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  • Custom UITableView headerView disappears after memory warning

    - by psychotik
    I have a UITableViewController. I create a custom headerView for it's tableView in the loadView method like so: (void)loadView { [super loadView]; UIView* containerView = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, width, height * 2 )]; containerView.tag = 'cont'; containerView.autoresizingMask = UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleLeftMargin | UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleRightMargin | UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleWidth | UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleTopMargin; UIButton* button = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeCustom]; button.frame = CGRectMake(padding, height, width, height); ... //configure UIButton and events UIImageView* imageView = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"image.png"] highlightedImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"highlight.png"]]; imageView.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, width, height ); ... //configure UIImageView [containerView addSubview:button]; [containerView addSubview:imageView]; self.tableView.tableHeaderView = containerView; [imageView release]; [containerView release]; } None of the other methods (viewDidLoad/Unload, etc) are overloaded. This controller is hosted in a tab. When I switch to another tab and simulate a memory warning, and then come back to this tab, my UITableView is missing my custon header. All the rows/section are visible as I would expect. Putting a BP in the loadView code above, I see it being invoked when I switch back to the tab after the memory warning, and yet I can't actually see the header. Any ideas about what I'm missing here? EDIT: This happens on the device and the simulator. On the device, I just let a memory warning occur by opening a bunch of different apps while mine is in the background.

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  • Multiple exports with MEF does some really heinous stuff -- why, and why is it allowed?

    - by Dave
    I have an interesting situation where I need to do something like this: [Export[typeof(ICandy1)] [Export[typeof(ICandy2)] public class Candy : ICandy2 { ... } where public interface ICandy1 { ... } public interface ICandy2 : ICandy1 { ... } I couldn't find any posts anywhere regarding using multiple [Export] attributes, so I figured, what the hell, might as well try it. At first glance, it actually seemed to work. I have a couple of methods that call into both interfaces of a Candy instance, and it was fine. However, as I started to test the app, I saw that the behavior wasn't right, and when looking at the Output window, I saw that I was getting tons of COMExceptions. I couldn't track down where they were all coming from, but they always occurred when a worker thread was sleeping. I figured that it had to be from the main thread, then, but didn't know how to debug this at all. Nothing should have been going on in the GUI, and I disabled my DispatchTimers just in case -- same thing. Even more strange than the COMExceptions was the really, really erratic behavior when stepping through code. About 30% of the time, when I single stepped, it would pop out of the method, or it would single step over two lines of code! Totally weird stuff that I am not used to seeing. The only thing that changed between working and non-working code was the introduction of MEF through my plugin loading code. So as a test, I changed my plugin assembly to only export one interface, and I hardcoded everything in the app that relied on the other (now not-implemented) interface. And now the COMExceptions are gone, and the weird debugging behavior is gone. Is this something people here have seen before? If MEF is not expected to allow a class to Export multiple interfaces, then shouldn't a CompositionException get raised when composing the parts? Can anyone explain why MEF would cause these weird problems???

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  • iphone how to determine and code according to base sdk version?

    - by Nareshkumar
    I have a code for UIImage picker photoImagePicker=[[UIImagePickerController alloc]init]; photoImagePicker.delegate=self; photoImagePicker.sourceType=UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypeCamera; photoImagePicker.mediaTypes=[UIImagePickerController availableMediaTypesForSourceType:photoImagePicker.sourceType]; [self presentModalViewController:photoImagePicker animated:YES]; photoImagePicker.showsCameraControls = YES; //Doesnot work on 3.0 photoImagePicker.navigationBarHidden = YES; photoImagePicker.toolbarHidden = YES; photoImagePicker.allowsEditing=YES; //Doesnt work on 3.0 Now everything works fine when the sdk is 3.1 or higher but when i put the os version as 3.0, the code starts showing errors. Turns out these methods were not present in 3.0 and so errors. I want to keep a mechanism which will enable these for higher versions(3.1) and at the same time work properly for 3.0 version. How do i do it? One solution i have thought of is to verify the version value and then put that code. But i am not sure how this is got. Any help will be appreciated.

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  • WSDL first for existing service layer

    - by Jurgen H
    I am working on an existing Java project with a typical services - dao setup for which only a webapplication was available. My job is to add webservices on top of the services layer, but the webservices have their own functional analysis and datamodel. The functional analyses ofcource focuses on what is possible in the different service methods. As good practice demands, we used the WSDL first strategy and generated JAXB bound Java classes and a SEI for the webservices. After having implemented the webservices partially, we noticed a 70% match between the datamodel. This resulted in writing converters which take the webservice JAXB classes and map them with the service layer classes. Customer customer = new Customer(); customer.setName(wsCustomer.getName()); customer.setFirstName(wsCustomer.getFirstName(); .. This is a very obvious example, some other mappings where little more complicated. Can anyone give his best practices, experiences, solutions to this kind of situations? Are any of these frameworks usefull? http://transmorph.sourceforge.net/wiki/index.php/Main_Page http://ezmorph.sourceforge.net/ Please don't start a discussion about WSDL first vs code first.

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  • WCF Multiple contracts with duplicate method names

    - by haxelit
    Hello, I have a service with multiple contracts like so. [ServiceContract] public partial interface IBusinessFunctionDAO { [OperationContract] BusinessFunction GetBusinessFunction(Int32 businessFunctionRefID); [OperationContract] IEnumerable<Project> GetProjects(Int32 businessFunctionRefID); } [ServiceContract] public partial interface IBusinessUnitDAO { [OperationContract] BusinessUnit GetBusinessUnit(Int32 businessUnitRefID); [OperationContract] IEnumerable<Project> GetProjects(Int32 businessUnitRefID); } I then explicitly implemented each one of the interfaces like so. public class TrackingTool : IBusinessFunctionDAO, IBusinessUnitDAO { BusinessFunction IBusinessFunctionDAO.GetBusinessFunction(Int32 businessFunctionRefID) { // implementation } IEnumerable<Project> IBusinessFunctionDAO.GetProjects(Int32 businessFunctionRefID) { // implementation } BusinessUnit IBusinessUnitDAO.GetBusinessUnit(Int32 businessUnitRefID) { // implementation } IEnumerable<Project> IBusinessUnitDAO.GetProjects(Int32 businessUnitRefID) { // implementation } } As you can see I have two GetProjects(int) methods, but each one is implemented explicitly so this compiles just fine and is perfectly valid. The problem arises when I actually start this as a service. It gives me an error staying that TrackingTool already contains a definition GetProject. While it is true, it is part of a different service contract. Does WCF not distinguish between service contracts when generating the method names ? Is there a way to get it to distinguish between the service contracts ? My App.Config looks like this <service name="TrackingTool"> <endpoint address="BusinessUnit" contract="IBusinessUnitDAO" /> <endpoint address="BusinessFunction" contract="IBusinessFunctionDAO" /> </service> Any help would be appreciated. Thanks, Raul

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  • Generic Class Vb.net

    - by KoolKabin
    hi guys, I am stuck with a problem about generic classes. I am confused how I call the constructor with parameters. My interface: Public Interface IDBObject Sub [Get](ByRef DataRow As DataRow) Property UIN() As Integer End Interface My Child Class: Public Class User Implements IDBObject Public Sub [Get](ByRef DataRow As System.Data.DataRow) Implements IDBObject.Get End Sub Public Property UIN() As Integer Implements IDBObject.UIN Get End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) End Set End Property End Class My Next Class: Public Class Users Inherits DBLayer(Of User) #Region " Standard Methods " #End Region End Class My DBObject Class: Public Class DBLayer(Of DBObject As {New, IDBObject}) Public Shared Function GetData() As List(Of DBObject) Dim QueryString As String = "SELECT * ***;" Dim Dataset As DataSet = New DataSet() Dim DataList As List(Of DBObject) = New List(Of DBObject) Try Dataset = Query(QueryString) For Each DataRow As DataRow In Dataset.Tables(0).Rows **DataList.Add(New DBObject(DataRow))** Next Catch ex As Exception DataList = Nothing End Try Return DataList End Function End Class I get error in the starred area of the DBLayer Object. What might be the possible reason? what can I do to fix it? I even want to add New(byval someval as datatype) in IDBObject interface for overloading construction. but it also gives an error? how can i do it? Adding Sub New(ByVal DataRow As DataRow) in IDBObject producess following error 'Sub New' cannot be declared in an interface. Error Produced in DBLayer Object line: DataList.Add(New DBObject(DataRow)) Msg: Arguments cannot be passed to a 'New' used on a type parameter.

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  • Load some data from database and hide it somewhere in a web page

    - by kwokwai
    Hi all, I am trying to load some data (which may be up to a few thousands words) from the database, and store the data somewhere in a html web page for comparing the data input by users. I am thinking to load the data to a Textarea under Div tag and hide the the data: <Div id="reference" style="Display:none;"> <textarea rows="2" cols="20" id="database"> html, htm, php, asp, jsp, aspx, ctp, thtml, xml, xsl... </textarea> </Div> <table border=0 width="100%"> <tr> <td>Username</td> <td> <div id="username"> <input type="text" name="data" id="data"> </div> </td> </tr> </table> <script> $(document).ready(function(){ //comparing the data loaded from database with the user's input if($("#data").val()==$("#database").val()) {alert("error");} }); </script> I am not sure if this is the best way to do it, so could you give me some advice and suggest your methods please.

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  • Use of unassigned local variable 'xxx'

    - by Tomislav
    I'm writing a database importer from our competitors to ours database:) I have a code generator which create Methods form import to our database like public void Test_Import_Customer_1() // variables string conn; string sqlSelect; string sqlInsert; int extID; string name; string name2; DateTime date_inserted; sqlSelect="select id,name,date_inserted from table_competitors_1"; oledbreader reader = new GetOledbRader(sqlString,conn); while (reader.read()) { name=left((string)myreader["name"],50); //limitation of my field date_inserted=myreader["date_inserted"]; sqlInsert=string.Format("insert into table(name,name2,date_inserted)values '{0}', '{1}', {2})",name,name2,date_inserted); //here is the problem name2 "Use of unassigned local variable" ExecuteSQL(sqlInsert) } As different companies database has different fields i can not set value to each variable and there is a big number of tables to go one variable to next. like sqlSelect_Company_1 = "select name,date_inserted from table_1"; sqlSelect_Company_2 = "select name,name2 from table_2"; is there a way to override the typing of each variable one by one with default values?

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  • Custom Android control with children

    - by Gromix
    Hi, I'm trying to create a custom Android control that contains a LinearLayout. You can think of it as an extended LinearLayout with fancy borders, a background, an image on the left... I could do it all in XML (works great) but since I have dozens of occurences in my app it's getting hard to maintain. I thought it would be nicer to have something like this: /* Main.xml */ <MyFancyLayout> <TextView /> /* what goes inside my control's linear layout */ </MyfancyLayout> How would you approach this? I'd like to avoid re-writing the whole linear layout onMeasure / onLayout methods. This is what I have for the moment: /* MyFancyLayout.xml */ <TableLayout> <ImageView /> <LinearLayout id="container" /> /* where I want the real content to go */ </TableLayout> and /* MyFancyLayout.java */ public class MyFancyLayout extends LinearLayout { public MyFancyLayout(Context context) { super(context); View.inflate(context, R.layout.my_fancy_layout, this); } } How would you go about inserting the user-specified content (the TextView in main.xml) in the right place (id=container)? Cheers! Romain ----- edit ------- Still no luck on this, so I changed my design to use a simpler layout and decided to live with a bit of repeated XML. Still very interested in anyone knows how to do this though!

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  • Is there a way to automatically load navigational property using the .NET Entity Framework?

    - by René Wolferink
    Stepping away more and more from writing SQL for my applications, I decided to give the Entity Framework a try. However, I've run into something I believe is causing me to write more code than I think is strictly necessary. When I accessed some navigational properties, I discovered that all many-to-one relations (simple references) were null and all one-to-many and many-to-many relations (EntityCollections) were empty. For example: I have a User with a reference to a Group. When I have retieved a User, by using a simple select-by-id, the Group property is null. If I want to access the Group I have to manually load it (using User.GroupReference.Load()). So I added a GetGroup() method in User which checks whether the Group is loaded already and, if not, does so and then returns the Group. Now this will result in a lot of highly similar methods for all navigational properties. And it all results in the navigational properties not being used, only my custom-made Get"PropertyName"() method's are now being used. I don't want to expand my queries (linq to entities) to immediately load all these properties, because it's not always known at first what is needed. And besides, it would cause a lot of queries to have to be made. Is there a way to configure the Entity Framework to load these objects when they happen to not be present? So when I access User.Group and the group is not loaded yet, it is loaded automatically? Or am I stuck using my own Get"PropertyName"() method's as long as I'm trying to load objects only on demand (or "just-in-time")? Some extra info: I'm using VS2008 SP1 with .NET 3.5 SP1. The Entity Framework I'm using is the one that got shipped with it.

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  • How to unit test generic classes

    - by Rowland Shaw
    I'm trying to set up some unit tests for an existing compact framework class library. However, I've fallen at the first hurdle, where it appears that the test framework is unable to load the types involved (even though they're both in the class library being tested) Test method MyLibrary.Tests.MyGenericClassTest.MyMethodTest threw exception: System.MissingMethodException: Could not load type 'MyLibrary.MyType' from assembly 'MyLibrary, Version=1.0.3778.36113, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null'.. My code is loosely: public class MyGenericClass<T> : List<T> where T : MyType, new() { public bool MyMethod(T foo) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } With test methods: public void MyMethodTestHelper<T>() where T : MyType, new() { MyGenericClass<T> target = new MyGenericClass<T>(); foo = new T(); expected = true; actual = target.MyMethod(foo); Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); } [TestMethod()] public void MyMethodTest() { MyMethodTestHelper<MyType>(); } I'm a bit stumped though, as I can't even get it to break in the debugger to get to the inner exception, so what else do I check? EDIT this does seem to be something specific to the Compact Framework - recompiling the class libraries and the unit tests for the full framework, gives the expected output (i.e. the debugger stops when I'm going to throw a NotImplementedException).

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  • The question about the basics of LINQ to SQL working

    - by Alex
    I just started learning LINQ to SQL, and so far I'm impressed with the easy of use and good performance. I used to think that when doing LINQ queries like from Customer in DB.Customers where Customer.Age > 30 select Customer Get all customers from the database ("SELECT * FROM Customers"), move them to the Customers array and then make a search in that Array using .NET methods. This is very inefficient, what if there are hundreds of thousands of customers in the database? Making such big SELECT queries would kill the web application. Now after experiencing how actually fast LINQ to SQL is, I start to suspect that when doing that query I just wrote, LINQ somehow converts it to a SQL Query string SELECT * FROM Customers WHERE Age > 30 And only when necessary it will run the query. So my question is: am I right? And when is the query actually run? The reason why I'm asking is not only because I want to understand how it works in order to build good optimized applications, but because I came across the following problem. I have 2 tables, one of them is Books, the other has information on how many books were sold on certain days. My goal is to select books that had at least 50 sales/day in past 10 days. It's done with this simple query: from Book in DB.Books where (from Sale in DB.Sales where Sale.SalesAmount >= 50 and Sale.DateOfSale >= DateTime.Now.AddDays(-10) select Sale.BookID).Contains(Book.ID) select Book The point is, I have to use the checking part in several queries and I decided to create an array with IDs of all popular books: var popularBooksIDs = from Sale in DB.Sales where Sale.SalesAmount >= 50 and Sale.DateOfSale >= DateTime.Now.AddDays(-10) select Sale.BookID; BUT when I try to do the query now: from Book in DB.Books where popularBooksIDs.Contains(Book.ID) select Book It doesn't work! That's why I think that we can't use thins kinds of shortcuts in LINQ to SQL queries, like we can't use them in real SQL. We have to create straightforward queries, am I right?

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  • C++ design related question

    - by Kotti
    Hi! Here is the question's plot: suppose I have some abstract classes for objects, let's call it Object. It's definition would include 2D position and dimensions. Let it also have some virtual void Render(Backend& backend) const = 0 method used for rendering. Now I specialize my inheritance tree and add Rectangle and Ellipse class. Guess they won't have their own properties, but they will have their own virtual void Render method. Let's say I implemented these methods, so that Render for Rectangle actually draws some rectangle, and the same for ellipse. Now, I add some object called Plane, which is defined as class Plane : public Rectangle and has a private member of std::vector<Object*> plane_objects; Right after that I add a method to add some object to my plane. And here comes the question. If I design this method as void AddObject(Object& object) I would face trouble like I won't be able to call virtual functions, because I would have to do something like plane_objects.push_back(new Object(object)); and this should be push_back(new Rectangle(object)) for rectangles and new Circle(...) for circles. If I implement this method as void AddObject(Object* object), it looks good, but then somewhere else this means making call like plane.AddObject(new Rectangle(params)); and this is generally a mess because then it's not clear which part of my program should free the allocated memory. ["when destroying the plane? why? are we sure that calls to AddObject were only done as AddObject(new something).] I guess the problems caused by using the second approach could be solved using smart pointers, but I am sure there have to be something better. Any ideas?

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  • "Finding" an object instance of a known class?

    - by Sean C
    My first post here (anywhere for that matter!), re. Cocoa/Obj-C (I'm NOT up to speed on either, please be patient!). I hope I haven't missed the answer already, I did try to find it. I'm an old-school procedural dog (haven't done any programming since the mid 80's, so I probably just can't even learn new tricks), but OOP has my head spinning! My question is: is there any means at all to "discover/find/identify" an instance of an object of a known class, given that some OTHER unknown process instantiated it? eg. somthing that would accomplish this scenario: (id) anObj = [someTarget getMostRecentInstanceOf:[aKnownClass class]]; for that matter, "getAnyInstance" or "getAllInstances" might do the trick too. Background: I'm trying to write a plugin for a commercial application, so much of the heavy lifting is being done by the app, behind the scenes. I have the SDK & header files, I know what class the object is, and what method I need to call (it has only instance methods), I just can't identify the object for targetting. I've spent untold hours and days going over Apples documentation, tutorials and lots of example/sample code on the web (including here at Stack Overflow), and come up empty. Seems that everything requires a known target object to work, and I just don't have one. Since I may not be expressing my problem as clearly as needed, I've put up a web page, with diagram & working sample pages to illustrate: http://www.nulltime.com/svtest/index.html Any help or guidance will be appreciated! Thanks.

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  • Rescuing a failed WCF call

    - by illdev
    Hello, I am happily using Castle's WcfFacility. From Monorail I know the handy concept of Rescues - consumer friendly results that often, but not necessarily, contain Data about what went wrong. I am creating a Silverlight application right now, doing quite a few WCF service calls. All these request return an implementation of public class ServiceResponse { private string _messageToUser = string.Empty; private ActionResult _result = ActionResult.Success; public ActionResult Result // Success, Failure, Timeout { get { return _result; } set { _result = value; } } public string MessageToUser { get { return _messageToUser; } set { _messageToUser = value; } } } public abstract class ServiceResponse<TResponseData> : ServiceResponse { public TResponseData Data { get; set; } } If the service has trouble responding the right way, I would want the thrown Exception to be intercepted and converted to the expected implementation. base on the thrown exception, I would want to pass on a nice message. here is how one of the service methods looks like: [Transaction(TransactionMode.Requires)] public virtual SaveResponse InsertOrUpdate(WarehouseDto dto) { var w = dto.Id > 0 ? _dao.GetById(dto.Id) : new Warehouse(); w.Name = dto.Name; _dao.SaveOrUpdate(w); return new SaveResponse { Data = new InsertData { Id = w.Id } }; } I need the thrown Exception for the Transaction to be rolled back, so i cannot actually catch it and return something else. Any ideas, where I could hook in?

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  • How do you work on Strategic Development initiatives when Tactical work takes priority?

    - by Shaun F
    My day-to-day job consists of maintaining large volume websites and this has given me exposure to developing better methods to develop and maintain the code. This has also given me a large body of knowledge in the code base in terms of troubleshooting that is beneficial to the company. I'm also the maintainer of an IDE plug in I created to help navigate and generate code that is used. Operationally though, my job is to handle any client requests that come in of that are emergencies and make any enhancements and additions to the code base required. This work, along with the daily managing and feeding of the the project managers will take up my entire day. How does one manage the time between the tactical day job and the strategic initiatives? How does one get and ask for recognition for taking strategic initiatives? Is the 8-9 hour day just not going to cut it? Is there even a job out there for programmers to develop strategic initiatives and solutions for a company? I want to also point out that this isn't a problem with the company at all. I think this is more of a personal-improvement decision. Nobody will say no to the improvements at all. I believe in making the things happen but I don't think I'm going to get time from the company to do it...

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  • How can i mock or test my deferred execution functionality?

    - by cottsak
    I have what could be seen as a bizarre hybrid of IQueryable<T> and IList<T> collections of domain objects passed up my application stack. I'm trying to maintain as much of the 'late querying' or 'lazy loading' as possible. I do this in two ways: By using a LinqToSql data layer and passing IQueryable<T>s through by repositories and to my app layer. Then after my app layer passing IList<T>s but where certain elements in the object/aggregate graph are 'chained' with delegates so as to defer their loading. Sometimes even the delegate contents rely on IQueryable<T> sources and the DataContext are injected. This works for me so far. What is blindingly difficult is proving that this design actually works. Ie. If i defeat the 'lazy' part somewhere and my execution happens early then the whole thing is a waste of time. I'd like to be able to TDD this somehow. I don't know a lot about delegates or thread safety as it applies to delegates acting on the same source. I'd like to be able to mock the DataContext and somehow trace both methods of deferring (IQueryable<T>'s SQL and the delegates) the loading so that i can have tests that prove that both functions are working at different levels/layers of the app/stack. As it's crucial that the deferring works for the design to be of any value, i'd like to see tests fail when i break the design at a given level (separate from the live implementation). Is this possible?

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  • Does "delegate" mean a type or an object?

    - by Michal Czardybon
    Reading from MSDN: "A delegate is a type that references a method. Once a delegate is assigned a method, it behaves exactly like that method." Does then "delegate" mean a type or an object?! ...It cannot be both. It seems to me that the single word is used in two different meanings: a type containing a reference to a method of some specified signature, an object of that type, which can be actually called like a method. I would prefer a more precise vocabulary and use "delegate type" for the first case. I have been recently reading a lot about events and delegates and that ambiguity was making me confused many times. Some other uses of "delegate" word in MSDN in the first meaning: "Custom event delegates are needed only when an event generates event data" "A delegate declaration defines a class that is derived from the class System.Delegate" Some other uses of "delegate" word in MSDN in the second meaning: "specify a delegate that will be called upon the occurrence of some event" "Delegates are objects that refer to methods. They are sometimes described as type-safe function pointers" What do you think? Why did people from Microsoft introduced this ambiguity? Am I the only person to have conceptual problems with different notions being referenced with the same word.

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  • Refactoring an ASP.NET 2.0 app to be more "modern"

    - by Wayne M
    This is a hypothetical scenario. Let's say you've just been hired at a company with a small development team. The company uses an internal CRM/ERP type system written in .NET 2.0 to manage all of it's day to day things (let's simplify and say customer accounts and records). The app was written a couple of years ago when .NET 2.0 was just out and uses the following architectural designs: Webforms Data layer is a thin wrapper around SqlCommand that calls stored procedures Rudimentary DTO-style business objects that are populated via the sprocs A "business logic" layer that acts as a gateway between the webform and database (i.e. code behind calls that layer) Let's say that as there are more changes and requirements added to the application, you start to feel that the old architecture is showing its age, and changes are increasingly more difficult to make. How would you go about introducing refactoring steps to A) Modernize the app (i.e. proper separation of concerns) and B) Make sure that the app can readily adapt to change in the organization? IMO the changes would involve: Introduce an ORM like Linq to Sql and get rid of the sprocs for CRUD Assuming that you can't just throw out Webforms, introduce the M-V-P pattern to the forms Make sure the gateway classes conform to SRP and the other SOLID principles. Change the logic that is re-used to be web service methods instead of having to reuse code What are your thoughts? Again this is a totally hypothetical scenario that many of us have faced in the past, or may end up facing.

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  • Method having an abstract class as a parameter

    - by Ferhat
    I have an abstract class A, where I have derived the classes B and C. Class A provides an abstract method DoJOB(), which is implemented by both derived classes. There is a class X which has methods inside, which need to call DoJOB(). The class X may not contain any code like B.DoJOB() or C.DoJOB(). Example: public class X { private A foo; public X(A concrete) { foo = concrete; } public FunnyMethod() { foo.DoJOB(); } } While instantiating class X I want to decide which derived class (B or C) must be used. I thought about passing an instance of B or C using the constructor of X. X kewl = new X(new C()); kewl.FunnyMethod(); //calls C.DoJOB() kewl = new X(new B()); kewl.FunnyMethod(); // calls B.DoJOB() My test showed that declaring a method with a parameter A is not working. Am I missing something? How can I implement this correctly? (A is abstract, it cannot be instantiated)

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  • Code Contracts: Do we have to specify Contract.Requires(...) statements redundantly in delegating me

    - by herzmeister der welten
    I'm intending to use the new .NET 4 Code Contracts feature for future development. This made me wonder if we have to specify equivalent Contract.Requires(...) statements redundantly in a chain of methods. I think a code example is worth a thousand words: public bool CrushGodzilla(string weapon, int velocity) { Contract.Requires(weapon != null); // long code return false; } public bool CrushGodzilla(string weapon) { Contract.Requires(weapon != null); // specify contract requirement here // as well??? return this.CrushGodzilla(weapon, int.MaxValue); } For runtime checking it doesn't matter much, as we will eventually always hit the requirement check, and we will get an error if it fails. However, is it considered bad practice when we don't specify the contract requirement here in the second overload again? Also, there will be the feature of compile time checking, and possibly also design time checking of code contracts. It seems it's not yet available for C# in Visual Studio 2010, but I think there are some languages like Spec# that already do. These engines will probably give us hints when we write code to call such a method and our argument currently can or will be null. So I wonder if these engines will always analyze a call stack until they find a method with a contract that is currently not satisfied? Furthermore, here I learned about the difference between Contract.Requires(...) and Contract.Assume(...). I suppose that difference is also to consider in the context of this question then?

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  • Host WCF in MVC2 Site

    - by Basiclife
    Hi, We've got a very large, complex MVC2 website. We want to add an API for some internal tools and decided to use WCF. Ideally, we want MVC itself to host the WCF service. Reasons include: Although there's multiple tiers to the application, some functionality we'd like in the API requires the website itself (e.g. formatting emails). We use TFS to auto-build (continuous integration) and deploy - The less we need to modify the build and release mechanism the better We use the Unity container and Inversion of Control throughout the application. Being part of the Website would allow us to re-use configuration classes and other helper methods. I've written a custom ServiceBehavior which in turn has a custom InstanceProvider - This allows me to instantiate and configure a container which is then used to service all requests for class instances from WCF. So my question is; Is it possible to host a WCF service from within MVC itself? I've only had experience in Services / Standard Asp.Net websites before and didn't realise MVC2 might be different until I actually tried to wire it into the config and nothing happened. After some googling, there don't seem to be many references to doing this - so thought I'd ask here.

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  • Compiler turning a string& into a basic_string<>&

    - by Shtong
    Hello I'm coming back to C++ after long years spent on other technologies and i'm stuck on some weird behavior when calling some methods taking std::string as parameters : An example of call : LocalNodeConfiguration *LocalNodeConfiguration::ReadFromFile(std::string & path) { // ... throw configuration_file_error(string("Configuration file empty"), path); // ... } When I compile I get this (I cropped file names for readability) : /usr/bin/g++ -g -I/home/shtong/Dev/OmegaNoc/build -I/usr/share/include/boost-1.41.0 -o CMakeFiles/OmegaNocInternals.dir/configuration/localNodeConfiguration.cxx.o -c /home/shtong/Dev/OmegaNoc/source/configuration/localNodeConfiguration.cxx .../localNodeConfiguration.cxx: In static member function ‘static OmegaNoc::LocalNodeConfiguration* OmegaNoc::LocalNodeConfiguration::ReadFromFile(std::string&)’: .../localNodeConfiguration.cxx:72: error: no matching function for call to ‘OmegaNoc::configuration_file_error::configuration_file_error(std::string, std::basic_string<char, std::char_traits<char>, std::allocator<char> >&)’ .../configurationManager.hxx:25: note: candidates are: OmegaNoc::configuration_file_error::configuration_file_error(std::string&, std::string&) .../configurationManager.hxx:22: note: OmegaNoc::configuration_file_error::configuration_file_error(const OmegaNoc::configuration_file_error&) So as I understand it, the compiler is considering that my path parameter turned into a basic_string at some point, thus not finding the constructor overload I want to use. But I don't really get why this transformation happened. Some search on the net suggested me to use g++ but I was already using it. So any other advice would be appreciated :) Thanks

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  • Java: Tracking a user login session - Session EJBs vs HTTPSession

    - by bguiz
    If I want to keep track of a conversational state with each client using my web application, which is the better alternative - a Session Bean or a HTTP Session - to use? Using HTTP Session: //request is a variable of the class javax.servlet.http.HttpServletRequest //UserState is a POJO HttpSession session = request.getSession(true); UserState state = (UserState)(session.getAttribute("UserState")); if (state == null) { //create default value .. } String uid = state.getUID(); //now do things with the user id Using Session EJB: In the implementation of ServletContextListener registered as a Web Application Listener in WEB-INF/web.xml: //UserState NOT a POJO this this time, it is //the interface of the UserStateBean Stateful Session EJB @EJB private UserState userStateBean; public void contextInitialized(ServletContextEvent sce) { ServletContext servletContext = sce.getServletContext(); servletContext.setAttribute("UserState", userStateBean); ... In a JSP: public void jspInit() { UserState state = (UserState)(getServletContext().getAttribute("UserState")); ... } Elsewhere in the body of the same JSP: String uid = state.getUID(); //now do things with the user id It seems to me that the they are almost the same, with the main difference being that the UserState instance is being transported in the HttpRequest.HttpSession in the former, and in a ServletContext in the case of the latter. Which of the two methods is more robust, and why?

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  • Magento help with creating model in custom class

    - by dardub
    I'm trying to add some custom filter methods to my magento module. I though it would be simple but I can't figure out why it's not working. My model which extends the catalog/product class contains this: public function filterProdType($prod_id) { $this->addAttributeToFilter('attribute_set_id', $prod_id); } Then in my template I have this: $collection = Mage::getModel('configurator/product')->getCollection()->addAttributeToSelect('*'); $collection->filterProdType(50)->addAttributeToFilter('type_id', 'bundle'); foreach ($collection as $item){ echo $item->getName() . ', '; } Just to try things out. But I don't get any results, no error, and it doesn't finish rendering the page (missing footer). When I do this instead, it works: $collection = Mage::getModel('configurator/product')->getCollection()->addAttributeToSelect('*'); $collection->addAttributeToFilter('attribute_set_id', 50)->addAttributeToFilter('type_id', 'bundle'); foreach ($collection as $item){ echo $item->getName() . ', '; } I'm just wondering what I'm missing. UPDATE: I didn't realize error reporting was turned off, after turning it on I get the error: Fatal error: Call to undefined method Mage_Catalog_Model_Resource_Eav_Mysql4_Product_Collection::filterProdType() I assumed after instantiating $collection using my custom model, it would find my new method.

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