Search Results

Search found 61506 results on 2461 pages for 'return value'.

Page 372/2461 | < Previous Page | 368 369 370 371 372 373 374 375 376 377 378 379  | Next Page >

  • MVC Multiple submit buttons on a array of objects

    - by Kieron
    Hi, I've got a list of objects in an MVC view, each with a set of submit buttons - Move up, Move down and Remove. Using the answer from this question, I can get the button clicked - but I need to know which item it would be operating on. The problem comes from the fact the input's value attribute is passed back, I need more information than that - i.e. an id. Below is a snippet of the contents of a for loop, rendering each item. <ul> <li><input type="submit" name="SubmitButton" value="Move-Up" class="linked-content-position-modifier" /></li> <li><input type="submit" name="SubmitButton" value="Move-Down" class="linked-content-position-modifier" /></li> <li><input type="submit" name="SubmitButton" value="Remove" class="linked-content-modifier" /></li> <li><%= Model.Contents[i] %></li> </ul> When the form is posted back, I can see that the SubmitButton has a value of either Move-Up, Move-Down or Remove - but no idea which item in the array it's referring too. Without changing the value to something really ugly, how would I tell which item it's referring to?

    Read the article

  • silverlight master-detail with two listboxes in pure xaml with ria services throwing exception

    - by Sam
    Hi, I was trying to achieve master-detail with 2 ListBox, 2 DomainDataSource and a IValueConverter, when entering the page it throws the random error it does when your xaml is invalid: "AG_E_PARSER_BAD_PROPERTY_VALUE [Line: 24 Position: 61]" Which is in fact the start position of where I am binding the listbox selected item with converter to the parameter's value of my DomainDataSource. I would love to achieve this by pure xaml, I did it by code behind and that works but I don't like it :p When the parameter is a hard-coded integer 1, it works, so I assume it's the value binding My code is below here, thanks in advance for at least looking :) (taken into accound all the xmlns's & usings are correct) Xaml: <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot"> <Grid.Resources> <helpers:ListItemtoIdListValueConverter x:Key="mListConverter" /> </Grid.Resources> <riacontrols:DomainDataSource x:Name="GetLists" DomainContext="{StaticResource DbContext}" LoadSize="20" QueryName="GetLists" AutoLoad="True" /> <riacontrols:DomainDataSource x:Name="GetListItems" DomainContext="{StaticResource DbContext}" LoadSize="20" QueryName="GetListItemsById" AutoLoad="True"> <riacontrols:DomainDataSource.QueryParameters> <riadata:Parameter ParameterName="id" Value="{Binding ElementName=ListBoxLists, Path=SelectedItem, Converter={StaticResource mListConverter}}" /> </riacontrols:DomainDataSource.QueryParameters> </riacontrols:DomainDataSource> <activity:Activity IsActive="{Binding IsBusy, ElementName=ListBoxListItems}"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <ListBox x:Name="ListBoxLists" ItemsSource="{Binding Data, ElementName=GetLists, Mode=OneWay}" Width="150" Margin="0,0,10,10" /> <ListBox x:Name="ListBoxListItems" ItemsSource="{Binding Data, ElementName=GetListItems, Mode=OneWay}" Width="150" Margin="0,0,10,10" /> </StackPanel> </activity:Activity> </Grid> IValueConverter: public class ListItemtoIdListValueConverter: IValueConverter { #region IValueConverter Members public object Convert(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, System.Globalization.CultureInfo culture) { list mList = (list)value; if (mList != null) return mList.id; else return null; } public object ConvertBack(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, System.Globalization.CultureInfo culture) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } #endregion }

    Read the article

  • delphi Ado (mdb) update records

    - by ml
    I´m trying to copy data from one master table and 2 more child tables when i select one record in the master table i copy all the fields from that table for the other (table1 copy from ADOQuery the selected record) procedure TForm1.copyButton7Click(Sender: TObject); SQL.Clear; SQL.Add('SELECT * from ADOQuery'); SQL.Add('Where numeracao LIKE ''%'+NInterv.text);// locate record selected in Table1 NInterv.text) Open; // initiate copy of records begin while not tableADoquery.Eof do begin Table1.Last; Table1.Append;// how to append if necessary! Table1.Edit; Table1.FieldByName('C').Value := ADoquery.FieldByName('C').Value; Table1.FieldByName('client').Value := ADoquery.FieldByName('client').Value; Table1.FieldByName('Cnpj_cpf').Value := ADoquery.FieldByName('Cnpj_cpf').Value; table1.Post; table2.next;/// end; end; //How can i update the TableChield, TableChield1 field´s at the same time? do the same for the child tables TableChield <= TableChield_1 TableChield1 <= TableChield_2 thanks

    Read the article

  • ubuntu: sem_timedwait not waking (C)

    - by gillez
    I have 3 processes which need to be synchronized. Process one does something then wakes process two and sleeps, which does something then wakes process three and sleeps, which does something and wakes process one and sleeps. The whole loop is timed to run around 25hz (caused by an external sync into process one before it triggers process two in my "real" application). I use sem_post to trigger (wake) each process, and sem_timedwait() to wait for the trigger. This all works successfully for several hours. However at some random time (usually after somewhere between two and four hours), one of the processes starts timing out in sem_timedwait(), even though I am sure the semaphore is being triggered with sem_post(). To prove this I even use sem_getvalue() immediately after the timeout, and the value is 1, so the timedwait should have been triggered. Please see following code: #include <stdio.h> #include <time.h> #include <string.h> #include <errno.h> #include <semaphore.h> sem_t trigger_sem1, trigger_sem2, trigger_sem3; // The main thread process. Called three times with a different num arg - 1, 2 or 3. void *thread(void *arg) { int num = (int) arg; sem_t *wait, *trigger; int val, retval; struct timespec ts; struct timeval tv; switch (num) { case 1: wait = &trigger_sem1; trigger = &trigger_sem2; break; case 2: wait = &trigger_sem2; trigger = &trigger_sem3; break; case 3: wait = &trigger_sem3; trigger = &trigger_sem1; break; } while (1) { // The first thread delays by 40ms to time the whole loop. // This is an external sync in the real app. if (num == 1) usleep(40000); // print sem value before we wait. If this is 1, sem_timedwait() will // return immediately, otherwise it will block until sem_post() is called on this sem. sem_getvalue(wait, &val); printf("sem%d wait sync sem%d. val before %d\n", num, num, val); // get current time and add half a second for timeout. gettimeofday(&tv, NULL); ts.tv_sec = tv.tv_sec; ts.tv_nsec = (tv.tv_usec + 500000); // add half a second if (ts.tv_nsec > 1000000) { ts.tv_sec++; ts.tv_nsec -= 1000000; } ts.tv_nsec *= 1000; /* convert to nanosecs */ retval = sem_timedwait(wait, &ts); if (retval == -1) { // timed out. Print value of sem now. This should be 0, otherwise sem_timedwait // would have woken before timeout (unless the sem_post happened between the // timeout and this call to sem_getvalue). sem_getvalue(wait, &val); printf("!!!!!! sem%d sem_timedwait failed: %s, val now %d\n", num, strerror(errno), val); } else printf("sem%d wakeup.\n", num); // get value of semaphore to trigger. If it's 1, don't post as it has already been // triggered and sem_timedwait on this sem *should* not block. sem_getvalue(trigger, &val); if (val <= 0) { printf("sem%d send sync sem%d. val before %d\n", num, (num == 3 ? 1 : num+1), val); sem_post(trigger); } else printf("!! sem%d not sending sync, val %d\n", num, val); } } int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { pthread_t t1, t2, t3; // create semaphores. val of sem1 is 1 to trigger straight away and start the whole ball rolling. if (sem_init(&trigger_sem1, 0, 1) == -1) perror("Error creating trigger_listman semaphore"); if (sem_init(&trigger_sem2, 0, 0) == -1) perror("Error creating trigger_comms semaphore"); if (sem_init(&trigger_sem3, 0, 0) == -1) perror("Error creating trigger_vws semaphore"); pthread_create(&t1, NULL, thread, (void *) 1); pthread_create(&t2, NULL, thread, (void *) 2); pthread_create(&t3, NULL, thread, (void *) 3); pthread_join(t1, NULL); pthread_join(t2, NULL); pthread_join(t3, NULL); } The following output is printed when the program is running correctly (at the start and for a random but long time after). The value of sem1 is always 1 before thread1 waits as it sleeps for 40ms, by which time sem3 has triggered it, so it wakes straight away. The other two threads wait until the semaphore is received from the previous thread. [...] sem1 wait sync sem1. val before 1 sem1 wakeup. sem1 send sync sem2. val before 0 sem2 wakeup. sem2 send sync sem3. val before 0 sem2 wait sync sem2. val before 0 sem3 wakeup. sem3 send sync sem1. val before 0 sem3 wait sync sem3. val before 0 sem1 wait sync sem1. val before 1 sem1 wakeup. sem1 send sync sem2. val before 0 [...] However, after a few hours, one of the threads begins to timeout. I can see from the output that the semaphore is being triggered, and when I print the value after the timeout is is 1. So sem_timedwait should have woken up well before the timeout. I would never expect the value of the semaphore to be 1 after the timeout, save for the very rare occasion (almost certainly never but it's possible) when the trigger happens after the timeout but before I call sem_getvalue. Also, once it begins to fail, every sem_timedwait() on that semaphore also fails in the same way. See the following output, which I've line-numbered: 01 sem3 wait sync sem3. val before 0 02 sem1 wakeup. 03 sem1 send sync sem2. val before 0 04 sem2 wakeup. 05 sem2 send sync sem3. val before 0 06 sem2 wait sync sem2. val before 0 07 sem1 wait sync sem1. val before 0 08 !!!!!! sem3 sem_timedwait failed: Connection timed out, val now 1 09 sem3 send sync sem1. val before 0 10 sem3 wait sync sem3. val before 1 11 sem3 wakeup. 12 !! sem3 not sending sync, val 1 13 sem3 wait sync sem3. val before 0 14 sem1 wakeup. [...] On line 1, thread 3 (which I have confusingly called sem1 in the printf) waits for sem3 to be triggered. On line 5, sem2 calls sem_post for sem3. However, line 8 shows sem3 timing out, but the value of the semaphore is 1. thread3 then triggers sem1 and waits again (10). However, because the value is already 1, it wakes straight away. It doesn't send sem1 again as this has all happened before control is given to thread1, however it then waits again (val is now 0) and sem1 wakes up. This now repeats for ever, sem3 always timing out and showing that the value is 1. So, my question is why does sem3 timeout, even though the semaphore has been triggered and the value is clearly 1? I would never expect to see line 08 in the output. If it times out (because, say thread 2 has crashed or is taking too long), the value should be 0. And why does it work fine for 3 or 4 hours first before getting into this state? This is using Ubuntu 9.4 with kernel 2.6.28. The same procedure has been working properly on Redhat and Fedora. But I'm now trying to port to ubuntu! Thanks for any advice, Giles

    Read the article

  • Filter a wpf collectionviewsource in VB?

    - by Johnny Westlake
    Hi, I want to filter a collectionviewsource using a filter I've written, but I'm not sure how I can apply the filter to it? Here is my collection view source: <Grid.Resources> <CollectionViewSource x:Key="myCollectionView" Source="{Binding Path=Query4, Source={x:Static Application.Current}}"> <CollectionViewSource.SortDescriptions> <scm:SortDescription PropertyName="ContactID" Direction="Descending"/> </CollectionViewSource.SortDescriptions> </CollectionViewSource> </Grid.Resources> I have implemented a filter as such: Private Sub WorkerFilter(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As FilterEventArgs) Dim value As Object = CType(e.Item, System.Data.DataRow)("StaffSection") If (Not value Is Nothing) And (Not value Is DBNull.Value) Then If (value = "Builder") Or (value = "Office Staff") Then e.Accepted = True Else e.Accepted = False End If End If End Sub So how can I get the CollectionViewSource filtered by the filter on load? Could you please give all hte code I need (only a few lines I figure) as I'm quite new to coding. Thanks guys EDIT: For the record, <CollectionViewSource x:Key="myCollectionView" Filter="WorkerFilter" ... /> gives me the error: Failed object initialization (ISupportInitialize.EndInit). 'System.Windows.Data.BindingListCollectionView' view does not support filtering. Error at object 'myCollectionView'

    Read the article

  • jqgrid not updating data on reload

    - by meepmeep
    I have a jqgrid with data loading from an xml stream (handled by django 1.1.1): jQuery(document).ready(function(){ jQuery("#list").jqGrid({ url:'/downtime/list_xml/', datatype: 'xml', mtype: 'GET', postData:{site:1,date_start:document.getElementById('datepicker_start').value,date_end:document.getElementById('datepicker_end').value}, colNames:[...], colModel :[...], pager: '#pager', rowNum: 25, rowList:[10,25,50], viewrecords: true, height: 500, caption: 'Click on column headers to reorder' }); $("#grid_reload").click(function(){ $("#list").trigger("reloadGrid"); }); $("#tabs").tabs(); $("#datepicker_start").datepicker({dateFormat: 'yy-mm-dd'}); $("#datepicker_end").datepicker({dateFormat: 'yy-mm-dd'}); ... And the html elements: <th>Start Date:</th> <td><input id="datepicker_start" type="text" value="2009-12-01"></input></td> <th>End Date:</th> <td><input id="datepicker_end" type="text" value="2009-12-03"></input></td> <td><input id="grid_reload" type="submit" value="load" /></td> When I click the grid_reload button, the grid reloads, but when it has done so it shows exactly the same data as before, even though the xml is tested to return different data for different timestamps. I have checked using alert(document.getElementById('datepicker_start').value) that the values in the date inputs are passed correctly when the reload event is triggered. Any ideas why the data doesn't update? A caching or browser issue perhaps?

    Read the article

  • javascript new Date(0) class shows 16 hours?

    - by Jonah
    interval = new Date(0); return interval.getHours(); The above returns 16. I expect it to return 0. Any pointers? getMinutes() and getSeconds() return zero as expected. Thanks! I am trying to make a timer: function Timer(onUpdate) { this.initialTime = 0; this.timeStart = null; this.onUpdate = onUpdate this.getTotalTime = function() { timeEnd = new Date(); diff = timeEnd.getTime() - this.timeStart.getTime(); return diff + this.initialTime; }; this.formatTime = function() { interval = new Date(this.getTotalTime()); return this.zeroPad(interval.getHours(), 2) + ":" + this.zeroPad(interval.getMinutes(),2) + ":" + this.zeroPad(interval.getSeconds(),2); }; this.start = function() { this.timeStart = new Date(); this.onUpdate(this.formatTime()); var timerInstance = this; setTimeout(function() { timerInstance.updateTime(); }, 1000); }; this.updateTime = function() { this.onUpdate(this.formatTime()); var timerInstance = this; setTimeout(function() { timerInstance.updateTime(); }, 1000); }; this.zeroPad = function(num,count) { var numZeropad = num + ''; while(numZeropad.length < count) { numZeropad = "0" + numZeropad; } return numZeropad; } } It all works fine except for the 16 hour difference. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Proving f (f bool) = bool

    - by Marcus Whybrow
    How can I in coq, prove that a function f that accepts a bool true|false and returns a bool true|false (shown below), when applied twice to a single bool true|false would always return that same value true|false: (f:bool -> bool) For example the function f can only do 4 things, lets call the input of the function b: Always return true Always return false Return b (i.e. returns true if b is true vice versa) Return not b (i.e. returns false if b is true and vice vera) So if the function always returns true: f (f bool) = f true = true and if the function always return false we would get: f (f bool) = f false = false For the other cases lets assum the function returns not b f (f true) = f false = true f (f false) = f true = false In both possible input cases, we we always end up with with the original input. The same holds if we assume the function returns b. So how would you prove this in coq? Goal forall (f:bool -> bool) (b:bool), f (f b) = f b.

    Read the article

  • Passing html parameters to server odd problem

    - by StealthRT
    Hey all i am having a weird problem with sending data back to my server. This is the code i am using: NSString *theURL =[NSString stringWithFormat:@"http://www.xxx.com/confirm.asp?theID=%@&theName=%@&empID=%@&theComp=%@", theConfirmNum, tmpNBUserRow.userName, labelTxt.text, theID]; NSLog(@"%@,%@,%@,%@", theConfirmNum, tmpNBUserRow.userName, labelTxt.text, theID); NSMutableURLRequest *request = [[[NSMutableURLRequest alloc] init] autorelease]; [request setURL:[NSURL URLWithString:theURL]]; [request setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; NSError *error; NSURLResponse *response; NSData *urlData=[NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest:request returningResponse:&response error:&error]; NSString *data=[[NSString alloc]initWithData:urlData encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]; if ([data isEqualToString:@"Done"]) I can run the code from the browser and it works just fine using the data i got from the NSLog output. The NSLog output for each value is correct. But for some reason when i put a break on the IF ([data isEqualToString:@"Done"]) it has no return value. I checked each value for what it was sending (and again, it was correct in the NSLog output) and i found that the value "theID" said "Out of scope". Although, again, the NSLog had the value in it correctly? So i searched the forum and found a simular problem. I took their advice and added "RETAIN" to the "theID" value like so: theID = [customObjInstance TID]; [theID retain]; However, that did not solve the issue... Here is the console NSLog output: [Session started at 2010-04-11 01:31:50 -0400.] wait_fences: failed to receive reply: 10004003 wait_fences: failed to receive reply: 10004003 nbTxt(5952,0xa0937500) malloc: *** error for object 0x3c0ebc0: double free *** set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug 2010-04-11 01:32:12.270 nbTxt[5952:207] 5122,Rob S.,5122,NB010203 The NSLog values i am sending is the last line "5122,Rob S.,5122,NB010203" Any help would be great :o) David

    Read the article

  • log4net creates log file but does not write to it (windows service in C#)

    - by user1825172
    I am trying to use basic logging for a windows service. I added the reference to log4net I added the following in AssemblyInfo.cs: [assembly: log4net.Config.XmlConfigurator(Watch = true)] I added the following to my App.config: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <configSections> <section name="log4net" type="log4net.Config.Log4NetConfigurationSectionHandler,log4net, Version=1.2.10.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=1b44e1d426115821" requirePermission="false" /> </configSections> <!-- Log4net Logging Setup --> <log4net> <appender name="RollingFileAppender" type="log4net.Appender.RollingFileAppender,log4net"> <file value="c:\\CGSD\\log\\logfile.txt" /> <appendToFile value="true" /> <lockingModel type="log4net.Appender.FileAppender+MinimalLock" /> <layout type="log4net.Layout.PatternLayout"> <conversionPattern value="%date [%thread] %level %logger - %message%newline" /> </layout> <filter type="log4net.Filter.LevelRangeFilter"> <levelMin value="INFO" /> <levelMax value="FATAL" /> </filter> </appender> <root> <level value="ALL"/> <appender-ref ref="RollingFileAppender"/> </root> </log4net> </configuration> I have the following code in my service: log4net.Config.XmlConfigurator.Configure(); log4net.ILog log = log4net.LogManager.GetLogger(typeof(Program)); log.Debug("test"); the file c:\CGSD\log\logfile.txt is created but nothing is ever written to it. i've been thru the forums all day trying to trac this one down, but if i overlooked an already posted solution i apologize. thx!

    Read the article

  • How to handle EntityExistsException properly?

    - by Ivan Yatskevich
    I have two entities: Question and FavoritesCounter. FavoritesCounter should be created when the question is added to favorites for the first time. Consider a use case when two users tries to add a question to favorites simultaneously - this will cause EntityExistsException when entityManager.persist(counter) is called for the second user. But the code below doesn't work, because when EntityExistsException is thrown, container marks transaction as rollback only and attempt to return getFavoritesCounter(question) fails with javax.resource.ResourceException: Transaction is not active @Stateless public class FavoritesServiceBean implements FavoritesService { ... public void addToFavorites(Question question) { FavoritesCounter counter = getCounter(question); if (counter == null) { counter = createCounter(question); } //increase counter } private FavoritesCounter createCounter(Question question) { try { FavoritesCounter counter = new FavoritesCounter(); counter.setQuestion(question); entityManager.persist(counter); entityManager.flush(); return counter; } catch (EntityExistsException e) { return getFavoritesCounter(question); } } private FavoritesCounter getFavoritesCounter(Question question) { Query counterQuery = entityManager.createQery("SELECT counter FROM FavoritesCounter counter WHERE counter.question = :question"); counterQuery.setParameter("question", question); List<FavoritesCounter> result = counterQuery.getResultList(); if (result.isEmpty()) return null; return result.get(0); } } Question @Entity public class Question implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) private Long id; //getter and setter for id } FavoritesCounter @Entity public class FavoritesCounter implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) private Long id; @OneToOne @Column(unique = true) private Question question; //getter and setter } What is the best way to handle such a situation - return already created entity after EntityExistsException?

    Read the article

  • How to fix RapidXML String ownership concerns?

    - by Roddy
    RapidXML is a fast, lightweight C++ XML DOM Parser, but it has some quirks. The worst of these to my mind is this: 3.2 Ownership Of Strings. Nodes and attributes produced by RapidXml do not own their name and value strings. They merely hold the pointers to them. This means you have to be careful when setting these values manually, by using xml_base::name(const Ch *) or xml_base::value(const Ch *) functions. Care must be taken to ensure that lifetime of the string passed is at least as long as lifetime of the node/attribute. The easiest way to achieve it is to allocate the string from memory_pool owned by the document. Use memory_pool::allocate_string() function for this purpose. Now, I understand it's done this way for speed, but this feels like an car crash waiting to happen. The following code looks innocuous but 'name' and 'value' are out of scope when foo returns, so the doc is undefined. void foo() { char name[]="Name"; char value[]="Value"; doc.append_node(doc.allocate_node(node_element, name, value)); } The suggestion of using allocate_string() as per manual works, but it's so easy to forget. Has anyone 'enhanced' RapidXML to avoid this issue?

    Read the article

  • Apache RewriteRule: it is possible to 'detect' the first and second parameter?

    - by DaNieL
    Im really really a newbie in regexp and i cant figure out how to do that. My goal is to have the RewriteRule to 'slice' the request url in 3 parts: example.com/foo #should return: index.php?a=foo&b=&c= example.com/foo/bar #should return: index.php?a=foo&b=bar&c= example.com/foo/bar/baz #should return: index.php?a=foo&b=bar&c=baz example.com/foo/bar/baz/bee #should return: index.php?a=foo&b=bar&c=baz/bee example.com/foo/bar/baz/bee/apple #should return: index.php?a=foo&b=bar&c=baz/bee/apple example.com/foo/bar/baz/bee/apple/and/whatever/else/no/limit/in/those/extra/parameters #should return: index.php?a=foo&b=bar&c=baz/bee/apple/and/whatever/else/no/limit/in/those/extra/parameters In short, the first parameter in the url (foo) should be given to a, the second (bar) to b, and the rest of the string in c I wroted this one <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !=/favicon.ico RewriteRule ^(([a-z0-9/]))?(([a-z0-9/]+))?(([a-z0-9]+))(.*)$ index.php?a=$1&b=$2&c=$3 [L,QSA] </IfModule> but obviously doesnt work, and i dont even know if what i want is possible. Any suggestion?

    Read the article

  • Retrieve parent node from selection (range) in Gecko and Webkit

    - by Jason
    I am trying to add an attribute when using a wysiwyg editor that uses "createLink" command. I thought it would be trivial to get back the node that is created after the browse executes that command. Turns out, I am only able to grab this newly created node in IE. Any ideas? The following code demonstrates the issue (debug logs at bottom show different output in each browser): var getSelectedHTML = function() { if ($.browser.msie) { return this.getRange().htmlText; } else { var elem = this.getRange().cloneContents(); return $("<p/>").append($(elem)).html(); } }; var getSelection = function() { if ($.browser.msie) { return this.editor.selection; } else { return this.iframe[0].contentDocument.defaultView.getSelection(); } }; var getRange = function() { var s = this.getSelection(); return (s.getRangeAt) ? s.getRangeAt(0) : s.createRange(); }; var getSelectedNode = function() { var range = this.getRange(); var parent = range.commonAncestorContainer ? range.commonAncestorContainer : range.parentElement ? range.parentElement(): range.item(0); return parent; }; // **** INSIDE SOME EVENT HANDLER **** if ($.browser.msie) { this.ec("createLink", true); } else { this.ec("createLink", false, prompt("Link URL:", "http://")); } var linkNode = $(this.getSelectedNode()); linkNode.attr("rel", "external"); $.log(linkNode.get(0).tagName); // Gecko: "body" // IE: "a" // Webkit: "undefined" $.log(this.getSelectedHTML()); // Gecko: "<a href="http://site.com">foo</a>" // IE: "<A href="http://site.com" rel=external>foo</A>" // Webkit: "foo" $.log(this.getSelection()); // Gecko: "foo" // IE: [object Selection] // Webkit: "foo" Thanks for any help on this, I've scoured related questions on SO with no success!

    Read the article

  • Add autoFill capabilities to jQuery-UI 1.8.1

    - by rockinthesixstring
    here's what I currently have, unfortunately I cannot seem to figure out how to get autoFill to work with jQuery-UI... It used to work with the straight up Autocomplete.js <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.8.1/jquery-ui.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="http://jquery-ui.googlecode.com/svn/tags/latest/external/jquery.bgiframe-2.1.1.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.8.1/i18n/jquery-ui-i18n.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> var thesource = "RegionsAutoComplete.axd?PID=3" $(function () { function log(message) { $("<div/>").text(message).prependTo("#log"); $("#log").attr("scrollTop", 0); } $.expr[':'].textEquals = function (a, i, m) { return $(a).text().match("^" + m[3] + "$"); }; $("#birds").autocomplete({ source: thesource, change: function (event, ui) { //if the value of the textbox does not match a suggestion, clear its value if ($(".ui-autocomplete li:textEquals('" + $(this).val() + "')").size() == 0) { $(this).val(''); } else { log(ui.item ? ("Selected: " + ui.item.value + " aka " + ui.item.id) : "Nothing selected, input was " + this.value); } } }).live('keydown', function (e) { var keyCode = e.keyCode || e.which; //if TAB or RETURN is pressed and the text in the textbox does not match a suggestion, set the value of the textbox to the text of the first suggestion if ((keyCode == 9 || keyCode == 13) && ($(".ui-autocomplete li:textEquals('" + $(this).val() + "')").size() == 0)) { $(this).val($(".ui-autocomplete li:visible:first").text()); } }); }); </script> I've used the answer here to get the mustMatch working, but unfortunately if I "tab" away from the input box, I get the "Nothing selected" response instead of an Value and ID. Does anyone know how to extract the ID out of the autocomplete when you don't actually select the field?

    Read the article

  • C# unit test code questions continue

    - by 5YrsLaterDBA
    more questions after questions in here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2714073/c-unit-test-code-questions I found the VS unit test testframe treat private and protected method in the same way but deferent with public method. The following is the generated code for a private method: /// <summary> ///A test for recordLogin ///</summary> [TestMethod()] [DeploymentItem("SystemSoftware.exe")] public void recordLoginTest() { User_Accessor target = new User_Accessor(); // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value Guid userId = new Guid(); // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value string action = string.Empty; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value Users user = null; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value AndeDBEntities db = null; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value bool expected = false; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value bool actual; actual = target.recordLogin(userId, action, user, db); Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); Assert.Inconclusive("Verify the correctness of this test method."); } questions: [DeploymentItem("SystemSoftware.exe")] is for private and protected methods, why needs it and what is it for? In my original class/file, if I point to the original method and try to "Find All References". The reference in the unit test class/file will not show up for private and protected methods but it will show up for all public methods. Why is that? Is it right? 3.

    Read the article

  • In C# should I reuse a function / property parameter to compute temp result or create a temporary v

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    The example below may not be problematic as is, but it should be enough to illustrate a point. Imagine that there is a lot more work than trimming going on. public string Thingy { set { // I guess we can throw a null reference exception here on null. value = value.Trim(); // Well, imagine that there is so much processing to do this.thingy = value; // That this.thingy = value.Trim() would not fit on one line ... So, if the assignment has to take two lines, then I either have to abusereuse the parameter, or create a temporary variable. I am not a big fan of temporary variables. On the other hand, I am not a fan of convoluted code. I did not include an example where a function is involved, but I am sure you can imagine it. One concern I have is if a function accepted a string and the parameter was "abused", and then someone changed the signature to ref in both places - this ought to mess things up, but ... who would knowingly make such a change if it already worked without a ref? Seems like it is their responsibility in this case. If I mess with the value of value, am I doing something non-trivial under the hood? If you think that both approaches are acceptable, then which do you prefer and why? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Read Parent nodes only from XML using LINQToXML

    - by ItsMeSri
    I have XML string that has parent nodes "Committee" and inside that another child node "Committee" is there. When I am using "from committee in xDocument.DescendantsAndSelf("Committee")" it is reading childnode also, but I don't want to read child nodes, I just want to read Parent nodes only. <Committee> <Position>STAFF</Position> <Appointment>1/16/2006</Appointment> <Committee>PPMSSTAFF</Committee> <CommitteeName>PPMS Staff</CommitteeName> <Expiration>12/25/2099</Expiration> </Committee> <Committee> <Position>STAFF</Position> <Appointment>4/16/2004</Appointment> <Committee>PMOSSTAFF</Committee> <CommitteeName>PPMS </CommitteeName> <Expiration>12/25/2099</Expiration> </Committee> XElement xDocument= XElement.Parse(xml); var committeeXmls = from Committee in xDocument.Descendants("Committee") select new { CommitteeName = Committee.Element("CommitteeName"), Position = Committee.Element("Position"), Appointment = Committee.Element("Appointment"), Expiration = Committee.Element("Expiration") }; int i = 0; foreach (var committeeXml in committeeXmls) { if (committeeXml != null) { drCommittee = dtCommittee.NewRow(); drCommittee["ID"] = ++i; drCommittee["CommitteeName"] = committeeXml.CommitteeName.Value; drCommittee["Position"] = committeeXml.Position.Value; drCommittee["Appointment"] = committeeXml.Appointment.Value; drCommittee["Expiration"] = committeeXml.Expiration.Value; dtCommittee.Rows.Add(drCommittee); // educationXml.GraduationDate.Value, educationXml.Major.Value); } }

    Read the article

  • IHttpAsyncHandler and IObservable web requests

    - by McLovin
    Within Async handler I'm creating an IObservable from webrequest which returns a redirect string. I'm subscribing to that observable and calling AsyncResult.CompleteCall() but I'm forced to use Thread.Sleep(100) in order to get it executed. And it doesn't work every time. I'm pretty sure this is not correct. Could you please shine some light. Thank you! public IAsyncResult BeginProcessRequest(HttpContext context, AsyncCallback cb, object state) { _context = context; _ar = new AsyncResult(cb, state); _tweet = context.Request["tweet"]; string url = context.Request["url"]; if(String.IsNullOrEmpty(_tweet) || String.IsNullOrEmpty(url)) { DisplayError("<h2>Tweet or url cannot be empty</h2>"); return _ar; } _oAuth = new oAuthTwitterRx(); using (_oAuth.AuthorizationLinkGet().Subscribe(p => { _context.Response.Redirect(p); _ar.CompleteCall(); }, exception => DisplayError("<h2>Unable to connect to twitter, please try again</h2>") )) return _ar; } public class AsyncResult : IAsyncResult { private AsyncCallback _cb; private object _state; private ManualResetEvent _event; private bool _completed = false; private object _lock = new object(); public AsyncResult(AsyncCallback cb, object state) { _cb = cb; _state = state; } public Object AsyncState { get { return _state; } } public bool CompletedSynchronously { get { return false; } } public bool IsCompleted { get { return _completed; } } public WaitHandle AsyncWaitHandle { get { lock (_lock) { if (_event == null) _event = new ManualResetEvent(IsCompleted); return _event; } } } public void CompleteCall() { lock (_lock) { _completed = true; if (_event != null) _event.Set(); } if (_cb != null) _cb(this); } }

    Read the article

  • JavaScript To Clear Form Field On Submit Before Form Submission To Perl Script

    - by Russell C.
    We have a very long form that has a number of fields and 2 different submit buttons. When a user clicks the 1st submit button ("Photo Search") the form should POST and our script will do a search for matching photos based on what the user entered in the text input ("photo_search_text") next to the 1st submit button and reload the entire form with matching photos added to the form. Upon clicking the 2nd submit button ("Save Changes") at the end of the form, it should POST and our script should update the database with the information the user entered in the form. Unfortunately the layout of the form makes it impossible to separate it into 2 separate forms. I checked the entire form POST and unfortunately the submitted fields are identical to the perl script processing the form submission no matter which submit button is clicked so the perl script can't differentiate which action to perform based on which submit button is pushed. The only thing I can think of is to update the onclick action of the 2nd submit button so it clears the "photo_search_text" field before the form is submitted and then only perform a photo search if that fields has a value. Based on all this, my question is what does the JavaScript look that could clear out the "photo_search_text" field when someone clicks on the 2nd submit button? Here is what I've tried so far none of which has worked successfully: <input type="submit" name="submit" onclick="document.update-form.photo_search_text.value='';" value="Save Changes"> <input type="submit" name="submit" onsubmit="document.update-form.photo_search_text.value='';" value="Save Changes"> <input type="submit" name="submit" onclick="document.getElementById('photo_search_text')='';" value="Save Changes"> We also use JQuery on the site so if there is a way to do this with jQuery instead of plain JavaScript feel free to provide example code for that instead. Lastly, if there is another way to handle this that I'm not thinking of any and all suggestions would be welcome. Thanks in advance for your help!

    Read the article

  • Get Mechanize to handle cookies from an arbitrary POST (to log into a website programmatically)

    - by Horace Loeb
    I want to log into https://www.t-mobile.com/ programmatically. My first idea was to use Mechanize to submit the login form: However, it turns out that this isn't even a real form. Instead, when you click "Log in" some javascript grabs the values of the fields, creates a new form dynamically, and submits it. "Log in" button HTML: <button onclick="handleLogin(); return false;" class="btnBlue" id="myTMobile-login"><span>Log in</span></button> The handleLogin() function: function handleLogin() { if (ValidateMsisdnPassword()) { // client-side form validation logic var a = document.createElement("FORM"); a.name = "form1"; a.method = "POST"; a.action = mytmoUrl; // defined elsewhere as https://my.t-mobile.com/Login/LoginController.aspx var c = document.createElement("INPUT"); c.type = "HIDDEN"; c.value = document.getElementById("myTMobile-phone").value; // the value of the phone number input field c.name = "txtMSISDN"; a.appendChild(c); var b = document.createElement("INPUT"); b.type = "HIDDEN"; b.value = document.getElementById("myTMobile-password").value; // the value of the password input field b.name = "txtPassword"; a.appendChild(b); document.body.appendChild(a); a.submit(); return true } else { return false } } I could simulate this form submission by POSTing the form data to https://my.t-mobile.com/Login/LoginController.aspx with Net::HTTP#post_form, but I don't know how to get the resultant cookie into Mechanize so I can continue to scrape the UI available when I'm logged in. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Update element values using xml.dom.minidom

    - by amnesia-55
    Hello, I have an XML structure which looks similar to: <Store> <foo> <book> <isbn>123456</isbn> </book> <title>XYZ</title> <checkout>no</checkout> </foo> <bar> <book> <isbn>7890</isbn> </book> <title>XYZ2</title> <checkout>yes</checkout> </bar> </Store> Using xml.dom.minidom only (restrictions) i would like to 1)traverse through the XML file 2)Search/Get for particular element, depending on its parent Example: checkout element for author1, isbn for author2 3)Change/Set that element's value 4)Write the new XML structure to a file Can anyone help here? Thank you! UPDATE: This is what i have done till now import xml.dom.minidom checkout = "yes" def getLoneChild(node, tagname): assert ((node is not None) and (tagname is not None)) elem = node.getElementsByTagName(tagname) if ((elem is None) or (len(elem) != 1)): return None return elem def getLoneLeaf(node, tagname): assert ((node is not None) and (tagname is not None)) elem = node.getElementsByTagName(tagname) if ((elem is None) or (len(elem) != 1)): return None leaf = elem[0].firstChild if (leaf is None): return None return leaf.data def setcheckout(node, tagname): assert ((node is not None) and (tagname is not None)) child = getLoneChild(node, 'foo') Check = getLoneLeaf(child[0],'checkout') Check = tagname return Check doc = xml.dom.minidom.parse('test.xml') root = doc.getElementsByTagName('Store')[0] output = setcheckout(root, checkout) tmp_config = '/tmp/tmp_config.xml' fw = open(tmp_config, 'w') fw.write(doc.toxml()) fw.close()

    Read the article

  • Problem with oracle stored procedure - parameters

    - by Nicole
    I have this stored procedure: CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE "LIQUIDACION_OBTENER" ( p_Cuenta IN NUMBER, p_Fecha IN DATE, p_Detalle OUT LIQUIDACION.FILADETALLE%TYPE ) IS BEGIN SELECT FILADETALLE INTO p_Detalle FROM Liquidacion WHERE (FILACUENTA = p_Cuenta) AND (FILAFECHA = p_Fecha); END; / ...and my c# code: string liquidacion = string.Empty; OracleCommand command = new OracleCommand("Liquidacion_Obtener"); command.BindByName = true; command.Parameters.Add(new OracleParameter("p_Cuenta", OracleDbType.Int64)); command.Parameters["p_Cuenta"].Value = cuenta; command.Parameters.Add(new OracleParameter("p_Fecha", OracleDbType.Date)); command.Parameters["p_Fecha"].Value = fecha; command.Parameters.Add("p_Detalle", OracleDbType.Varchar2, ParameterDirection.Output); OracleConnectionHolder connection = null; connection = this.GetConnection(); command.Connection = connection.Connection; command.CommandTimeout = 30; command.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; OracleDataReader lector = command.ExecuteReader(); while (lector.Read()) { liquidacion += ((OracleString)command.Parameters["p_Detalle"].Value).Value; } the thing is that when I try to put a value into the parameter "Fecha" (that is a date) the code gives me this error (when the line command.ExecuteReader(); is executed) Oracle.DataAccess.Client.OracleException : ORA-06502: PL/SQL: numeric or value error ORA-06512: at "SYSTEM.LIQUIDACION_OBTENER", line 9 ORA-06512: at line 1 I tried with the datetime and was not the problem, I eve tried with no input parameters and just the output and still got the same error. Aparently the problem is with the output parameter. I already tried putting p_Detalle OUT VARCHAR2 instead of p_Detalle OUT LIQUIDACION.FILADETALLE%TYPE but it didn't work either I hope my post is understandable.. thanks!!!!!!!!!!

    Read the article

  • issue in property file

    - by devuser
    I want to load the property file when tomcat is starting.so I'm using servletContextListener to do that and i can get values of property file to my web application. But i want to keep the same value after changing the property file once log into web application.But when i change the value of property file and log into system again it change the value to new one.I want to keep the same value that loaded when tomcat was starting.how can i implement this? My coding is as below import javax.servlet.*; import java.io.IOException; import java.util.Properties; import java.util.logging.Level; import java.util.logging.Logger; import java.io.*; import java.util.ResourceBundle; public final class sysProperties implements javax.servlet.ServletContextListener { private static Properties props = new Properties(); private static String file_name = "com/util/contact.properties"; public addSystemProperties() { } public void contextInitialized(ServletContextEvent servletContextEvent) { // Get the context ServletContext servletContext = servletContextEvent.getServletContext(); // Set a context attribute try { // props.load(servletContext.getResourceAsStream(file_name)); props.load(getClass().getClassLoader().getResourceAsStream(file_name)); System.out.println(" Application X is starting"); servletContext.setAttribute("h1",props.getProperty("home.h1")); servletContext.setAttribute("h2",props.getProperty("home.h2")); System.out.println("h1"+servletContext.getAttribute("h1")); System.out.println("h2"+ servletContext.getAttribute("h2")); ; } catch (Exception e) { System.out.println(" Error setting context attribute: " + e.getMessage()); } } public void contextDestroyed(ServletContextEvent servletContextEvent) { // Get the context ServletContext servletContext = servletContextEvent.getServletContext(); // Output the context variable we set earlier System.out.println(" Application X is shutting down"); System.out.println(" Value of h1 is: " + servletContext.getAttribute("h1")); System.out.println(" Value of h2 is: " + servletContext.getAttribute("h2")); // Clean up (not really necessary as the context is being destroyed, but let's be neat) servletContext.removeAttribute(props.getProperty("h1")); servletContext.removeAttribute(props.getProperty("h2")); } }

    Read the article

  • validation properties by attribute

    - by netmajor
    I create class with two property - name,link(below). I use simple property validation by Required and StringLength attribute. I bind this class object to WPF ListBox(with textBoxs). But when I have textbox empty or write words longer than 8 sign nothing happens :/ What should I do to fires ErrorMessage? Or how to implement validation in other way ? I also try use : if (value is int) { throw new ArgumentException("Wpisales stringa!!"); } But it only fires in debug mode :/ My class with implementation of attribute validation: public class RssInfo : INotifyPropertyChanged { public RssInfo() { } public RssInfo(string _nazwa, string _link) { nazwa = _nazwa; link = _link; } private string nazwa; [Required(ErrorMessage = "To pole jest obowiazkowe nAZWA")] public string Nazwa { get { return nazwa; } set { if (value != nazwa) { nazwa = value; onPropertyChanged("Nazwa"); } if (value is int) { throw new ArgumentException("Wpisales stringa!!"); } } } private string link; [Required(ErrorMessage="To pole jest obowiazkowe link")] [StringLength(8, ErrorMessage = "Link cannot be longer than 8 characters")] public string Link { get { return link; } set { if (value != link) { link = value; onPropertyChanged("Link"); } } } #region INotifyPropertyChanged Members public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; #endregion private void onPropertyChanged(string propertyName) { if (this.PropertyChanged != null) { PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } } }

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 368 369 370 371 372 373 374 375 376 377 378 379  | Next Page >