Search Results

Search found 11954 results on 479 pages for 'gets'.

Page 373/479 | < Previous Page | 369 370 371 372 373 374 375 376 377 378 379 380  | Next Page >

  • deep linking in Excel sheets exported to html

    - by pomarc
    hello everybody, I am working on a project where I must export to html a lot of Excel files. This is pretty straightforward using automation and saving as html. The problem is that many of these sheets have links to worksheets of some other files. I must find a way to write a link to a single inner worksheet. When you export a multisheet excel file to html, excel creates a main htm file, a folder named filename_file, and inside this folder it writes down several files: a css, an xml list of files, a file that creates the tab bar and several html files named sheetxxx.htm, each one representing a worksheet. When you open the main file, you can click the menu bar at the bottom which lets you select the appropriate sheet. This is in fact a link, which replaces a frame content with the sheetxxx.htm file. When this file is loaded a javascript function that selects the right tab gets called. The exported files will be published on a web site. I will have to post process each file and replace every link to the other xls files to the matching htm file, finding a way to open the right worksheet. I think that I could add a parameter to the processed htm file link url, such as myfile.htm?sh=sheet002.htm if I want to link to the second worksheet of myfile.htm (ex myfile.xls). After I've exported them, I could inject a simple javascript into each of the main files which, when they are loaded, could retrieve the sh parameter with jQuery (this is easy) and use this to somehow replace the frSheet frame contents (where the sheets get loaded), opening the right inner sheet and not the default sheet (this is what I call deep linking) mimicking what happens when a user clicks on a tab. This last step is missing... :) I am considering different options, such as replacing the source of the $("frSheet") frame after document.ready. I'd like to hear from you any advice on what could be the best way to realize that in your opinion. any help is greately appreciated, many thanks.

    Read the article

  • Access modifiers - Property on business objects - getting and setting

    - by Mike
    Hi, I am using LINQ to SQL for the DataAccess layer. I have similar business objects to what is in the data access layer. I have got the dataprovider getting the message #23. On instantiation of the message, in the message constructor, it gets the MessageType and makes a new instance of MessageType class and fills in the MessageType information from the database. Therefore; I want this to get the Name of the MessageType of the Message. user.Messages[23].MessageType.Name I also want an administrator to set the MessageType user.Messages[23].MessageType = MessageTypes.LoadType(3); but I don't want the user to publicly set the MessageType.Name. But when I make a new MessageType instance, the access modifier for the Name property is public because I want to set that from an external class (my data access layer). I could change this to property to internal, so that my class can access it like a public variable, and not allow my other application access to modify it. This still doesn't feel right as it seems like a public property. Are public access modifiers in this situation bad? Any tips or suggestions would be appreciated. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How to test method call order with Moq

    - by Finglas
    At the moment I have: [Test] public void DrawDrawsAllScreensInTheReverseOrderOfTheStack() { // Arrange. var screenMockOne = new Mock<IScreen>(); var screenMockTwo = new Mock<IScreen>(); var screens = new List<IScreen>(); screens.Add(screenMockOne.Object); screens.Add(screenMockTwo.Object); var stackOfScreensMock = new Mock<IScreenStack>(); stackOfScreensMock.Setup(s => s.ToArray()).Returns(screens.ToArray()); var screenManager = new ScreenManager(stackOfScreensMock.Object); // Act. screenManager.Draw(new Mock<GameTime>().Object); // Assert. screenMockOne.Verify(smo => smo.Draw(It.IsAny<GameTime>()), Times.Once(), "Draw was not called on screen mock one"); screenMockTwo.Verify(smo => smo.Draw(It.IsAny<GameTime>()), Times.Once(), "Draw was not called on screen mock two"); } But the order in which I draw my objects in the production code does not matter. I could do one first, or two it doesn't matter. However it should matter as the draw order is important. How do you (using Moq) ensure methods are called in a certain order? Edit I got rid of that test. The draw method has been removed from my unit tests. I'll just have to manually test it works. The reversing of the order though was taken into a seperate test class where it was tested so it's not all bad. Thanks for the link about the feature they are looking into. I sure hope it gets added soon, very handy.

    Read the article

  • This pagination script is doodoo - I need a better one!

    - by ClarkSKent
    Hello, I was looking at the pagination script (posted below) and found it to be gros,s and not very good at all especially when trying to customize it. This is what the main page looks like: <?php include('config.php'); $per_page = 9; //Calculating no of pages $sql = "select * from messages"; $result = mysql_query($sql); $count = mysql_num_rows($result); $pages = ceil($count/$per_page) ?> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/ libs/jquery/1.3.0/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery_pagination.js"></script> <div id="loading" ></div> <div id="content" ></div> <ul id="pagination"> <?php //Pagination Numbers for($i=1; $i<=$pages; $i++) { echo '<li id="'.$i.'">'.$i.'</li>'; } ?> </ul> The top part of the code gets the results from the mysql db and than uses this information to display the numbers in the body of this page. I am trying to put something like this on a separate page like count_page.php and then just include it. I guess my question is, if there is a better way of doing the above with better structure. A better way to go through the db and count the results and display the appropriate numbers. The above seems messy. Thanks for any help or suggestions on this.

    Read the article

  • I want to request JSON inside of a WordPress page.

    - by gnucom
    Hello Everyone, For the last few hours I've been trying to set up this http://code.google.com/apis/books/docs/dynamic-links.html on a WordPress blog. Google's API sends back a JSON response (which is supposed to be "put" into _GBSBookInfo variable). However, that variable never is assigned so my javascript callback function explodes saying the variable doesn't exist. So far, all of my javascript is in the WordPress header. I tried this outside of WordPress and it works fine. This is the static page: <script src="http://books.google.com/books?bibkeys=0307346609&jscmd=viewapi&callback=response_handler"> This is the handler: function response_handler(data) { var bookInfo = _GBSBookInfo["0307346609"]; // the var that doesn't exist document.getElementById("test123").innerHTML = bookInfo.thumbnail_url; } Thanks for any help in advance, WordPress has been extremely frustrating by limiting so much! If I'm doing anything stupid please say so, I'm a new javascript programmer. EDIT: I've used firebug so far to identify the problem to be: the _GBSBookInfo variable never gets "created" or "exists". I'm not sure how javascript works at this level. Hopefully this helps. ERRORS: Error: _GBSBookInfo is not defined Line: 79

    Read the article

  • Alternative or succesor to GDBM

    - by Anon Guy
    We a have a GDBM key-value database as the backend to a load-balanced web-facing application that is in implemented in C++. The data served by the application has grown very large, so our admins have moved the GDBM files from "local" storage (on the webservers, or very close by) to a large, shared, remote, NFS-mounted filesystem. This has affected performance. Our performance tests (in a test environment) show page load times jumping from hundreds of milliseconds (for local disk) to several seconds (over NFS, local network), and sometimes getting as high as 30 seconds. I believe a large part of the problem is that the application makes lots of random reads from the GDBM files, and that these are slow over NFS, and this will be even worse in production (where the front-end and back-end have even more network hardware between them) and as our database gets even bigger. While this is not a critical application, I would like to improve performance, and have some resources available, including the application developer time and Unix admins. My main constraint is time only have the resources for a few weeks. As I see it, my options are: Improve NFS performance by tuning parameters. My instinct is we wont get much out of this, but I have been wrong before, and I don't really know very much about NFS tuning. Move to a different key-value database, such as memcachedb or Tokyo Cabinet. Replace NFS with some other protocol (iSCSI has been mentioned, but i am not familiar with it). How should I approach this problem?

    Read the article

  • how to store/model users/faceboook users/linkedin users, etc, with ActiveRecord?

    - by crankharder
    My app has "normal" users: those which come through a typical signup page facebook(FB) users: those which come from Facebook connect "FB-normal" users: a user that can log with both email/password * FB connect Further, there's the a slew of other openID-ish login methods (I don't think openID itself will be acceptable since it doesn't link up the accounts and allow the 3rd party specific features (posting to twitter, adding a FB post, etc etc)) So, how do I model this? Right now we have User class with #facebook_user? defined -- but it gets messy with the "FB-normal" users - plus all the validations become very tricky and hard to interpret. Also, there are methods like #deliver_password_reset! which make no sense in the context for facebook-only users. (this is lame) I've thought out STI (User::Facebook, User::Normal, User::FBNormal, etc.) This makes validations super slick, but it doesn't scale to other connection types, and all the permutations between them... User::FacebookLinkedInNormal(wtf?) Doing this with a bunch of modules I think would suck a lot. Any other ideas?

    Read the article

  • Using twig variable to dynamically call an imported macro sub-function

    - by Chausser
    I am attempting if use a variable to call a specific macro name. I have a macros file that is being imported {% import 'form-elements.html.twig' as forms %} Now in that file there are all the form element macros: text, textarea, select, radio etc. I have an array variable that gets passed in that has an elements in it: $elements = array( array( 'type'=>'text, 'value'=>'some value', 'atts'=>null, ), array( 'type'=>'text, 'value'=>'some other value', 'atts'=>null, ), ); {{ elements }} what im trying to do is generate those elements from the macros. they work just fine when called by name: {{ forms.text(element.0.name,element.0.value,element.0.atts) }} However what i want to do is something like this: {% for element in elements %} {{ forms[element.type](element.name,element.value,element.atts) }} {% endfor %} I have tried the following all resulting in the same error: {{ forms["'"..element.type.."'"](element.name,element.value,element.atts) }} {{ forms.(element.type)(element.name,element.value,element.atts) }} {{ forms.{element.type}(element.name,element.value,element.atts) }} This unfortunately throws the following error: Fatal error: Uncaught exception 'LogicException' with message 'Attribute "value" does not exist for Node "Twig_Node_Expression_GetAttr".' in Twig\Environment.php on line 541 Any help or advice on a solution or a better schema to use would be very helpful.

    Read the article

  • Short names versus long names in Windows

    - by normski
    I have some code which gets the short name from a file path, using GetShortNameW(), and then later retrieves the long name view GetLongNameA(). The original file is of the form "C:/ProgramData/My Folder/File.ext" However, following conversion to short, then back to long, the filename becomes "C:/Program Files/My Folder/Filename.ext". The short name is of the form "C:/PROGRA~2/MY_FOL~1/FIL~1.EXT" The short name is being incorrectly resolved. The code compiles using VS 2005 on Windows 7 (I cannot upgrade the project to VS2008) Does anybody have any idea why this might be happening? DWORD pathLengthNeeded = ::GetShortPathNameW(aRef->GetFilePath().c_str(), NULL, 0); if(pathLengthNeeded != 0) { WCHAR* shortPath = new WCHAR[pathLengthNeeded]; DWORD newPathNameLength = ::GetShortPathNameW(aRef->GetFilePath().c_str(), shortPath, pathLengthNeeded); if(newPathNameLength != 0) { UI_STRING unicodePath(shortPath); std::string asciiPath = StringFromUserString(unicodePath); pathLengthNeeded = ::GetLongPathNameA(asciiPath.c_str(),NULL, 0); if(pathLengthNeeded != 0) {// convert it back to a long path if possible. For goodness sake can't we use Unicode throughout?F char* longPath = new char[pathLengthNeeded]; DWORD newPathNameLength = ::GetLongPathNameA(asciiPath.c_str(), longPath, pathLengthNeeded); if(newPathNameLength != 0) { std::string longPathString(longPath, newPathNameLength); asciiPath = longPathString; } delete [] longPath; } SetFullPathName(asciiPath); } delete [] shortPath; }

    Read the article

  • Script tag in ASPX page is written partially (output stopped at random)

    - by Nir
    I have an aspx page where I put a script tag with .net "if" and "else". The problem is that the output gets cut at random points each time. Sometimes it's ok, sometimes I get cropped output. The code itself (Simplified example): <body id="body" runat="server"> <form id="form1" runat="server">some HTML <script type="text/javascript"> window.addEvent('domready', function() { var x = "nothing"; <% if(someCondition){%> x = "2"; <%} else {%> x = "3"; <%}%> }); </script> </form> </body> The cropped output: <body id="body" runat="server"> <form id="form1" runat="server">some HTML <script type="text/javascript"> window.addEvent('domready', function() { var x = "nothi </script> </form> </body> Does anybody have a clue?

    Read the article

  • How do I implement "cash out" on my site using PayPal?

    - by Alex
    I have a credit system set up on my site where user A can purchase a document from user B, let's say for 1 credit and user B's account gets credited, let's say for $1. User B can then "cash out" and recieve the money they earned from my (the site's) PayPal account into their PayPal account (let's assume that their email address is valid for now). When user A purchases a credit, they are taken to PayPal where they can login and complete the purchase, for this purpose I have an IPN listener set up on my site that stores credit information to my site's database. However, I can't find a mechanism to send the "cash out" information (i.e. user's email and amount to be paid) to PayPal. To elaborate: I understand that PayPal sends the IPN when someone purchases from me, but how do I post from my site to PayPal when the user clicks the "cash out" button? I have seen mention of Mass Pay, but can't seem to locate any code samples to go from. Am I missing something, or is there perhaps a different (and better) way to do this? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How the dispose() method works in C#.net?

    - by Shailesh Jaiswal
    I am developing smart device application in C#. It is a window application. In that application I have created the 4 to 5 window form. I am navigating in these forms from one form to another form by using linklabel control in C#. In linklabel_Click() method which I am using to navigate I am using the code form1.show() according to need. I read that form1.show() method automatically calls the form1.dispose() method on the from1. I also read that once we dispose the form it is removed from memory & we can not call it again. But in my application no one form gets disposed. I can see all the form even after calling the form1.show() method. when I use the link to go once again to from1 it does not get disposed. Is anything wrong in my concept? I am new in C#. Please tell me how the dispose method work in above context? What is the use of dispose method. It will be better if you describe me above issue with example.

    Read the article

  • Google AJAX Transliteration API :- How do i translate many elements in page to some language at one

    - by Nitesh Panchal
    Hello, I have many elements on page and all of which i want to translate to some language. The language is not the same for all fields, that is, for 1st field it may be fr and for third field it may be en then again for 7th field it may be pa. Basically i wrote the code and it's working :- <script type="text/javascript"> //<![CDATA[ google.load("language", "1"); window.onload = function(){ var elemPostTitles = document.getElementsByTagName("h4"); var flag = true; for(var i = 0 ; i < elemPostTitles.length ; i++){ while(flag == false){ } var postTitleElem = elemPostTitles[i]; var postContentElem = document.getElementById("postContent_" + i); var postTitle = postTitleElem.innerHTML; var postContent = postContentElem.innerHTML; var languageCode = document.getElementById("languageCode_" + i).value; google.language.detect(postTitle, function(result) { if (!result.error && result.language) { google.language.translate(postTitle, result.language, languageCode, function(result) { flag = true; if (result.translation) { postTitleElem.innerHTML = result.translation; } }); } }); flag = false; } As you can see, what i am trying to do is restrict the loop from traversing until the result of previous ajax call is receieved. If i don't do this only the last field gets translated. My code works nicely, but because of the infinite loop, i keep getting errors from Mozilla to "stop executing scripts". How do i get rid of this? Also, is my approach correct? Or some inbuilt function is available which can ease my task? Thanks in advance :)

    Read the article

  • Why do WCF clients depend on the app.config file?

    - by routeNpingme
    Like a lot of things, I'm sure there's a good reason for this, so please help me understand... Why, by default, do WCF services store settings in app.config? This has been so frustrating trying to work with multiple Silverlight class libraries. These class libraries are supposed to be completely independent from each other, and this dependency on the app.config seems to cause the following headaches: Single Responsibility Principle - I should be able to add a reference to a class library and go. If that class library uses a service reference, this idea is shot before I even start coding against it. Muddy Configuration - To get other libraries to work, I have to copy and paste the service configurations into the "main" application configs. If an endpoint changes in any way, I can't just worry about a new version of that class DLL - I have to worry about anything that uses it, too. Complex Alternatives - Programmatically creating the endpoint isn't pretty. Period. There has to be a better way. Why doesn't WCF at least separate the service configurations into a ServiceName.config or something that gets copied to an output directory. What am I missing? How do you deal with this?

    Read the article

  • Using ASP.NET session state with Silverlight (PRISM)

    - by Jon Andersen
    Hi, The scenario: I have a PRISM application developed in Silverlight (4), and I'm using a ASP.NET server side application to host several web-services (which, in turn, accesses WCF-services, but that's not really important here). The Silverlight application must be able to call the web services cross-domain (meaning that the web services isn't necessarily on the same server hosting the silverlight application). The Silverlight application consists of several modules, each accessing the ASP.NET web-services. I do not have much experience with Silverlight and PRISM, but as far as I can see, this is not a very unusual scenario... The problem: My challange is, that when 2 different modules access the web-services, I get 2 new sessions on the web-server. I would have thought that since both modules live on the same HTML-page (and then also in the same browser session), they would get the same session on the web-server...? I have tried to make the web-service Proxy-client globally available in the container (using Unity), by registering an instance (using Container.RegisterInstance), and then getting this instance whenever a module needs to make a web-service call (using Container.Resolve), but this doesn't seem to help. However, any calls made within the same module always gets the same session on the server. Can anyone see what I'm missing here...? Thanks! Jon

    Read the article

  • How do you populate a UIImage view with ASIHTTPRequest given @2x?

    - by Jonathan Page
    I've been trying to load images from a url using ASIHTTPRequest but I always come up with a blank UIImage. I think it might have something to do with iOS automatically choosing the @2x named version of images or vica versa. [ASIHTTPRequest setDefaultCache:[ASIDownloadCache sharedCache]]; NSString *url_string = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"http://173.246.100.185/%@", [eventDictionary objectForKey:kEventDescriptionImageURLKey]]; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:url_string]; __block ASIHTTPRequest *request = [ASIHTTPRequest requestWithURL:url]; [request setDownloadCache:[ASIDownloadCache sharedCache]]; [request setCachePolicy:ASIAskServerIfModifiedCachePolicy|ASIFallbackToCacheIfLoadFailsCachePolicy]; [request setCacheStoragePolicy:ASICachePermanentlyCacheStoragePolicy]; [request setSecondsToCache:86400]; [request setDelegate:self]; [request setCompletionBlock:^{ NSLog(@"Successful Update"); [self makeAssignment]; }]; [request setFailedBlock:^{ NSError *error = [request error]; NSLog(@"%@", [error localizedDescription]); UIAlertView *alert = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Update Failed" message:[error localizedDescription] delegate:nil cancelButtonTitle:@"OK" otherButtonTitles:nil]; [alert show]; [alert release]; }]; [request startAsynchronous]; NSLog(@"%@", url_string); The makeAssignment method is below. NSString *url_string = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"http://173.246.100.185/%@", [eventDictionary objectForKey:kEventDescriptionImageURLKey]]; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:url_string]; downloadedImage = [[UIImage alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:[[ASIDownloadCache sharedCache] pathToCachedResponseDataForURL:url]]; NSLog(@"%@", downloadedImage); NSLog(@"%@", [[ASIDownloadCache sharedCache] pathToCachedResponseDataForURL:url]); Nothing I do, including naming images @2x on the server or providing both versions, gets it to load. Any ideas? Has anyone done this before? When I load them locally (from within the package) I don't have any issues. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How to obtain the panel within a treeview (WPF)

    - by sperling
    How can one obtain the panel that is used within a TreeView? I've read that by default TreeView uses a VirtualizingStackPanel for this. When I look at a TreeView template, all I see is <ItemsPresenter />, which seems to hide the details of what panel is used. Possible solutions: 1) On the treeview instance ("tv"), from code, do this: tv.ItemsPanel. The problem is, this does not return a panel, but an ItemsPanelTemplate ("gets or sets the template that defines the panel that controls the layout of the items"). 2) Make a TreeView template that explicitly replaces <ItemsPresenter /> with your own ItemsControl.ItemsPanel. I am providing a special template anyways, so this is fine in my scenario. Then give a part name to the panel that you place within that template, and from code you can obtain that part (i.e. the panel). The problem with this? see below. (I am using a control named VirtualTreeView which is derived from TreeView, as is seen below): , use following: -- [sorry folks about poor formatting here, this is my first post, I tried 4 spaces for code... doesn't seem to work?] [I stripped out all clutter here for visibility...] The problem with this is: this immediately overrides any TreeView layout mechanism. Actually, you just get a blank screen, even when you have TreeViewItems filling the tree. Well, the reason I want to get a hold of the panel is to take some part in the MeaureOverride, but without going into all of that, I certainly do not want to rewrite the book of how to layout a treeview. I.e., doing this the step #2 way seems to invalidate the point of even using a TreeView in the first place. Sorry if there is some confusion here, thanks for any help you can offer.

    Read the article

  • XmlDeserializer to handle inline lists

    - by d1k_is
    Im looking at implementing a fix in an XmlDeserializer to allow for element lists without a specific containing element. The XmlDeserializer im basing off checks for a list object type but then it gets the container element im trying to figure out how to get around this and make it work both ways. enter code here var t = type.GetGenericArguments()[0]; var list = (IList)Activator.CreateInstance(type); var container = GetElementByName(root, prop.Name.AsNamespaced(Namespace)); var first = container.Elements().FirstOrDefault(); var elements = container.Elements().Where(d => d.Name == first.Name); PopulateListFromElements(t, elements, list); prop.SetValue(x, list, null); The XML im working with is from the google weather API (forecast_conditions elements) <weather module_id="0" tab_id="0" mobile_row="0" mobile_zipped="1" row="0" section="0"> <forecast_information>...</forecast_information> <current_conditions>...</current_conditions> <forecast_conditions>...</forecast_conditions> <forecast_conditions>...</forecast_conditions> <forecast_conditions>...</forecast_conditions> </weather> EDIT: Im looking at this as an update to the RESTsharp open source .net library

    Read the article

  • Image overlapping in widget

    - by Hunt
    I am trying to create a widget in android in which when I click over image the image gets changed with a new one -- kind of toggle image. But when I click over it, the image overwrites over the old one rather then replacing the new one. I don't know whether this is the way the widget works or am I doing something wrong. My images are semi-transparent so in case one overrides another one can see the image which is being overlapped. This is the code that I have written in OnReceive by overriding it: @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent){ if (intent.getAction().equals(iAlertConstant.ACTION_WIDGET_UPDATE_FROM_WIDGET)) { RemoteViews remoteViews = new RemoteViews(context.getPackageName(),R.layout.mywidget); remoteViews.setImageViewResource(R.id.btnOnOff,R.drawable.offbtn); ComponentName thisWidget = new ComponentName(context, EmergencyWidget.class); AppWidgetManager.getInstance(context).updateAppWidget(thisWidget, remoteViews); } else super.onReceive(context, intent); } Layout <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:background="@drawable/widget_background" android:paddingLeft="10.0dip" android:paddingTop="8.0dip" android:paddingRight="10.0dip" android:paddingBottom="8.0dip" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="72dp" android:layout_marginLeft="10.0dip" android:layout_marginTop="10.0dip" android:layout_marginRight="10.0dip" android:id="@+id/emergencyWidget" android:orientation="horizontal"> <ImageView android:background="@drawable/offbtn" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_marginTop="7dp" android:layout_marginLeft="4dp" android:layout_marginRight="4dp" android:layout_gravity="right" android:id="@+id/btnOnOff" /> </LinearLayout>

    Read the article

  • Rails: Getting rid of generic "X is invalid" validation errors

    - by DJTripleThreat
    I have a sign-up form that has nested associations/attributes whatever you want to call them. My Hierarchy is this: class User < ActiveRecord::Base acts_as_authentic belongs_to :user_role, :polymorphic => true end class Customer < ActiveRecord::Base has_one :user, :as => :user_role, :dependent => :destroy accepts_nested_attributes_for :user, :allow_destroy => true validates_associated :user end class Employee < ActiveRecord::Base has_one :user, :as => :user_role, :dependent => :destroy accepts_nested_attributes_for :user, :allow_destroy => true validates_associated :user end I have some validation stuff in these classes as well. My problem is that if I try to create and Customer (or Employee etc) with a blank form I get all of the validation errors I should get plus some Generic ones like "User is invalid" and "Customer is invalid" If I iterate through the errors I get something like: user.login can't be blank User is invalid customer.whatever is blah blah blah...etc customer.some_other_error etc etc Since there is at least one invalid field in the nested User model, an extra "X is invalid" message is added to the list of errors. This gets confusing to my client and so I'm wondering if there is a quick way to do this instead of having to filer through the errors myself.

    Read the article

  • To what extent should code try to explain fatal exceptions?

    - by Andrzej Doyle
    I suspect that all non-trivial software is likely to experience situations where it hits an external problem it cannot work around and thus needs to fail. This might be due to bad configuration, an external server being down, disk full, etc. In these situations, especially if the software is running in non-interactive mode, I expect that all one can really do is log an error and wait for the admin to read the logs and fix the problem. If someone happens to interact with the software in the meantime, e.g. a request comes in to a server that failed to initialize properly, then perhaps an appropriate hint can be given to check the logs and maybe even the error can be echoed (depending on whether you can tell if they're a technical guy as opposed to a business user). For the moment though let's not think too hard about this part. My question is, to what extent should the software be responsible for trying to explain the meaning of the fatal error? In general, how much competence/knowledge are you allowed to presume on administrators of the software, and how much should you include troubleshooting information and potential resolution steps when logging fatal errors? Of course if there's something that's unique to the runtime context this should definitely be logged; but lets assume your software needs to talk to Active Directory via LDAP and gets back an error "[LDAP: error code 49 - 80090308: LdapErr: DSID-0C090334, comment: AcceptSecurityContext error, data 525, vece]". Is it reasonable to assume that the maintainers will be able to Google the error code and work out what it means, or should the software try to parse the error code and log that this is caused by an incorrect user DN in the LDAP config? I don't know if there is a definitive best-practices answer for this, so I'm keen to hear a variety of views.

    Read the article

  • Stop an executing recursive javascript function

    - by DA
    Using jQuery, I've build an image/slide rotator. The basic setup is (in pseudocode): function setupUpSlide(SlideToStartWith){ var thisSlide = SlideToStartWith; ...set things up... fadeInSlide(thisSlide) } function fadeInSlide(thisSlide){ ...fade in this slide... fadeOutSlide(thisSlide) } function fadeOutSlide(thisSlide){ ...fade out this slide... setupUpSlide(nextSlide) } I call the first function and pass in a particular slide index, and then it does its thing calling chain of functions which then, in turn, calls the first function again passing in the next index. This then repeats infinitely (resetting the index when it gets to the last item). This works just fine. What I want to do now is allow someone to over-ride the slide show by being able to click on a particular slide number. Therefore, if slide #8 is showing and I click #3, I want the recursion to stop and then call the initial function passing in slide #3, which then, in turn, will start the process again. But I'm not sure how to go about that. How does one properly 'break' a recursive script. Should I create some sort of global 'watch' variable that if at any time is 'true' will return: false and allow the new function to execute?

    Read the article

  • problems with async jquery and loops

    - by Seth Vargo
    I am so confused. I am trying to append portals to a page by looping through an array and calling a method I wrote called addModule(). The method gets called the right number of times (checked via an alert statement), in the correct order, but only one or two of the portals actually populate. I have a feeling its something with the loop and async, but it's easier explained with the code: moduleList = [['weather','test'],['test']]; for(i in moduleList) { $('#content').append(''); for(j in moduleList[i]) { addModule(i,moduleList[i][j]); //column,name } } function addModule(column,name) { alert('adding module ' + name); $.get('/modules/' + name.replace(' ','-') + '.php',function(data){ $('#'+column).append(data); }); } for each array in the main array, I append a new column, since that's what each sub-array is - a column of portals. Then I loop through that sub array and call addModule on that column and the name of that module (which works correctly). Something buggy happens in my addModule method that it only adds the first and last modules, or sometimes a middle one, or sometimes none at all... im so confused!

    Read the article

  • wmd editor, why does it keep showing html instead of just going straight to markup

    - by Ke
    hi, im wondering how wmd is supposed to work, when i type in the textarea the text doesnt have html, but once the text is stored in db it turns to html. wmd also shows all this html when reloading the content? is it supposed to work like this? Do I have to sanitize the text before its put into the db? if so how? I thought wmd doesnt deal with html? except in code blocks. Also there are p tags being added Using the beneath html it gets added directly. I guess this could cause xss attacks? - (1) <a onmouseover="alert(1)" href="#">read this!</a> - (2) <p <script>alert(1)</script>hello - (3) </td <script>alert(1)</script>hello I wonder how is wmd supposed to work? I thought it was supposed to enter everything in its own mark up, store its on mark up and retrieve it etc. instead of storing plain html Chees Ke

    Read the article

  • certain BitMapData types dont work in a beginBitmapFill() method.

    - by numerical25
    Say I loaded a bitMap into a bitmapData type called tileImage. tileImage = Bitmap(loader.content).bitmapData; say I decided to add that bitmap into a sprite like below this.graphics.beginBitmapFill(tileImage ); this.graphics.drawRect(0, 0,tWidth ,tHeight ); It would of course work. But say If I decided to add tileImage into a another bitMapData type like below var tImage:BitmapData = new BitmapData(30,30); tImage.copyPixels(tileImage,tRect,tPoint); and I then added tImage to my sprite this.graphics.beginBitmapFill(tImage); this.graphics.drawRect(0, 0,tWidth ,tHeight ); I then get the following error ArgumentError: Error #2015: Invalid BitmapData. tRect and tPoint are all predefined and set. tRect x and y are 0,0 and the width and height are 30x30. tPoint is 0,0 as well. Yes I understand that this is a very brief explanation but I wanted to elaborate that a bitMapdata type that has its data from the copypixel method does not work with beginBitmapFill. but a varible that gets its data straigt from the source, does. One works, and one doesnt, yet they are both the same data types. why is this ?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 369 370 371 372 373 374 375 376 377 378 379 380  | Next Page >