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  • How to pass dynamic parameters to .pde file

    - by Kalpana
    class Shape contains two methods drawCircle() and drawTriangle(). Each function takes different set of arguments. At present, I invoke this by calling the pde file directly. How to pass these arguments from a HTML file directly if I have to control the arguments being passed to the draw function? 1) Example.html has (current version) <script src="processing-1.0.0.min.js"></script> <canvas data-processing-sources="example.pde"></canvas> 2) Example.pde has class Shape { void drawCircle(intx, int y, int radius) { ellipse(x, y, radius, radius); } void drawTriangle(int x1, int y1, int x2, int y2, int x3, int y3) { rect(x1, y1, x2, y2, x3, y3); } } Shape shape = new Shape(); shape.drawCircle(10, 40, 70); I am looking to do something like this in my HTML file, so that I can move all the functions into a separate file and call them with different arguments to draw different shapes (much similar to how you would do it in Java) A.html <script> Shape shape = new Shape(); shape.drawCircle(10, 10, 3); </script> B.html <script> Shape shape = new Shape(); shape.drawTriangle(30, 75, 58, 20, 86, 75); </script> 2) Iam using Example2.pde has void setup() { size(200,200); background(125); fill(255); } void rectangle(int x1, int y1, int x2, int y2) { rect(x1, y1, x2, y2); } My Example2.html has var processingInstance; processingInstance.rectangle(30, 20, 55, 55); but this is not working. How to pass these parameters dynamically from html.

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  • WebService Stubs WSDL Axis2

    - by tt0686
    Good afternoon in my timezone. I have a wsdl file with the following snippet of code: <schema targetNamespace="http://util.cgd.pt" xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <import namespace="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/" /> <complexType name="Attribute"> <sequence> <element name="fieldType" nillable="true" type="xsd:string" /> <element name="dataType" nillable="true" type="xsd:string" /> <element name="name" nillable="true" type="xsd:string" /> <element name="value" nillable="true" type="xsd:string" /> </sequence> </complexType> <complexType name="ArrayOffAttribute"> <complexContent> <restriction base="soapenc:Array"> <attribute ref="soapenc:arrayType" wsdl:arrayType="tns3:Attribute[]" /> </restriction> </complexContent> </complexType> When i use jax-rpc or Axis1 to generate the stubs the type Attribute is generated, but when i use Axis2 the type Attribute is not generated and a new type is created ArrayOffAttribute, this new type extends the axis2.databinding.types.soapencoding.Array and permits to add elements through the array.addObject(object), my question is, i am migrating one Java EE application from webservices using jax-rpc to start using Axis2, and the methods are using the Attribute type to fullfill attributes fields, now in Axis2 and do not have attribute type , what should i use in the ArrayOffAttribute.addObject(?) ? Could be something wrong with Axis2 ? i am stop here :( Thanks in advance Best regards

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  • Cannot implicity convert type void to System.Threading.Tasks.Task<bool>

    - by sagesky36
    I have a WCF Service that contains the following method. All the methods in the service are asynchrounous and compile just fine. public async Task<Boolean> ValidateRegistrationAsync(String strUserName) { try { using (YeagerTechEntities DbContext = new YeagerTechEntities()) { DbContext.Configuration.ProxyCreationEnabled = false; DbContext.Database.Connection.Open(); var reg = await DbContext.aspnet_Users.FirstOrDefaultAsync(f => f.UserName == strUserName); if (reg != null) return true; else return false; } } catch (Exception) { throw; } } My client application was set to access the WCF service with the check box for the "Allow generation of asynchronous operations" and it generated the proxy just fine. I am receiving the above subject error when trying to call this WCF service method from my client with the following code. Mind you, I know what the error message means, but this is my first time trying to call an asynchronous task in a WCF service from a client. Task<Boolean> blnMbrShip = db.ValidateRegistrationAsync(FormsAuthentication.Decrypt(cn.Value).Name); What do I need to do to properly call the method so the design time compile error disappears? Thanks so much in advance...

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  • Best way to get a single value from a DataTable?

    - by PiersMyers
    I have a number of static classes that contain tables like this: using System; using System.Data; using System.Globalization; public static class TableFoo { private static readonly DataTable ItemTable; static TableFoo() { ItemTable = new DataTable("TableFoo") { Locale = CultureInfo.InvariantCulture }; ItemTable.Columns.Add("Id", typeof(int)); ItemTable.Columns["Id"].Unique = true; ItemTable.Columns.Add("Description", typeof(string)); ItemTable.Columns.Add("Data1", typeof(int)); ItemTable.Columns.Add("Data2", typeof(double)); ItemTable.Rows.Add(0, "Item 1", 1, 1.0); ItemTable.Rows.Add(1, "Item 2", 1, 1.0); ItemTable.Rows.Add(2, "Item 3", 2, 0.75); ItemTable.Rows.Add(3, "Item 4", 4, 0.25); ItemTable.Rows.Add(4, "Item 5", 1, 1.0); } public static DataTable GetItemTable() { return ItemTable; } public static int Data1(int id) { DataRow[] dr = ItemTable.Select("Id = " + id); if (dr.Length == 0) { throw new ArgumentOutOfRangeException("id", "Out of range."); } return (int)dr[0]["Data1"]; } public static double Data2(int id) { DataRow[] dr = ItemTable.Select("Id = " + id); if (dr.Length == 0) { throw new ArgumentOutOfRangeException("id", "Out of range."); } return (double)dr[0]["Data2"]; } } Is there a better way of writing the Data1 or Data2 methods that return a single value from a single row that matches the given id?

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  • Wordpress: How to override all default theme CSS so your custom one is loaded the last?

    - by mickael
    I have a problem where I've been able to include a custom css in the section of my wordpress theme with the following code: function load_my_style_wp_enqueue_scripts() { wp_register_style('my_styles_css', includes_url("/css/my_styles.css")); wp_enqueue_style('my_styles_css'); } add_action('wp_enqueue_scripts','load_my_style_wp_enqueue_scripts'); But the order in the source code is as follows: <link rel='stylesheet' id='my_styles_css-css' href='http://...folderA.../my_styles.css?ver=3.1' type='text/css' media='all' /> <link rel="stylesheet" id="default-css" href="http://...folderB.../default.css" type="text/css" media="screen,projection" /> <link rel="stylesheet" id="user-css" href="http://...folderC.../user.css" type="text/css" media="screen,projection" /> I want my_styles_css to be the last file to load, overriding default and user files. I've tried to achieve this by modifying wp_enqueue_style in different ways, but without any success. I've tried: wp_enqueue_style('my_styles_css', array('default','user')); or wp_enqueue_style('my_styles_css', false, array('default','user'), '1.0', 'all'); I've seen some related questions without answer or with these last 2 methods that are still failing for me. The function above is part of a plugin that I've got enabled in my wordpress installation.

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  • Is it safe to use random Unicode for complex delimiter sequences in strings?

    - by ccomet
    Question: In terms of program stability and ensuring that the system will actually operate, how safe is it to use chars like ¦, § or ‡ for complex delimiter sequences in strings? Can I reliable believe that I won't run into any issues in a program reading these incorrectly? I am working in a system, using C# code, in which I have to store a fairly complex set of information within a single string. The readability of this string is only necessary on the computer side, end-users should only ever see the information after it has been parsed by the appropriate methods. Because some of the data in these strings will be collections of variable size, I use different delimiters to identify what parts of the string correspond to a certain tier of organization. There are enough cases that the standard sets of ;, |, and similar ilk have been exhausted. I considered two-char delimiters, like ;# or ;|, but I felt that it would be very inefficient. There probably isn't that large of a performance difference in storing with one char versus two chars, but when I have the option of picking the smaller option, it just feels wrong to pick the larger one. So finally, I considered using the set of characters like the double dagger and section. They only take up one char, and they are definitely not going to show up in the actual text that I'll be storing, so they won't be confused for anything. But character encoding is finicky. While the visibility to the end user is meaningless (since they, in fact, won't see it), I became recently concerned about how the programs in the system will read it. The string is stored in one database, while a separate program is responsible for both encoding and decoding the string into different object types for the rest of the application to work with. And if something is expected to be written one way, is possibly written another, then maybe the whole system will fail and I can't really let that happen. So is it safe to use these kind of chars for background delimiters?

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  • Java iteration reading & parsing

    - by Patrick Lorio
    I have a log file that I am reading to a string public static String Read (String path) throws IOException { StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); InputStream in = new BufferedInputStream(new FileInputStream(path)); int r; while ((r = in.read()) != -1) { sb.append(r); } return sb.toString(); } Then I have a parser that iterates over the entire string once void Parse () { String con = Read("log.txt"); for (int i = 0; i < con.length; i++) { /* parsing action */ } } This is hugely a waste of cpu cycles. I loop over all the content in Read. Then I loop over all the content in Parse. I could just place the /* parsing action */ under the while loop in the Read method, which would be find but I don't want to copy the same code all over the place. How can I parse the file in one iteration over the contents and still have separate methods for parsing and reading? In C# I understand there is some sort of yield return thing, but I'm locked with Java. What are my options in Java?

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  • How to pass Event as a parameter in JQuery function

    - by Manas Saha
    Hi I am learning JQuery and I have written a small function where I am attaching a function with a button's click event. this is the head element of the HTML <script type="text/javascript"> $(pageLoaded); function pageLoaded() { $("#Button1").bind("click", { key1: "value1", key2: "value2" }, function buttonClick(event) { $("#displayArea").text(event.data.key1); } ); } </script> This is the body of the HTML <input id="Button1" type="button" value="button" /> <div id = "displayArea" style="border:2px solid black; width:300px; height:200px"> This code works fine. But when I try to write the buttonClick function outside the anonymus method, it does not work anymore. I tried to call it this way: $("#Button1").bind("click", { key1: "value1", key2: "value2" }, buttonClick(event)); function buttonClick(var event) { $("#displayArea").text(event.data.key1); } This is not working. Am I doing some mistake while passing the Event as parameter? what is the correct way to do it without using anonymous methods?

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  • Creating nested arrays on the fly

    - by adardesign
    I am trying to do is to loop this HTML and get a nested array of this HTML values that i want to grab. It might look complex at first but is a simple question... This script is just part of a Object containing methods. html <div class="configureData"> <div title="Large"> <a href="yellow" title="true" rel="$55.00" name="sku22828"></a> <a href="green" title="true" rel="$55.00" name="sku224438"></a> <a href="Blue" title="true" rel="$55.00" name="sku22222"></a> </div> <div title="Medium"> <a href="yellow" title="true" rel="$55.00" name="sku22828"></a> <a href="green" title="true" rel="$55.00" name="sku224438"></a> <a href="Blue" title="true" rel="$55.00" name="sku22222"></a> </div> <div title="Small"> <a href="yellow" title="true" rel="$55.00" name="sku22828"></a> <a href="green" title="true" rel="$55.00" name="sku224438"></a> <a href="Blue" title="true" rel="$55.00" name="sku22222"></a> </div> </div> javascript // this is part of a script..... parseData:function(dH){ dH.find(".configureData div").each(function(indA, eleA){ colorNSize.tempSizeArray[indA] = [eleA.title,[],[],[],[]] $(eleZ).find("a").each(function(indB, eleB){ colorNSize.tempSizeArray[indA][indB+1] = eleC.title }) }) }, I expect the end array should look like this. [ ["large", ["yellow", "green", "blue"], ["true", "true", "true"], ["$55", "$55","$55"] ], ["Medium", ["yellow", "green", "blue"], ["true", "true", "true"], ["$55", "$55","$55"] ] ] // and so on....

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  • How to minor updates to Drupal-6 with shared hosting

    - by marty.fried
    I've got Drupal working on a shared host, and I uploaded some modules from my home system successfully, but I've got the message that there is a security update for my version, and I should update immediately. I'm not sure how I'm supposed to do that. It seems like the update is an entire new installation. I originally installed it using the hosting company's installer, Fantastico. Should I simply over-write the existing installation with the new files? Or ignore the message? I realize I shouldn't over-write the sites folder, or anything I've modified. The instructions that come with the download seem to be for a major version upgrade, and are way too much trouble for frequent security updates. Searching Drupal's site shows many other methods, but no indication of anything official. And some were ridiculously error-prone, and not really useful. I don't have shell access to the hosting site, although I can pay extra to get it if I really need to. Or, maybe I can clone the site on my local Linux system, do the update using a script, then upload the whole thing. Does anyone have experience with this situation?

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  • Parsing XML in C# from stream

    - by Phillip
    I've tried several methods, from Linq to loading the data to an XML document, but i can't seem to be able to return the result that i need. here's the example XML: <serv:message xmlns:serv="http://www.webex.com/schemas/2002/06/service" xmlns:com="http://www.webex.com/schemas/2002/06/common" xmlns:event="http://www.webex.com/schemas/2002/06/service/event"><serv:header><serv:response><serv:result>SUCCESS</serv:result><serv:gsbStatus>PRIMARY</serv:gsbStatus></serv:response></serv:header><serv:body><serv:bodyContent xsi:type="event:createEventResponse" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"><event:sessionKey>11111111</event:sessionKey><event:guestToken>111111111111111111111</event:guestToken></serv:bodyContent></serv:body></serv:message> And, here's what i've tried to do: StreamReader reader = new StreamReader(dataStream); XmlDocument doc = new XmlDocument(); doc.LoadXml(reader.ReadToEnd()); XmlNamespaceManager ns = new XmlNamespaceManager(doc.NameTable); XmlNamespaceManager ns2 = new XmlNamespaceManager(doc.NameTable); XmlNamespaceManager ns3 = new XmlNamespaceManager(doc.NameTable); ns.AddNamespace("serv", "http://www.webex.com/schemas/2002/06/service"); ns2.AddNamespace("com", "http://www.webex.com/schemas/2002/06/common"); ns3.AddNamespace("event", "http://www.webex.com/schemas/2002/06/service/event"); XmlNode node = doc.SelectSingleNode("result",ns); Yet, for some reason i cannot ever seem to return the actual result, which should be either 'SUCCESS' or 'FAILURE' based on the actual xml above. How can i do this?

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  • Culture Sensitive GetHashCode

    - by user114928
    Hi, I'm writing a c# application that will process some text and provide basic query functions. In order to ensure the best possible support for other languages, I am allowing the users of the application to specify the System.Globalization.CultureInfo (via the "en-GB" style code) and also the full range of collation options using the System.Globalization.CompareOptions flags enum. For regular string comparison I'm then using a combination of: a) String.Compare overload that accepts the culture and options b) For some bulk processes I'm caching the byte data (KeyData) from CompareInfo.GetSortKey (overload that accepts the options) and using a byte-by-byte comparison of the KeyData. This seemed fine (although please comment if you think these two methods shouldn't be mixed), but then I had reason to use the HashSet< class which only has an overload for IEqualityComparer<. MS documentation seems to suggest that I should use StringComparer (which implements both IEqualityComparer< and IComparer<), but this only seems to support the "IgnoreCase" option from CompareOptions and not "IgnoreKanaType", "IgnoreSymbols", "IgnoreWidth" etc. I'm assuming that a StringComparer that ignores these other options could produce different hashcodes for two strings that might be considered the same using my other comparison options. I'd therefore get incorrect results from my application. Only thought at the moment is to create my own IEqualityComparer< that generates a hashcode from the SortKey.KeyData and compares eqality be using the String.Compare overload. Any suggestions?

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  • Connection

    - by pepersview
    Hello, I would like to ask you about NSURLConnection in objective-c for iPhone. I have one app that needs to connect to one webservice to receive data (about YouTube videos), Then I have all the things that I need to connect (Similar to Hello_Soap sample code in the web). But now, my problem is that I create a class (inherits from NSObject) named Connection and I have implemented the methods: didReceiveResponse, didReceiveData, didFailWithError and connectionDidFinishLoading. Also the method: -(void)Connect:(NSString *) soapMessage{ NSLog(soapMessage); NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:@"http://....."]; NSMutableURLRequest *theRequest = [NSMutableURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; NSString *msgLength = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", [soapMessage length]]; [theRequest addValue: @"text/xml; charset=utf-8" forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Type"]; [theRequest addValue: msgLength forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Length"]; [theRequest setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; [theRequest setHTTPBody: [soapMessage dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; NSURLConnection *theConnection = [[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:theRequest delegate:self]; if( theConnection ) { webData = [[NSMutableData data] retain]; } else { NSLog(@"theConnection is NULL"); } } But when from my AppDelegate I create one Connection object: Connection * connect = [[Connection alloc] Init:num]; //It's only one param to test. [connect Connect:method.soapMessage]; And I call this method, when this finishes, it doesn't continue calling didReceiveResponse, didReceiveData, didFailWithError or connectionDidFinishLoading. I'm trying to do this but I can't for the moment. The thing I would like to do is to be able to call this class "Connection" each time that I want to receive data (after that to be parsed and displayed in UITableViews). Thank you.

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  • Powerpoint displays a "can't start the application" error when an Excel Chart object is embedded in

    - by A9S6
    This is a very common problem when Excel Worksheet or Chart is embedded into Word or Powerpoint. I am seeing this problem in both Word and Powerpoint and the reason it seems is the COM addin attached to Excel. The COM addin is written in C# (.NET). See the attached images for error dialogs. I debugged the addin and found a very strange behavior. The OnConnection(...), OnDisConnection(...) etc methods in the COM addin works fine until I add an event handler to the code. i.e. handle the Worksheet_SheetChange, SelectionChange or any similar event available in Excel. As soon as I add even a single event handler (though my code has several), Word and Powerpoint start complaining and do not Activate the embedded object. On some of the posts on the internet, people have been asked to remove the anti-virus addins for office (none in my case) so this makes me believe that the problem is somewhat related to COM addins which are loaded when the host app activates the object. Does anyone have any idea of whats happening here?

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  • The best way to implement drawing features like Keynote

    - by Shamseddine
    Hi all, I'm trying to make a little iPad tool's for drawing simple geometrical objects (rect, rounded rect, ellipse, star, ...). My goal is to make something very close to Keynote (drawing feature), i.e. let the user add a rect (for instance), resizing it and moving it. I want too the user can select many objects and move them together. I've thought about at least 3 differents ways to do that : Extends UIView for each object type, a class for Rect, another for Ellipse, ... With custom drawing method. Then add this view as subview of the global view. Extends CALayer for each object type, a class for Rect, another for Ellipse, ... With custom drawing method. Then add this layer as sublayer of the global view layer's. Extends NSObject for each object type, a class for Rect, another for Ellipse, ... With just a drawing method which will get as argument a CGContext and a Rect and draw directly the form in it. Those methods will be called by the drawing method of the global view. I'm aware that the two first ways come with functions to detect touch on each object, to add easily shadows,... but I'm afraid that they are a little too heavy ? That's why I thought about the last way, which it seems to be straight forward. Which way will be the more efficient ??? Or maybe I didn't thought another way ? Any help will be appreciated ;-) Thanks.

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  • Hidden div height

    - by fudgey
    Ok, I was going to answer someone's question here on SO about why their script wasn't working. They loaded content into a hidden div, then got the height so they could animate the wrapping div. But I always try to test the code I provide. So I made this demo to prove it to them. So, umm, have I entered the twilight zone or am I dreaming right now? pinches self OUCH! I tried that demo in Firefox, IE and Chrome and both methods return the same value. Firebug says zero! I rebooted my computer and I even changed the code a bit (removed the height function) and tried it with jQuery 1.3.2 and it still worked! I know hidden elements USED to return a zero value. Even this SO Answer is giving the advice I would have! So I guess my question is... did I miss something or are we giving bad advice?

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  • How to increase the performance of a loop which runs for every 'n' minutes.

    - by GustlyWind
    Hi Giving small background to my requirement and what i had accomplished so far: There are 18 Scheduler tasks run at regular intervals (least being 30 mins) takes input of nearly 5000 eligible employees run into a static method for iteration and generates a mail content for that employee and mails. An average task takes about 9 min multiplied by 18 will be roughly 162 mins meanwhile there would be next tasks which will be in queue (I assume). So my plan is something like the below loop try { // Handle Arraylist of alerts eligible employees Iterator employee = empIDs.iterator(); while (employee.hasNext()) { ScheduledImplementation.getInstance().sendAlertInfoToEmpForGivenAlertType((Long)employee.next(), configType,schedType); } } catch (Exception vEx) { _log.error("Exception Caught During sending " + configType + " messages:" + configType, vEx); } Since I know how many employees would come to my method I will divide the while loop into two and perform simultaneous operations on two or three employees at a time. Is this possible. Or is there any other ways I can improve the performance. Some of the things I had implemented so far 1.Wherever possible made methods static and variables too Didn't bother to catch exceptions and send back because these are background tasks. (And I assume this improves performance) Get the DB values in one query instead of multiple hits. If am successful in optimizing the while loop I think i can save couple of mins. Thanks

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  • In Java it seems Public constructors are always a bad coding practice

    - by Adam Gent
    This maybe a controversial question and may not be suited for this forum (so I will not be insulted if you choose to close this question). It seems given the current capabilities of Java there is no reason to make constructors public ... ever. Friendly, private, protected are OK but public no. It seems that its almost always a better idea to provide a public static method for creating objects. Every Java Bean serialization technology (JAXB, Jackson, Spring etc...) can call a protected or private no-arg constructor. My questions are: I have never seen this practice decreed or written down anywhere? Maybe Bloch mentions it but I don't own is book. Is there a use case other than perhaps not being super DRY that I missed? EDIT: I explain why static methods are better. .1. For one you get better type inference. For example See Guava's http://code.google.com/p/guava-libraries/wiki/CollectionUtilitiesExplained .2. As a designer of the class you can later change what is returned with a static method. .3. Dealing with constructor inheritance is painful especially if you have to pre-calculate something.

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  • How do I work with constructs in PHPUnit?

    - by Ben Dauphinee
    I am new into PHPUnit, and just digging through the manual. I cannot find a decent example of how to build a complete test from end to end though, and so, am left with questions. One of these is how can I prep my environment to properly test my code? I am trying to figure out how to properly pass various configuration values needed for both the test setup/teardown methods, and the configs for the class itself. // How can I set these variables on testing start? protected $_db = null; protected $_config = null; // So that this function runs properly? public function setUp(){ $this->_acl = new acl( $this->_db, // The database connection for the class passed // from whatever test construct $this->_config // Config values passed in from construct ); } // Can I just drop in a construct like this, and have it work properly? // And if so, how can I set the construct call properly? public function __construct( Zend_Db_Adapter_Abstract $db, $config = array(), $baselinedatabase = NULL, $databaseteardown = NULL ){ $this->_db = $db; $this->_config = $config; $this->_baselinedatabase = $baselinedatabase; $this->_databaseteardown = $databaseteardown; } // Or is the wrong idea to be pursuing?

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  • Pass Parameter to Subroutine in Codebehind

    - by Sanjubaba
    I'm trying to pass an ID of an activity (RefNum) to a Sub in my codebehind. I know I'm supposed to use parentheses when passing parameters to subroutines and methods, and I've tried a number of ways and keep receiving the following error: BC30203: Identifier expected. I'm hard-coding it on the front-end just to try to get it to pass [ OnDataBound="FillSectorCBList("""WK.002""")" ], but it's obviously wrong. :( Front-end: <asp:DetailsView ID="dvEditActivity" AutoGenerateRows="False" DataKeyNames="RefNum" OnDataBound="dvSectorID_DataBound" OnItemUpdated="dvEditActivity_ItemUpdated" DataSourceID="dsEditActivity" > <Fields> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate> <br /><span style="color:#0e85c1;font-weight:bold">Sector</span><br /><br /> <asp:CheckBoxList ID="cblistSector" runat="server" DataSourceID="dsGetSectorNames" DataTextField="SectorName" DataValueField="SectorID" OnDataBound="FillSectorCBList("""WK.002""")" ></asp:CheckBoxList> <%-- Datasource to populate cblistSector --%> <asp:SqlDataSource ID="dsGetSectorNames" runat="server" ConnectionString="<%$ ConnectionStrings:dbConn %>" ProviderName="<%$ ConnectionStrings:dbConn.ProviderName %>" SelectCommand="SELECT SectorID, SectorName from Sector ORDER BY SectorID"></asp:SqlDataSource> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Fields> </asp:DetailsView> Code-behind: Sub FillSectorCBList(ByVal RefNum As String, ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Dim SectorIDs As New ListItem Dim myConnection As String = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings("dbConn").ConnectionString() Dim objConn As New SqlConnection(myConnection) Dim strSQL As String = "SELECT DISTINCT A.RefNum, AS1.SectorID, S.SectorName FROM Activity A LEFT OUTER JOIN Activity_Sector AS1 ON AS1.RefNum = A.RefNum LEFT OUTER JOIN Sector S ON AS1.SectorID = S.SectorID WHERE A.RefNum = @RefNum ORDER BY A.RefNum" Dim objCommand As New SqlCommand(strSQL, objConn) objCommand.Parameters.AddWithValue("RefNum", RefNum) Dim ad As New SqlDataAdapter(objCommand) Try [Code] Finally [Code] End Try objCommand.Connection.Close() objCommand.Dispose() objConn.Close() End Sub Any advice would be great. I'm not sure if I even have the right approach. Thank you!

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  • Accessing jQuery objects in the module pattern

    - by Stewart
    Hello, Really getting in to javascript and looking around at some patterns. One I have come accross is the module pattern. Its seems like a nice way to think of chucks of functionality so I went ahead and tried to implement it with jQuery. I ran in to a snag though. Consider the following code <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"> <title>index</title> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8" src="https://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.4/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> $(document).ready(function(){ var TestClass2 = (function(){ var someDiv; return { thisTest: function () { someDiv = document.createElement("div"); $(someDiv).append("#index"); $(someDiv).html("hello"); $(someDiv).addClass("test_class"); } } })(); TestClass2.thisTest(); }); </script> </head> <body id="index" onload=""> <div id="name"> this is content </div> </body> </html> The above code alerts the html content of the div and then adds a class. These both use jQuery methods. The problem is that the .html() method works fine however i can not add the class. No errors result and the class does not get added. What is happening here? Why is the class not getting added to the div?

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  • How can I map stored procedure result into a custom class with linq-to-sql?

    - by Remnant
    I have a stored procedure that returns a result set (4 columns x n Rows). The data is based on multiple tables within my database and provides a summary for each department within a corporate. Here is sample: usp_GetDepartmentSummary DeptName EmployeeCount Male Female HR 12 5 7 etc... I am using linq-to-sql to retrieve data from my database (nb - have to use sproc as it is something I have inherited). I would like to call the above sproc and map into a department class: public class Department { public string DeptName {get; set;} public int EmployeeCount {get; set;} public int MaleCount {get; set;} public int FemaleCount {get; set;} } In VS2008, I can drag and drop my sproc onto the methods pane of the linq-to-sql designer. When I examine the designer.cs the return type for this sproc is defined as: ISingleResult<usp_GetDepartmentSummaryResult> What I would like to do is amend this somehow so that it returns a Department type so that I can pass the results of the sproc as a strongly typed view: <% foreach (var dept in Model) { %> <ul> <li class="deptname"><%= dept.DeptName %></li> <li class="deptname"><%= dept.EmployeeCount %></li> etc... Any ideas how to achieve this? NB - I have tried amending the designer.cs and dbml xml file directly but with limited success. I admit to being a little out of my depth when it comes to updating those files directly and I am not sure it is best practice? Would be good to get some diretion. Thanks much

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  • Is my method for avoiding dynamic_cast<> faster than dynamic_cast<> itself ?

    - by ereOn
    Hi, I was answering a question a few minutes ago and it raised to me another one: In one of my projects, I do some network message parsing. The messages are in the form of: [1 byte message type][2 bytes payload length][x bytes payload] The format and content of the payload are determined by the message type. I have a class hierarchy, based on a common class Message. To instanciate my messages, i have a static parsing method which gives back a Message* depending on the message type byte. Something like: Message* parse(const char* frame) { // This is sample code, in real life I obviously check that the buffer // is not NULL, and the size, and so on. switch(frame[0]) { case 0x01: return new FooMessage(); case 0x02: return new BarMessage(); } // Throw an exception here because the mesage type is unknown. } I sometimes need to access the methods of the subclasses. Since my network message handling must be fast, I decived to avoid dynamic_cast<> and I added a method to the base Message class that gives back the message type. Depending on this return value, I use a static_cast<> to the right child type instead. I did this mainly because I was told once that dynamic_cast<> was slow. However, I don't know exactly what it really does and how slow it is, thus, my method might be as just as slow (or slower) but far more complicated. What do you guys think of this design ? Is it common ? Is it really faster than using dynamic_cast<> ? Any detailed explanation of what happen under the hood when one use dynamic_cast<> is welcome !

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  • Conditionally overriding a system method via categories in Objective-C?

    - by adib
    Hi Is there a way to provide a method implementation (that bears the exact same name of a method defined by the framework) only when the method isn't already defined in the system? For example method [NSSomeClass someMethod:] exists only in Mac OS X 10.6 and if my app runs in 10.5, I will provide that method's definition in a category. But when the app runs in 10.6, I want the OS-provided method to run. Background: I'm creating an app targeted for both 10.5 and 10.6. The problem is that I recently realized that method +[NSSortDescriptor sortDescriptorWithKey:ascending:] only exists in 10.6 and my code is already littered by that method call. I could provide a default implementation for it (since this time it's not too difficult to implement it myself), but I want the "native" one to be called whenever my app runs on 10.6. Furthermore if I encounter similar problems in the future (with more difficult-to-implement-myself methods), I might not be able to get away with providing a one-liner replacement. This question vaguely similar to Override a method via ObjC Category and call the default implementation? but the difference is that I want to provide implementations only when the system doesn't already has one. Thanks.

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  • Open a new browser window from embeded Internet Explorer

    - by Buddy
    I am working on a Windows desktop app (C++) that has an embedded Internet Explorer page. I'm working on the html page that is displayed in the There is not a back button control, so one of the requests is that links clicked on in the page should open the link in a browser window. It can open the link in the users default browser or in IE. Is this possible? I realize that this is not possible because javascript is in a sandbox and cannot touch outside applications. I'm thinking there might be a way because it is using the IE. I have tried the two methods that have worked for me in the past. Using jquery, I've tried these two approaches, but neither work in the app. They both work fine in normal browsers. Using target="_blank" $( "a" ).attr( "target", "_blank" ); The other is using window.open: $( "a" ).click( function() { window.open( $( this ).attr( "href" ) ); } ); I'm afraid that writing windows desktop applications is outside my area of expertise, so I cannot give more information regarding that side of the issue.

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