at startup and is calling all init methods of all controllers of course.. i need to load data everytime i chnage my view.. and now i cant load it in my controllers init function. I would have to do something like this i assume: init: function () { this.control({ '#administration_User': { afterrender: this.onAfterRender } }); }, Is there a better way to do this? Or just an other event? Though the main thing i am questioning myself is if it is the best practice to load all the javascript at startup. Wouldnt it be better to only load the controllers/views/... which the client does need right now? Or should i load all the JS at startup? If i do want to load the controllers dynamicly how could i do this? I assume a would have to remove them from my application arrays (views, controllers, stores) and create an instance if i do need it and mby set the view in the controllers init?! What's best practice??

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• Best way to catch a WCF exception in Silverlight?

  - by wahrhaft

  I have a Silverlight 2 application that is consuming a WCF service. As such, it uses asynchronous callbacks for all the calls to the methods of the service. If the service is not running, or it crashes, or the network goes down, etc before or during one of these calls, an exception is generated as you would expect. The problem is, I don't know how to catch this exception. Because it is an asynchronous call, I can't wrap my begin call with a try/catch block and have it pick up an exception that happens after the program has moved on from that point. Because the service proxy is automatically generated, I can't put a try/catch block on each and every generated function that calls EndInvoke (where the exception actually shows up). These generated functions are also surrounded by External Code in the call stack, so there's nowhere else in the stack to put a try/catch either. I can't put the try/catch in my callback functions, because the exception occurs before they would get called. There is an Application_UnhandledException function in my App.xaml.cs, which captures all unhandled exceptions. I could use this, but it seems like a messy way to do it. I'd rather reserve this function for the truly unexpected errors (aka bugs) and not end up with code in this function for every circumstance I'd like to deal with in a specific way. Am I missing an obvious solution? Or am I stuck using Application_UnhandledException? [Edit] As mentioned below, the Error property is exactly what I was looking for. What is throwing me for a loop is that the fact that the exception is thrown and appears to be uncaught, yet execution is able to continue. It triggers the Application_UnhandledException event and causes VS2008 to break execution, but continuing in the debugger allows execution to continue. It's not really a problem, it just seems odd.

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• Where to store site settings: DB? XML? CONFIG? CLASS FILES?

  - by Emin

  I am re-building a news portal of which already have a large number of visits every day. One of the major concerns when re-building this site was to maximize performance and speed. Having said this, we have done many things from caching, to all sort of other measures to ensure speed. Now towards the end of the project, I am having a dilemma of where to store my site settings that would least affect performance. The site settings will include things such as: Domain, DefaultImgPath, Google Analytics code, default emails of editors as well as more dynamic design/display feature settings such as the background color of specific DIVs and default color for links etc.. As far as I know, I have 4 choices in storing all these info. Database: Storing general settings in the DB and caching them may be a solution however, I want to limit the access to the database for only necessary and essential functions of the project which generally are insert/update/delete news items, author articles etc.. XML: I can store these settings in an XML file but I have not done this sort of thing before so I don't know what kind of problems -if any- I might face in the future. CONFIG: I can also store these settings in web.config CLASS FILE: I can hard code all these settings in a SiteSettings class, but since the site admin himself will be able to edit these settings, It may not be the best solution. Currently, I am more close to choosing web.config but letting people fiddle with it too often is something I do not want. E.g. if somehow, I miss out a validation for something and it breaks the web.config, the whole site will go down. My concern basically is that, I cannot forsee any possible consequences of using any of the methods above (or is there any other?), I was hoping to get this question over to more experienced people out here who hopefully help make my decision.

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• Why is Func<T> ambiguous with Func<IEnumerable<T>>?

  - by Matt Hamilton

  This one's got me flummoxed, so I thought I'd ask here in the hope that a C# guru can explain it to me. Why does this code generate an error? class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Foo(X); // the error is on this line } static String X() { return "Test"; } static void Foo(Func<IEnumerable<String>> x) { } static void Foo(Func<String> x) { } } The error in question: Error 1 The call is ambiguous between the following methods or properties: 'ConsoleApplication1.Program.Foo(System.Func<System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable<string>>)' and 'ConsoleApplication1.Program.Foo(System.Func<string>)' C:\Users\mabster\AppData\Local\Temporary Projects\ConsoleApplication1\Program.cs 12 13 ConsoleApplication1 It doesn't matter what type I use - if you replace the "String" declarations with "int" in that code you'll get the same sort of error. It's like the compiler can't tell the difference between Func<T> and Func<IEnumerable<T>>. Can someone shed some light on this?

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• redirecting the root domain - SEO and other issues, need some guidance!

  - by Jim Sp

  I'm not familiar with some of these forwarding methods and I need help. My issue is this: I have a site hosted on discountasp.net. My domain was registered through 1&1 and I redirected the DNS to what discountasp.net wanted. So when a user types www.mydomain.com, he/she sees the ASP.NET site hosted on discountasp.net, which is all fine My main page is Index.aspx, I really suck at html page design and I don't have time or the talent to fiddle with it (or money to get it done by a pro). The rest of the pages are fine. I want to use a good theme from tumblr or bloggr - one of the blog sites and create a page that I want to use as the first page - directly on blogger or tumblr - say yyy.blogspot.com (I have many reasons, so for now please don't bash my decision - let's just say that's what I want). That means when a user types www.mydomain.com, it should redirect it to the blogger or tumblr page. Everything else stays the sme - the links on the blogger page will say www.mydomain.com/xxxx and show up what's on the hosted website. I have setup the IIS rewrite rules etc. etc. so that all works just fine The bottom line is I want to show an external site's web page as my root page. I suppose I'm struggling to even explain what I want! I can of course do a response.redirect on the Index.aspx page - which is the simplest way to manage this, but the big question is will this hurt SEO in some way? If not, that would be what I do and leave the rest of the infrastructure intact (I have already done this to test and it works fine) Thank you very much j

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• OptimisticLockException in inner transaction ruins outer transaction

  - by Pace

  I have the following code (OLE = OptimisticLockException)... public void outer() { try { middle() } catch (OLE) { updateEntities(); outer(); } } @Transactional public void middle() { try { inner() } catch (OLE) { updateEntities(); middle(); } @Transactional public void inner() { //Do DB operation } inner() is called by other non-transactional methods which is why both middle() and inner() are transactional. As you can see, I deal with OLEs by updating the entities and retrying the operation. The problem I'm having is that when I designed things this way I was assuming that the only time one could get an OLE was when a transaction closed. This is apparently not the case as the call to inner() is throwing an OLE even when the stack is outer()->middle()->inner(). Now, middle() is properly handling the OLE and the retry succeeds but when it comes time to close the transaction it has been marked rollbackOnly by Spring. When the middle() method call finally returns the closing aspect throws an exception because it can't commit a transaction marked rollbackOnly. I'm uncertain what to do here. I can't clear the rollbackOnly state. I don't want to force create a transaction on every call to inner because that kills my performance. Am I missing something or can anyone see a way I can structure this differently? EDIT: To clarify what I'm asking, let me explain my main question. Is it possible to catch and handle OLE if you are inside of an @Transactional method? FYI: The transaction manager is a JpaTransactionManager and the JPA provider is Hibernate.

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• calling java script function then C# function after clicking ASP.NET button

  - by Eyla

  I have this serious: I have ASP.NET page, This page contents Update panel with ASP.NET control. I have Java script function to do validation so when I click the button I will use onclientclick to call the java function to do the validation and after this one done should call then event click button function from code behind. I tried vew methods but they did not work for me. here is sample of my code that after I click the button onclientclick will call the java script function for validation and if the validation is OK should call onclick event. .................... java script function ........................ <script type="text/javascript" > function add(){ if (tag == trye) { document.getElementById('<%=btnInfor.ClientID%>').click(); alert("DataAdded") } else { alert("Requiered Field Missing.") return false; } } </script> ..................... ASP.NET button ................... <asp:Button ID="btnInfor" runat="server" Text="Add Information" Style="position: absolute; top: 1659px; left: 433px;" onclientclick="JavaScript: return myAdd()" /> .................... code behind in C# ...................... protected void btnInfor_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { \\mycode }

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• CanCan polymorphic resource access problem

  - by Call 'naive' True

  Hi everybody, i don't quite understand how to restrict access to links in this particular case with CanCan. I always get "Edit" link displayed. So i believe the problem is in my incorrect definition of cancan methods(load_ and authorize_). I have CommentsController like that: class CommentsController < ApplicationController before_filter :authenticate_user! load_resource :instance_name => :commentable authorize_resource :article def index @commentable = find_commentable #loading our generic object end ...... private def find_commentable params.each { |name, value| if name =~ /(.+)_id$/ return $1.classify.constantize.includes(:comments => :karma).find(value) end } end end and i have in comments/index.html.erb following code that render file from other controller: <%= render :file => "#{get_commentable_partial_name(@commentable)}/show.html.erb", :collection => @commentable %> you can think about "#{get_commentable_partial_name(@commentable)}" like just "articles" in this case. Content of "articles/show.html.erb": <% if can? :update, @commentable %> <%= link_to 'Edit', edit_article_path(@commentable) %> | <% end %> my ability.rb: class Ability include CanCan::Ability def initialize(user) user ||= User.new # guest user if user.role? :admin can :manage, :all elsif user.role? :author can :read, [Article, Comment, Profile] can :update, Article, :user_id => user.id end end end relations with models is: class Comment < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :commentable, :polymorphic => true, :dependent => :destroy ... end class Article < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :comments, :as => :commentable, :dependent => :destroy ... end i have tried debug this issue like that user = User.first article = Article.first ability = Ability.new(user) ability.can?(:update, article) and i always get "= true" in ability check Note: user.role == author and article.user_id != user.id if you need more information please write thank's for your time && sorry for my english

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• C# struct with object as data member

  - by source-energy

  As we know, in C# structs are passed by value, not by reference. So if I have a struct with the following data members: private struct MessageBox { // data members private DateTime dm_DateTimeStamp; // a struct type private TimeSpan dm_TimeSpanInterval; // also a struct private ulong dm_MessageID; // System.Int64 type, struct private String dm_strMessage; // an object (hence a reference is stored here) // more methods, properties, etc ... } So when a MessageBox is passed as a parameter, a COPY is made on the stack, right? What does that mean in terms of how the data members are copied? The first two are struct types, so copies should be made of DateTime and TimeSpan. The third type is a primitive, so it's also copied. But what about the dm_strMessage, which is a reference to an object? When it's copied, another reference to the same String is created, right? The object itself resides in the heap, and is NOT copied (there is only one instance of it on the heap.) So now we have to references to the same object of type String. If the two references are accessed from different threads, it's conceivable that the String object could be corrupted by being modified from two different directions simultaneously. The MSDN documentation says that System.String is thread safe. Does that mean that the String class has a built-in mechanism to prevent an object being corrupted in exactly the type of situation described here? I'm trying to figure out if my MessageBox struct has any potential flaws / pitfalls being a structure vs. a class. Thanks for any input. Source.Energy.

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• Performance of C# method polymorphism with generics

  - by zildjohn01

  I noticed in C#, unlike C++, you can combine virtual and generic methods. For example: using System.Diagnostics; class Base { public virtual void Concrete() {Debug.WriteLine("base concrete");} public virtual void Generic<T>() {Debug.WriteLine("base generic");} } class Derived : Base { public override void Concrete() {Debug.WriteLine("derived concrete");} public override void Generic<T>() {Debug.WriteLine("derived generic");} } class App { static void Main() { Base x = new Derived(); x.Concrete(); x.Generic<PerformanceCounter>(); } } Given that any number of versions of Generic<T> could be instantiated, it doesn't look like the standard vtbl approach could be used to resolve method calls, and in fact it's not. Here's the generated code: x.Concrete(); mov ecx,dword ptr [ebp-8] mov eax,dword ptr [ecx] call dword ptr [eax+38h] x.Generic<PerformanceCounter>(); push 989A38h mov ecx,dword ptr [ebp-8] mov edx,989914h call 76A874F1 mov dword ptr [ebp-4],eax mov ecx,dword ptr [ebp-8] call dword ptr [ebp-4] The extra code appears to be looking up a dynamic vtbl according to the generic parameters, and then calling into it. Has anyone written about the specifics of this implementation? How well does it perform compared to the non-generic case?

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• How to encapsulate a WinAPI application into a C++ class

  - by Semen Semenych

  There is a simple WinAPI application. All it does currently is this: register a window class register a tray icon with a menu create a value in the registry in order to autostart and finally, it checks if it's unique using a mutex As I'm used to writing code mainly in C++, and no MFC is allowed, I'm forced to encapsulate this into C++ classes somehow. So far I've come up with such a design: there is a class that represents the application it keeps all the wndclass, hinstance, etc variables, where the hinstance is passed as a constructor parameter as well as the icmdshow and others (see WinMain prototype) it has functions for registering the window class, tray icon, reigstry information it encapsulates the message loop in a function In WinMain, the following is done: Application app(hInstance, szCmdLIne, iCmdShow); return app.exec(); and the constructor does the following: registerClass(); registerTray(); registerAutostart(); So far so good. Now the question is : how do I create the window procedure (must be static, as it's a c-style pointer to a function) AND keep track of what the application object is, that is, keep a pointer to an Application around. The main question is : is this how it's usually done? Am I complicating things too much? Is it fine to pass hInstance as a parameter to the Application constructor? And where's the WndProc? Maybe WndProc should be outside of class and the Application pointer be global? Then WndProc invokes Application methods in response to various events.

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• What does it mean to say "Instance variables are not over-rided" in java?

  - by Ankit

  I am aware of the concept called field hiding in java. But still I am having a confusion in relation to instance variable being not over-ridden. According to my present knowledge, overriding a method of super-class means that the JVM will call the sub-class's over-ridden method though the super-class's method is available to the sub-class. And I read the similar thing for field hiding via the link:- Hiding Fields So, in any case we are over-ridding the instance if we change the values of the inherited instance variable in the sub-class. I am confused please help. I am using the following super-class:- public class Animal{ File picture; String food; int hunger; int width, height; int xcoord, ycoord; public void makeNoise(){ ......... } public void eat(){ ............. } public void sleep(){ .......... } public void roam(){ ............. } } It has sub-classes like Tiger, cat, dog,hippo etc. The sub-classes over-ride the makeNoise(), eat and roam() method. But each sub-class also uses a different set of values for instance variables. So as per my confusion, I am kind-of overriding all the instance variables and 3 methods of the super-class Animal; and I still have the super-class instance variables available to the sub-class with the use of the super keyword.

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• Run-time error 459 when using WithEvents with a class that implements another

  - by Ken Keenan

  I am developing a VBA project in Word and have encountered a problem with handling events when using a class that implements another. I define an empty class, IMyInterface: Public Sub Xyz() End Sub Public Event SomeEvent() And a class, MyClass that implements the above: Implements IMyInterface Public Event SomeEvent() Public Sub Xyz() ' ... code ... RaiseEvent SomeEvent End Sub Private Sub IMyInterface_Xyz() Xyz End Sub If I create a third class, OtherClass, that declares a member variable with the type of the interface class: Private WithEvents mMy As IMyInterface and try to initialize this variable with an instance of the implementing class: Set mMy = New MyClass I get a run-time error '459': This component doesn't support this set of events. The MSDN page for this error message states: "You tried to use a WithEvents variable with a component that can't work as an event source for the specified set of events. For example, you may be sinking events of an object, then create another object that Implements the first object. Although you might think you could sink the events from the implemented object, that isn't automatically the case. Implements only implements an interface for methods and properties." The above pretty much sums up what I'm trying to do. The wording, "that isn't automatically the case", rather than "this is flat-out impossible", seems to suggest that there is some bit of manual work I need to do to get it to work, but it doesn't tell me what! Does anybody know if this is possible in VBA?

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• Static Variables somehow maintaining state?

  - by gfoley

  I am working on an existing project, setup by another coder. I'm having some trouble understanding how state is being maintained between pages. There is a Class library which has some helper objects. Mostly these objects are just used for there static methods and rarely instantiated or inherited. This is an example class I'm testing with. public sealed class Application { public static string Test; } Now when i run something like the following in the base class of my page, I would expect the result to be "1: 2:Test" all the time (note that "1" is empty), but strangly its only this way the first time it is run. Then every time afterwards its "1:Test 2:Test". Somehow its maintaining the state of the static variable between pages and being refreshed?? Response.Write("1:" + SharedLibrary.Application.Test); SharedLibrary.Application.Test = "Test"; Response.Write(" 2:" + SharedLibrary.Application.Test); I need to create more classes like this, but want to understand why this is occurring in the first place. Many Thanks

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• Why doesn't the Java Collections API include a Graph implementation?

  - by dvanaria

  I’m currently learning the Java Collections API and feel I have a good understanding of the basics, but I’ve never understood why this standard API doesn’t include a Graph implementation. The three base classes are easily understandable (List, Set, and Map) and all their implementations in the API are mostly straightforward and consistent. Considering how often graphs come up as a potential way to model a given problem, this just doesn’t make sense to me (it’s possible it does exist in the API and I’m not looking in the right place of course). Steve Yegge suggests in one of his blog posts that a programmer should consider graphs first when attacking a problem, and if the problem domain doesn’t fit naturally into this data structure, only then consider the alternative structures. My first guess is that there is no universal way to represent graphs, or that their interfaces may not be generic enough for an API implementation to be useful? But if you strip down a graph to its basic components (vertices and a set of edges that connect some or all of the vertices) and consider the ways that graphs are commonly constructed (methods like addVertex(v) and insertEdge(v1, v2)) it seems that a generic Graph implementation would be possible and useful. Thanks for helping me understand this better.

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• BlackBerry Deployment Strategies

  - by cagreen

  I'm new to large scale BB app deployment and I'm looking for some clarification on the various methods of deployment. Please bear with me as I'm sure there is more to it than my naive view would lead me to believe. My app is very targeted to corporate users and requires a subscription to some additional services before it can be used. In other words, it's not targeted towards the consumer market, so I'm not worried about people not being able to easily find it online. What do I need to be aware of when looking at deployment strategies? Any gotchas? From my understanding my choices are: - App World small upfront vendor fee users can easily search for and find my app billing handled by RIM 4 licensing models (static, single, pool, dynamic). Though I'm not sure I've seen enough info on the pool and dynamic to fully appreciate how it might help me. - Download from my website billing is handled by me can I enforce the number of licenses that are in use within an organization? is this easier/harder for a user? - What else am I missing?

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• Need an Overview of Possibilities for multicolumn programming

  - by Sam

  Hi folks, From source1 and source2 i gather that IE9 will NOT support multi-column css3!! Since it is still the most popular browser (another thing i cannot understand), i am left but no other choice than to use Programming Power to make multi-columns work. Now, I use three divs that float to left, and which are manually filled with text. Please don't laugh i know its stupid! But I would wish to not to have to worry about the columns and just have a one piece of (un-interrupted) text which all goes into only 1 div, and then have a program smart enough to split it up into X equally wide columns. Question: before i start reinvent the wheel, what methods of programming power have you known that tackle this elegantly? Please suggest your best working multi-column layout sources so I can evaluate which option is the best (I will update the below table). Exploring all possibilities 2011 and further, to enable multi column text user experience: Language Author SourceCodeUsage WorksOnAllMajorBrowser? ================================================================================= html manual labour put text manually in separate left-floating divs "Y" // Upside: control! Downside: few changes necessitates to reflow 3 divs manually! CSS3 w3c css3.info/preview/multi-column-layout/ "N" // {-moz-column-count: 3; -webkit-column-count: 3; } Thats all! javascript a list apart will add url soon ? // php ? ? ? //

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• are custom classes imported API included in .class files?

  - by kyrogue

  i have a question, i have a custom class which imports java.sql.; and i am creating a jsp page, in the jsp page, i did a page import of the custom class , however when i tried to call my custom class database methods it cant work. only when i did a page import of java.sql. did it work. so are custom classes imported API included in .class files? An error occurred at line: 6 in the jsp file: /resetpw.jsp Statement cannot be resolved to a type 3: 4: <% 5: db.connect(); 6: Statement stmt = db.getConnection().createStatement(); 7: ResultSet rs = stmt.executeQuery("SELECT * FROM created_accounts"); 8: 9: An error occurred at line: 7 in the jsp file: /resetpw.jsp ResultSet cannot be resolved to a type 4: <% 5: db.connect(); 6: Statement stmt = db.getConnection().createStatement(); 7: ResultSet rs = stmt.executeQuery("SELECT * FROM created_accounts"); 8: 9: 10: Stacktrace: org.apache.jasper.compiler.DefaultErrorHandler.javacError(DefaultErrorHandler.java:93) org.apache.jasper.compiler.ErrorDispatcher.javacError(ErrorDispatcher.java:330) org.apache.jasper.compiler.JDTCompiler.generateClass(JDTCompiler.java:451) org.apache.jasper.compiler.Compiler.compile(Compiler.java:319) org.apache.jasper.compiler.Compiler.compile(Compiler.java:298) org.apache.jasper.compiler.Compiler.compile(Compiler.java:286) org.apache.jasper.JspCompilationContext.compile(JspCompilationContext.java:565) org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServletWrapper.service(JspServletWrapper.java:309) org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServlet.serviceJspFile(JspServlet.java:308) org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServlet.service(JspServlet.java:259) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:729) note The full stack trace of the root cause is available in the Apache Tomcat/5.5.31 logs. edited. added what error will come up if i did not do a page import of java.sql.*;

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• Validating JSP's and HTML Forms, Server-side or Client-side, or both?

  - by CitadelCSAlum

  I am aware that I can Google "HTML Form Validation" and would get a billion tutorials. I am well aware that I can use simple JavaScript to validate form input, but I have been told that this is not necessarily an efficient method. I have also heard that it is a best practice to validate both client and server-side code. OK! Well, What exactly does this mean besides writing code on both? Does it mean I do some with JavaScript and other with Servlet's or does it mean that I write identical validation methods on both? My real question is can anybody give me insight and direction as how to go about validation my HTML forms. I am using JSP's and Servlet's and I have tons of form validation to do. I have already done minor form validation with regex in Java, but want to figure out if Im heading in the right track before I write any more code. Only productive answers please, If I wanted negative feedback on how inexperienced I was, I would have gone to Reddit. Thanks!

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