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• Who's setting TCP window size down to 0, Indy or Windows?

  - by François

  We have an application server which have been observed sending headers with TCP window size 0 at times when the network had congestion (at a client's site). We would like to know if it is Indy or the underlying Windows layer that is responsible for adjusting the TCP window size down from the nominal 64K in adaptation to the available throughput. And we would be able to act upon it becoming 0 (nothing gets send, users wait = no good). So, any info, link, pointer to Indy code are welcome... Disclaimer: I'm not a network specialist. Please keep the answer understandable for the average me ;-) Note: it's Indy9/D2007 on Windows Server 2003 SP2. More gory details: The TCP zero window cases happen on the middle tier talking to the DB server. It happens at the same moments when end users complain of slowdowns in the client application (that's what triggered the network investigation). 2 major Network issues causing bottlenecks have been identified. The TCP zero window happened when there was network congestion, but may or may not be caused by it. We want to know when that happen and have a way to do something (logging at least) in our code. So where to hook (in Indy?) to know when that condition occurs?

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• How to make ActionController::Base.asset_host and Base.relative_url_root independent?

  - by GSP

  In our Intranet environment we have a decree that common assets (stylesheets, images, etc) should be fed from Apache root while Rails apps runs from from a "sub directory" (a proxy to a Mongrel cluster). In other words: <%= stylesheet_tag '/common' %> # <link href="http://1.1.1.1/stylesheets/common.css" /> <%= link_to 'Home', :controller=>'home', :action=>'index' %> # <a href="http://1.1.1.1/myapp/" /> What I would like to do is define the assets and relative url in my configuration like this: ActionController::Base.asset_host=http://1.1.1.1 ActionController::Base.relative_url_root=/myapp But when I do this, the relative_url_root value gets appended to the asset_host value. (e.g. <link href="http://1.1.1.1/myapp/stylesheets/common.css"> ) Is there a way to stop this? And, more importantly, is there a best practice for how to deploy a rails app to an environment like this? (BTW, I don't want to simply hard code my asset paths since the development environment does not match the test and production environments.) Environment: Rails 2.3.4 Ruby 1.8.7 RedHat Linux 5.4?

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• C++ socket concurrent server

  - by gregpi

  Hi all; Im writing a concurrent server that's supposed to have a communication channel and a data channel. The client initially connect to the communication channel to authenticate, upon successful authentication, the client is then connected to the data channel to access data. My program is already doing that, and im using threads.My only issue is that if I try to connect another client, I get a "cannot bind : address already in use" error. I have it this way: PART A Client connect to port 4567 (and enter his login info). A thread spawn to handle the client(repeated for each client that connects). In the thread created, I have a function(let's call it FUNC_A) that checks the client's login info(dont worry about how the check is done), if successful, the thread starts the data server(listening on 8976) then sends an OK to the client, once received the client attempts to connect to the data server. PART B Once a client connect to the data server, from inside FUNC_A the client is accepted and another thread is spawn to handle the client's connection to the data server.(hopefully everything is clear). Now, all that is working fine. However, if I try to connect with second client when it gets to PART B I get a "cannot bind error: address already in use". I've tried so many different ways, I've even tried spawning a thread to start the data server and accept the client and then start another thread to handle that connection. still no luck. Please give me a suggestion as to what I'm doing wrong, how do I go about doing this or what's the best way to implement it. Thank you

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• Trouble with building up a string in Clojure

  - by Aki Iskandar

  Hi gang - [this may seem like my problem is with Compojure, but it isn't - it's with Clojure] I've been pulling my hair out on this seemingly simple issue - but am getting nowhere. I am playing with Compojure (a light web framework for Clojure) and I would just like to generate a web page showing showing my list of todos that are in a PostgreSQL database. The code snippets are below (left out the database connection, query, etc - but that part isn't needed because specific issue is that the resulting HTML shows nothing between the <body> and </body> tags). As a test, I tried hard-coding the string in the call to main-layout, like this: (html (main-layout "Aki's Todos" "Haircut<br>Study Clojure<br>Answer a question on Stackoverfolw")) - and it works fine. So the real issue is that I do not believe I know how to build up a string in Clojure. Not the idiomatic way, and not by calling out to Java's StringBuilder either - as I have attempted to do in the code below. A virtual beer, and a big upvote to whoever can solve it! Many thanks! ============================================================= ;The master template (a very simple POC for now, but can expand on it later) (defn main-layout "This is one of the html layouts for the pages assets - just like a master page" [title body] (html [:html [:head [:title title] (include-js "todos.js") (include-css "todos.css")] [:body body]])) (defn show-all-todos "This function will generate the todos HTML table and call the layout function" [] (let [rs (select-all-todos) sbHTML (new StringBuilder)] (for [rec rs] (.append sbHTML (str rec "<br><br>"))) (html (main-layout "Aki's Todos" (.toString sbHTML))))) ============================================================= Again, the result is a web page but with nothing between the body tags. If I replace the code in the for loop with println statements, and direct the code to the repl - forgetting about the web page stuff (ie. the call to main-layout), the resultset gets printed - BUT - the issue is with building up the string. Thanks again. ~Aki

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• Weird character at start of json content type

  - by Nek

  Hi, I'm trying to return json content read from MySQL server. This is supposed to be easy but, there is a 'weird' character that keeps appearing at start of the content. I have two pages for returning content: kcb433.sytes.net/as/test.php?json=true&limit=6&input=d this test.php is from a script written by Timothy Groves, which converts an array to json output http://kcb433.sytes.net/k.php?k=4 this one is supposed to do the same I tried to validate it here jsonformatter.curiousconcept.com but just page 1 gets validated, page 2 says that it does not contain JSON data. If accessed directly both pages has no problems. Then what is the difference, why both don't get validated? Then I found this page jsonformat.com and tried the same thing. Page 1 was ok and page 2 wasn't but, surprisingly the data could be read. At a glance, {"a":"b"} may look good but there is a character in front. According to a hex editor online, this is the value of the string above (instead of 9 values, there are 10): -- 7B 22 61 22 3A 22 62 22 7D The code to echo json in page 2 is: header("Content-Type: application/json"); echo "{\"a\":\"b\"}";

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• Pass scalar/list context to called subroutine

  - by Will

  I'm trying to write a sub that takes a coderef parameter. My sub does some initialization, calls the coderef, then does some cleanup. I need to call the coderef using the same context (scalar, list, void context) that my sub was called in. The only way I can think of is something like this: sub perform { my ($self, $code) = @_; # do some initialization... my @ret; my $ret; if (not defined wantarray) { $code->(); } elsif (wantarray) { @ret = $code->(); } else { $ret = $code->(); } # do some cleanup... if (not defined wantarray) { return; } elsif (wantarray) { return @ret; } else { return $ret; } } Obviously there's a good deal of redundancy in this code. Is there any way to reduce or eliminate any of this redundancy? EDIT   I later realized that I need to run $code->() in an eval block so that the cleanup runs even if the code dies. Adding eval support, and combining the suggestions of user502515 and cjm, here's what I've come up with. sub perform { my ($self, $code) = @_; # do some initialization... my $w = wantarray; return sub { my $error = $@; # do some cleanup... die $error if $error; # propagate exception return $w ? @_ : $_[0]; }->(eval { $w ? $code->() : scalar($code->()) }); } This gets rid of the redundancy, though unfortunately now the control flow is a little harder to follow.

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• JSP:Include not rendering the page correctly

  - by sreekanth

  am having trouble with including a jsp page with tag. This is what is happening. I making changes to a portlet application running on Websphere 7 server. This is the hierarchy of the jsp pages. blankPage.jsp --bookingViewTabs.jsp -- availableRooms.jsp meaning blankPage is included in bookingViewTabs which is inturn included in availableRooms.jsp I have 2 problems with this. (1). The blankPage.jsp does not render correctly on the screen. It gets cutoff (2). The other is in blankPage.jsp there is a form called "guestProfileSearchResultsFormId". this form has several hidden fields for data. example, "guestId" which is a child of that form and can be accessed formname.fieldname, but when i include that page into another jsp as the first include(there are several includes on the page) under the another form tag, the form field is not being rendered as a child of the form, but as a sibling of the form. If i change the order and include some other page and include this, it is working as it is supposed to have. meaning with children intact. I don't understand this behavior. I HAVE ATTACHED A GIF IMAGE OF WHAT I SEE ON THE BROWSER Any help is greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance

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• Javascript Getting Objects to Fallback to One Another

  - by Ian

  Here's a ugly bit of Javascript it would be nice to find a workaround. Javascript has no classes, and that is a good thing. But it implements fallback between objects in a rather ugly way. The foundational construct should be to have one object that, when a property fails to be found, it falls back to another object. So if we want a to fall back to b we would want to do something like: a = {sun:1}; b = {dock:2}; a.__fallback__ = b; then a.dock == 2; But, Javascript instead provides a new operator and prototypes. So we do the far less elegant: function A(sun) { this.sun = sun; }; A.prototype.dock = 2; a = new A(1); a.dock == 2; But aside from elegance, this is also strictly less powerful, because it means that anything created with A gets the same fallback object. What I would like to do is liberate Javascript from this artificial limitation and have the ability to give any individual object any other individual object as its fallback. That way I could keep the current behavior when it makes sense, but use object-level inheritance when that makes sense. My initial approach is to create a dummy constructor function: function setFallback(from_obj, to_obj) { from_obj.constructor = function () {}; from_obj.constructor.prototype = to_obj; } a = {sun:1}; b = {dock:2}; setFallback(a, b); But unfortunately: a.dock == undefined; Any ideas why this doesn't work, or any solutions for an implementation of setFallback? (I'm running on V8, via node.js, in case this is platform dependent)

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• Refresh table after using jQuery .append()

  - by Aaron Salazar

  The following code gets a JSON object and then spits its contents out into a <table>. The first time I do it I get my JSON content just fine. However, when I refresh, the refreshed data is stuck onto the bottom of my table. How do I refresh the data to show the new data only? I tried using .remove() but there was an obvious deleting and then a refresh of data. $(function() { $('#ReportedIssue').change(function() { //$('.data').remove() $.getJSON('/CurReport/GetUpdatedTableResults', function(json) { for (var i = 0; i < json.GetDocumentResults.length; i++) { $('#DocumentInfoTable').append( "<tr class='data'>" + "<td>" + json.GetDocumentResults[i].Document.DocumentId + "</td>" + "<td>" + json.GetDocumentResults[i].Document.LanguageCode + "</td>" + "<td>" + json.GetDocumentResults[i].ReportedIssue + "</td>" + "<td>" + json.GetDocumentResults[i].PageNumber + "</td>" + "</tr>" ); }; }); }); }); Thank you, Aaron

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• When does the call() method get called in a Java Executor using Callable objects?

  - by MalcomTucker

  This is some sample code from an example. What I need to know is when call() gets called on the callable? What triggers it? public class CallableExample { public static class WordLengthCallable implements Callable { private String word; public WordLengthCallable(String word) { this.word = word; } public Integer call() { return Integer.valueOf(word.length()); } } public static void main(String args[]) throws Exception { ExecutorService pool = Executors.newFixedThreadPool(3); Set<Future<Integer>> set = new HashSet<Future<Integer>>(); for (String word: args) { Callable<Integer> callable = new WordLengthCallable(word); Future<Integer> future = pool.submit(callable); //**DOES THIS CALL call()?** set.add(future); } int sum = 0; for (Future<Integer> future : set) { sum += future.get();//**OR DOES THIS CALL call()?** } System.out.printf("The sum of lengths is %s%n", sum); System.exit(sum); } }

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• jQuery when div is clicked update input field issue

  - by stogdilla

  Hello, I'm rather new to jquery so this may be the issue. I have a script that outputs several divs all with different text data in them. I would like it when I click one of them that an input field's value is updated to that text currently I have: <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.1/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("a.results]").click(function() { data= this.text(); $("#updateme").val(data); }); }); </script> <p> <label>Field <input type="text" name="updateme" id="updateme"> </label> </p> <a href="#" class="results">Florida</a> <a href="#" class="results">Florida 2</a> <a href="#" class="results">Florida 3</a> How can I make it so that whatever link is clicked that is the data that gets updated into the input's value? I can get it to take one or I can script out different cases of each changing the class name but I think there has to be a way where it references whatever link is being clicked instead of what it's currently doing. Thanks in advance!

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• Radiobutton in iphone

  - by Harita

  hi, i am using radio button image (empty circle) in button to answer the question from 3 options, and the 3 options are radio button's. i have created 3 uibuttons programmatically in tableview delegate method cellforrowatindexpath. i need when one button is selected(with filled circle image) other one if selected before gets unselected. i am using below code in button clicked method. static int _row; -(IBAction) optionClicked:(id)sender { UIButton *btn = (UIButton)sender; _row = btn.tag; if (btn.tag == 0) { if(btn1On) { [btnrad1 setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"unfilled.png"]forState:UIControlStateNormal]; btn1On=FALSE; } else { [btnrad1 setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"filled.png"]forState:UIControlStateNormal]; btn1On = TRUE; btn2On = FALSE; btn3On = FALSE; } } else if (btn.tag == 1) { if(btn2On) { [btnrad2 setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"unfilled.png"]forState:UIControlStateNormal]; btn2On=FALSE; } else { [btnrad2 setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"filled.png"]forState:UIControlStateNormal]; btn2On = TRUE; btn1On = FALSE; btn3On = FALSE; } } else if (btn.tag == 2) { if(btn3On) { [btnrad3 setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"unfilled.png"]forState:UIControlStateNormal]; btn3On=FALSE; } else { [btnrad3 setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"filled.png"]forState:UIControlStateNormal]; btn3On = TRUE; btn1On = FALSE; btn2On = FALSE; } } else { NSLog(@"Error"); } } above code is doing selection of button in another row. like i am selecting 1st option in 1st row but its is selecting 2nd row button. i don't know how to use _row to check for every cell of table view.

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• How do I set Perl's @INC for a CGI script?

  - by pistacchio

  I have the follwing, simplest Perl CGI script: use strict; use warnings; use CGI(); use CGI::Carp qw(fatalsToBrowser); use Template; print CGI::header(); foreach(@INC) { print "$_\n"; } When called (http://[..]/cgi-bin/p.cgi) I am given the following error: Can't locate Template.pm in @INC (@INC contains: /usr/lib/perl5/site_perl/5.8.8/i386-linux-thread-multi /usr/lib/perl5/site_perl/5.8.8 /usr/lib/perl5/site_perl /usr/lib/perl5/vendor_perl/5.8.8/i386-linux-thread-multi /usr/lib/perl5/vendor_perl/5.8.8 /usr/lib/perl5/vendor_perl /usr/lib/perl5/5.8.8/i386-linux-thread-multi /usr/lib/perl5/5.8.8 .) at /home/pistacchio/webapps/htdocs/cgi-bin/p.cgi line 8. BEGIN failed--compilation aborted at /home/pistacchio/webapps/htdocs/cgi-bin/p.cgi line 8. I made sure that Template is installed and indeed when running this program from shell it works (loads Template) and outputs: Content-Type: text/html; charset=ISO-8859-1 /home/pistacchio/lib/perl5 /home/pistacchio/lib/perl5/lib/i386-linux-thread-multi /home/pistacchio/lib/perl5/lib /home/pistacchio/lib/perl5/lib/i386-linux-thread-multi /usr/lib/perl5/site_perl/5.8.8/i386-linux-thread-multi /usr/lib/perl5/site_perl/5.8.8 /usr/lib/perl5/site_perl /usr/lib/perl5/vendor_perl/5.8.8/i386-linux-thread-multi /usr/lib/perl5/vendor_perl/5.8.8 /usr/lib/perl5/vendor_perl /usr/lib/perl5/5.8.8/i386-linux-thread-multi /usr/lib/perl5/5.8.8 Template is installed in /home/pistacchio/lib/perl5/lib/i386-linux-thread-multi [pistacchio@web118 i386-linux-thread-multi]$ pwd /home/pistacchio/lib/perl5/lib/i386-linux-thread-multi [pistacchio@web118 i386-linux-thread-multi]$ ls auto perllocal.pod Template Template.pm This directory is correctly listed in env and, as previously posted, in @INC. In @INC it is shown twice, so I even tried to pop it out before calling use Template, but without result. From env: [pistacchio@web118 i386-linux-thread-multi]$ env [..] PERL5LIB=/home/pistacchio/lib/perl5:/home/pistacchio/lib/perl5/lib:/home/pistacchio/lib/perl5/lib/i386-linux-thread-multi [..] Removing use Template gets rid of the problem.

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• Sorting and Pagination does not work after I build a custom keyword search that is build using relat

  - by Roland

  I recently started to build a custom keyword search using Yii 1.1.x The search works 100%. But as soon as I sort the columns and use pagination in the admin view the search gets lost and all results are shown. So with otherwords it's not filtering so that only the search results show. Somehow it resets it. In my controller my code looks as follows $builder=Messages::model()->getCommandBuilder(); //Table1 Columns $columns1=array('0'=>'id','1'=>'to','2'=>'from','3'=>'message','4'=>'error_code','5'=>'date_send'); //Table 2 Columns $columns2=array('0'=>'username'); //building the Keywords $keywords = explode(' ',$_REQUEST['search']); $count=0; foreach($keywords as $key){ $kw[$count]=$key; ++$count; } $keywords=$kw; $condition1=$builder->createSearchCondition(Messages::model()->tableName(),$columns1,$keywords,$prefix='t.'); $condition2=$builder->createSearchCondition(Users::model()->tableName(),$columns2,$keywords); $condition = substr($condition1,0,-1) . " OR ".substr($condition2,1); $condition = str_replace('AND','OR',$condition); $dataProvider=new CActiveDataProvider('Messages', array( 'pagination'=>array( 'pageSize'=>self::PAGE_SIZE, ), 'criteria'=>array( 'with'=>'users', 'together'=>true, 'joinType'=>'LEFT JOIN', 'condition'=>$condition, ), 'sort'=>$sort, )); $this->render('admin',array( 'dataProvider'=>$dataProvider,'keywords'=>implode(' ',$keywords),'sort'=>$sort )); and my view looks like this $this->widget('zii.widgets.grid.CGridView', array( 'dataProvider'=>$dataProvider, 'columns'=>array( 'id', array( 'name'=>'user_id', 'value'=>'CHtml::encode(Users::model()->getReseller($data->user_id))', 'visible'=>Yii::app()->user->checkAccess('poweradministrator') ), 'to', 'from', 'message', /* 'date_send', */ array( 'name'=>'error_code', 'value'=>'CHtml::encode($data->status($data->error_code))', ), array( 'class'=>'CButtonColumn', 'template'=>'{view} {delete}', ), ), )); I really do not know what do do anymore since I'm terribly lost, any help will be hihsly appreciated

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• How do I detect proximity of the mouse pointer to a line in Flex?

  - by Hanno Fietz

  I'm working on a charting UI in Flex. One of the features I want to implement is "snapping" of the mousepointer to the data points in the diagram. I. e., if the user hovers the mouse pointer over a line diagram and gets close to the data point, I want the pointer to move to the exact coordinates and show a marker, like this: Currently, the lines are drawn on a Shape, using the Graphics API. The Shape is a child DisplayObject of a custom UIComponent subclass with the exact same dimensions. This means, I already get mouseOver events on the parent of the diagram's canvas. Now I need a way to detect if the pointer is close to one of the data points. I. e. I need an answer to the question "Which data points lie within a radius of x pixels from my current position and which of them is closest?" upon each move of the mouse. I can think of the following possibilities: draw the lines not as simple lines in the graphics API, but as more advanced objects that can have their own mouseOver events. However, I want the snapping to trigger before the mouse is actually over the line. check the original data for possible candidates upon each mouse movement. Using binary search, I might be able to reduce the number of items I have to compare sufficently. prepare some kind of new data structure from the raw data that makes the above search more efficient. I don't know how that would look like. I'm guessing this is a pretty standard problem for a number of applications, but probably the actual code usually is inside of some framework. Is there anything I can read about this topic?

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• Global javascript variable not accessible in jquery change event

  - by Dan

  I have to be missing something simple, but I'm really not sure what. I'm not a JS veteran, so this may be an easy answer - sure hope so :). I have a button that, when clicked, gets JSON data. When a drop-down is changed, I check to see if there is data, if there is, I want to clear it out as the drop-down indicates what data to retrieve when the button is clicked The Code: var selected, $locDialog; var locations = []; $(function() { // Save the selected Name selected = $("#selected option:selected").val(); // Setup Dialog for Locations $locDialog = $('#location-dialog').dialog({ autoOpen: false }); // If user changes the selected // 1. Prompt for confirmation // 2. If users confirms, clear data $('#selected').change(function() { if (locations) { var confirmed = confirm("Oh Rly?"); if (confirmed) { // Clear data var locations; } } }); // When user clicks "Location" Button.. $('.loc-select button').click(function() { if (!locations) { $.getJSON("/Controller/JSONAction", { selectedId: selected, pageNum: 1, pageSize: 100 }, function(data) { locations = data; $.each(locations, function(index, loc) { var $tr = $('<tr/>') .append($('<td/>') .append('<input type="checkbox" name="TEST-'+index+'" value="'+loc.Id+'"/>')) .append('<td>' + loc.Name + '</td>'); $("#location-dialog table tbody").append($tr); }); }); } $locDialog.dialog('open'); return false; }); }); Here's the thing, Inside the .click(...) callback, I can see locations is []. Now, when I am in the .change(...) callback, I see locations is undefined. Any help/insight, as always, is appreciated!

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• Having trouble hiding keyboard using invisible button which sits on top of uiscrollview

  - by phil

  I have 3 items in play... 1) UIView sits at the base of the hierarchy and contains the UIScrollview. 2) UIScrollview that is presenting a lengthy user form. 3) An invisible button on the UIScrollview that I'm using to provide "hide the keyboard" features. Notice in the code below that I'm registering to be notified when the keyboard is going to appear and again when it's going to disappear. These are working great. My problem is seemingly one of "layers". See below where I insert the button into the view atIndex:0. This causes the button to be activated and "stuffed" behind the scrollview so that when you click on it, the scrollview grabs the touch and the button is unaware. There is no way to "reach" the button and suppress the keyboard. However, if I insert atIndex:1, the button gets super imposed on top of the text entry fields and so any touch at all is acted upon by the button, which immediately suppresses the keyboard and then disappears. How do I insert the button on top of the UIScrollview but behind the UITextfields that sit there? other logistics: I have a -(void) hidekeyboard function that I have setup with the UIButtion as an IBAction(). And I have the UIButton connected to "files owner" via a ctrl-drag/drop. (Do I need both of those conventions?) This code in ViewDidLoad()... [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserverForName:UIKeyboardWillShowNotification object:nil queue:nil usingBlock:^(NSNotification *notification){ [self.view insertSubview:self.keyboardDismissalButton atIndex:0]; }];

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• Deal with undefined values in code or in the template?

  - by David

  I'm writing a web application (in Python, not that it matters). One of the features is that people can leave comments on things. I have a class for comments, basically like so: class Comment: user = ... # other stuff where user is an instance of another class, class User: name = ... # other stuff And of course in my template, I have <div>${comment.user.name}</div> Problem: Let's say I allow people to post comments anonymously. In that case comment.user is None (undefined), and of course accessing comment.user.name is going to raise an error. What's the best way to deal with that? I see three possibilities: Use a conditional in the template to test for that case and display something different. This is the most versatile solution, since I can change the way anonymous comments are displayed to, say, "Posted anonymously" (instead of "Posted by ..."), but I've often been told that templates should be mindless display machines and not include logic like that. Also, other people might wind up writing alternate templates for the same application, and I feel like I should be making things as easy as possible for the template writer. Implement an accessor method for the user property of a Comment that returns a dummy user object when the real user is undefined. This dummy object would have user.name = 'Anonymous' or something like that and so the template could access it and print its name with no error. Put an actual record in my database corresponding to a user with user.name = Anonymous (or something like that), and just assign that user to any comment posted when nobody's logged in. I know I've seen some real-world systems that operate this way. (phpBB?) Is there a prevailing wisdom among people who write these sorts of systems about which of these (or some other solution) is the best? Any pitfalls I should watch out for if I go one way vs. another? Whoever gives the best explanation gets the checkmark.

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• ASP.NET MVC Unit Testing Controllers - Repositories

  - by Brian McCord

  This is more of an opinion seeking question, so there may not be a "right" answer, but I would welcome arguments as to why your answer is the "right" one. Given an MVC application that is using Entity Framework for the persistence engine, a repository layer, a service layer that basically defers to the repository, and a delete method on a controller that looks like this: public ActionResult Delete(State model) { try { if( model == null ) { return View( model ); } _stateService.Delete( model ); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } catch { return View( model ); } } I am looking for the proper way to Unit Test this. Currently, I have a fake repository that gets used in the service, and my unit test looks like this: [TestMethod] public void Delete_Post_Passes_With_State_4() { //Arrange var stateService = GetService(); var stateController = new StateController( stateService ); ViewResult result = stateController.Delete( 4 ) as ViewResult; var model = (State)result.ViewData.Model; //Act RedirectToRouteResult redirectResult = stateController.Delete( model ) as RedirectToRouteResult; stateController = new StateController( stateService ); var newresult = stateController.Delete( 4 ) as ViewResult; var newmodel = (State)newresult.ViewData.Model; //Assert Assert.AreEqual( redirectResult.RouteValues["action"], "Index" ); Assert.IsNull( newmodel ); } Is this overkill? Do I need to check to see if the record actually got deleted (as I already have Service and Repository tests that verify this)? Should I even use a fake repository here or would it make more sense just to mock the whole thing? The examples I'm looking at used this model of doing things, and I just copied it, but I'm really open to doing things in a "best practices" way. Thanks.

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• How to exclude rows where matching join is in an SQL tree

  - by Greg K

  Sorry for the poor title, I couldn't think how to concisely describe this problem. I have a set of items that should have a 1-to-1 relationship with an attribute. I have a query to return those rows where the data is wrong and this relationship has been broken (1-to-many). I'm gathering these rows to fix them and restore this 1-to-1 relationship. This is a theoretical simplification of my actual problem but I'll post example table schema here as it was requested. item table: +------------+------------+-----------+ | item_id | name | attr_id | +------------+------------+-----------+ | 1 | BMW 320d | 20 | | 1 | BMW 320d | 21 | | 2 | BMW 335i | 23 | | 2 | BMW 335i | 34 | +------------+------------+-----------+ attribute table: +---------+-----------------+------------+ | attr_id | value | parent_id | +---------+-----------------+------------+ | 20 | SE | 21 | | 21 | M Sport | 0 | | 23 | AC | 24 | | 24 | Climate control | 0 | .... | 34 | Leather seats | 0 | +---------+-----------------+------------+ A simple query to return items with more than one attribute. SELECT item_id, COUNT(DISTINCT(attr_id)) AS attributes FROM item GROUP BY item_id HAVING attributes > 1 This gets me a result set like so: +-----------+------------+ | item_id | attributes | +-----------+------------+ | 1 | 2 | | 2 | 2 | | 3 | 2 | -- etc. -- However, there's an exception. The attribute table can hold a tree structure, via parent links in the table. For certain rows, parent_id can hold the ID of another attribute. There's only one level to this tree. Example: +---------+-----------------+------------+ | attr_id | value | parent_id | +---------+-----------------+------------+ | 20 | SE | 21 | | 21 | M Sport | 0 | .... I do not want to retrieve items in my original query where, for a pair of associated attributes, they related like attributes 20 & 21. I do want to retrieve items where: the attributes have no parent for two or more attributes they are not related (e.g. attributes 23 & 34) Example result desired, just the item ID: +------------+ | item_id | +------------+ | 2 | +------------+ How can I join against attributes from items and exclude these rows? Do I use a temporary table or can I achieve this from a single query? Thanks.

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• Word forms with too many ActiveX checkboxes load slowly.

  - by Luke

  Hi there, my company's software product has a feature that allows users to generate forms from Word templates. The program auto fills some fields from the SQL database and the user can fill in other data that they desire. So we have a .dotx template that holds the design of the form, and then the user gets the .docx file to fill out when they call it from our program. The problem we're having is that some of our users have been finding that the forms take an exceptionally long time to open up and then, once open, are so slow to respond (scroll around, etc) that they're unusable. So in my investigations so far, I've found out that the problem systems are one with lower powered CPUs (unfortunately it happens for systems above our system requirements) and the Word forms that cause the problems are ones with large amount of ActiveX style checkboxes on them. I verified that reducing the ActiveX checkboxes fixes the form loading problems. So I have the following questions about solutions (we're using Word 2007): 1) Is there any way to configure Word, or some other settings, so that there won't be such a strain opening a Word form with lots of ActiveX checkboxes? Any way of speeding up Word's opening? 2) Using Legacy style checkboxes instead of the ActiveX ones makes the forms load fine, but it looks like the user has to double-click the checkbox and change Default Value-Checked. Is there a way to configure it so that they can simply click on the checkbox to tick it? "Legacy Forms" checkbox as a name kind of worries me (Legacy…), does that mean a future version of word at some point wouldn't load the checkboxes because they're "legacy"? 3) Yes, it became clear to me after a little bit of research into solutions that Word is not the tool for the job for forms like I'm describing. InfoPath seems to be exactly what we should have been using all along but unfortunately I wasn't involved in the decision making or development of these forms, just tasked with coming up with a solution. I'd appreciate answers to any of these, or if anyone has any other ideas for solutions to this problem. Thanks

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• Program to find the result of primitive recursive functions

  - by alphomega

  I'm writing a program to solve the result of primitive recursive functions: 1 --Basic functions------------------------------ 2 3 --Zero function 4 z :: Int -> Int 5 z = \_ -> 0 6 7 --Successor function 8 s :: Int -> Int 9 s = \x -> (x + 1) 10 11 --Identity/Projection function generator 12 idnm :: Int -> Int -> ([Int] -> Int) 13 idnm n m = \(x:xs) -> ((x:xs) !! (m-1)) 14 15 --Constructors-------------------------------- 16 17 --Composition constructor 18 cn :: ([Int] -> Int) -> [([Int] -> Int)] -> ([Int] -> Int) 19 cn f [] = \(x:xs) -> f 20 cn f (g:gs) = \(x:xs) -> (cn (f (g (x:xs))) gs) these functions and constructors are defined here: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Primitive_recursive_function The issue is with my attempt to create the compositon constructor, cn. When it gets to the base case, f is no longer a partial application, but a result of the function. Yet the function expects a function as the first argument. How can I deal with this problem? Thanks.

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• AJAX AutoCompletExtender doesn't allow to move ahead of first item with arrow-key

  - by dharmbhav

  Hi, I am using an AJAX AutoCompleteExtender to display a list of suburbs-postcodes after the user presses 3 keys in the given textbox. The problem is that on the page, I can't move my selection below the first item (with down arrow key/mouse). However with mouse if I click on any item, it gets selected. <asp:TextBox ID="txtPostalSuburb" runat="server" CssClass="select_insert_menu_text1" MaxLength="40" TabIndex="9"></asp:TextBox> <cc1:AutoCompleteExtender ID="txtPostalSuburb_AutoCompleteExtender" runat="server" DelimiterCharacters="" Enabled="True" ServicePath="~/Web/Common/ListingService.asmx" TargetControlID="txtPostalSuburb" UseContextKey="False" ServiceMethod="GetSuburbList" MinimumPrefixLength="3" CompletionListCssClass="contact-details-suggestion-list" OnClientItemSelected="AutoCompleteExtender_ItemSelected" CompletionListItemCssClass="contact-details-suggestion-list-item" > </cc1:AutoCompleteExtender> CSS: .contact-details-suggestion-list { background-color: window; color: windowtext; cursor: default; list-style-image: none; list-style-position: outside; list-style-type: none; padding:0px; text-align: left; border: solid 1px #005883; margin-top: 0px; font-size: 10px; } .contact-details-suggestion-list-item { border-bottom: dotted 1px black; } Any help is appreciated. Thanks

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• SQL Server race condition issue with range lock

  - by Freek

  I'm implementing a queue in SQL Server (please no discussions about this) and am running into a race condition issue. The T-SQL of interest is the following: set transaction isolation level serializable begin tran declare @RecordId int declare @CurrentTS datetime2 set @CurrentTS=CURRENT_TIMESTAMP select top 1 @RecordId=Id from QueuedImportJobs with (updlock) where Status=@Status and (LeaseTimeout is null or @CurrentTS>LeaseTimeout) order by Id asc if @@ROWCOUNT> 0 begin update QueuedImportJobs set LeaseTimeout = DATEADD(mi,5,@CurrentTS), LeaseTicket=newid() where Id=@RecordId select * from QueuedImportJobs where Id = @RecordId end commit tran RecordId is the PK and there is also an index on Status,LeaseTimeout. What I'm basically doing is select a record of which the lease happens to be expired, while simultaneously updating the lease time with 5 minutes and setting a new lease ticket. So the problem is that I'm getting deadlocks when I run this code in parallel using a couple of threads. I've debugged it up to the point where I found out that the update statement sometimes gets executing twice for the same record. Now, I was under the impression that the with (updlock) should prevent this (it also happens with xlock btw, not with tablockx). So it actually look like there is a RangeS-U and a RangeX-X lock on the same range of records, which ought to be impossible. So what am I missing? I'm thinking it might have something to do with the top 1 clause or that SQL Server does not know that where Id=@RecordId is actually in the locked range? Deadlock graph: Table schema (simplified):

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• Passing javascript object to webservice via Jquery ajax

  - by kralco626

  I have a webservice that returns an object [WebMethod] public List<User> ContractorApprovals() I also have a webservice that accepcts an object [WebMethod] public bool SaveContractor(Object u) When I make my webservice calls via Jquery: function ServiceCall(method, parameters, onSucess, onFailure) { var parms = "{" + (($.isArray(parameters)) ? parameters.join(',') : parameters) + "}"; // to json $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "services/"+method, data: parms, contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(msg) { if (typeof onSucess == 'function' || typeof onSucess == 'object') onSucess(msg.d); }, error: function(msg, err) { $("#dialog-error").dialog('open');} }); I can call the first one just fine. My onSucess function gets passed a javascript object exactly structured like my User object on the service. However, I am now having trouble getting the object back to the server. I'm accepting Object as a parameter on the server side so I can't inagine there is an issue there. So I'm thinking something is wrong with the parms on the client side but i'm not sure what... I am doing something to the effect ServiceCall("AuthorizationManagerWorkManagement.asmx/ContractorApprovals", "", function(data,args){$("#div").data('user',data[0])}, null) then ServiceCall("AuthorizationManagerWorkManagement.asmx/SaveContractor", $("#div").data('user'), //These also do not work: "{'u': ' + $("#div").data("user") + '}", NOR JSON.stringify({u: userObject}) function(data,args){(alert(data)}, null) I know the first service call works, I can get the data. The second one is causing the "onFailure" method to execute rather then "OnSuccess". Any ideas?

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