Search Results

Search found 11954 results on 479 pages for 'gets'.

Page 378/479 | < Previous Page | 374 375 376 377 378 379 380 381 382 383 384 385  | Next Page >

  • Euler Project Help (Problem 12) - Prime Factors and the like

    - by Richie_W
    I hate to have to ask, but I'm pretty stuck here. I need to test a sequence of numbers to find the first which has over 500 factors: http://projecteuler.net/index.php?section=problems&id=12 -At first I attempted to brute force the answer (finding a number with 480 after a LONG time) -I am now looking at determining the prime factors of a number and then use them to find all other factors. I am currently at the stage where I can get an array of prime factors for any number I input - i.e 300 has the prime factors 2 2 3 5 5 Using this array of prime factors I need to be able to calculate the remaining factors - This is the part I am stuck on. Basically, as I understand it, I need to calculate ALL possible combinations of the numbers in the array... i.e 2 * 2 2 * 2 * 3 2 * 2 * 3 * 5 2 * 3 2 * 3 * 3 ...and so forth - But where it gets interesting is with things like... 2 * 5 2 * 3 * 5 ...i.e Numbers which are not adjacent to each other in the array I can't think of a way to code this in a generic fashion for any length array... I need help! P.S - I am working in Java EDIT: My brute force code - As it has been suggested brute forcing the problem will work and so there may be an error in my code :( package euler.problem12; public class Solution { public static void main(String[] args) { int next = 1; int triangle = 0; int maxFactors = 0; while(true) { triangle = triangle + next; int factors = 1; int max = (int) triangle / 2; for(int i = 1; i <= max; ++i) { if(triangle % i == 0) { factors ++; } } if(factors > maxFactors) { maxFactors = factors; System.out.println(triangle + "\t" + factors); } next++; } } }

    Read the article

  • How can I share an entity framework model across website users

    - by richardmoss
    Hello, Currently my website is based around MVC and the Entity Framework running against a SQL Server 2005 database. So far, it has all been running very smoothly, and I really enjoy MVC and its slimmer more concise code (and no huge viewstates or soul destroying postbacks ;)) Recently I was working on upgrading the site to use a simple forum system, and this is where I started running into problems. When I was testing the site using two different browsers, if I created or replied to a post in one browser, the other browser couldn't see the post. At the moment, each visitor to the site gets their own copy of the entity model, which I store in their session data. Obviously this is the problem as updates to one model aren't getting carried to the other. As a test, I tried storing a single copy of the model which all visitors would access by assigning the model to a static variable. This worked, and both browsers could see each others modifications. However, it had its side effects. For example, if I fired up both browsers at the same time and the model was initialized, one browser would crash, and the other would work fine, despite me using a locking object so in theory one of them should have been delayed until the model was ready (of course I could have implemented this wrong ;)). Also, originally this site did use one model for all visitors and when it was live, it frequently shut down - killing the IIS application pool while it did. Now I'm not sure if this was related, but I don't really want to reintroduce whatever bug I had that caused this shut down. So, my question is a simple one really - what is the best way of either using the same model for all website users so they all see updates, or if they do have separate copies (which I imagine will have a performance impact in time) how can the models detect changes in the database and update themselves according. Thanks in advance for any advice! Regards; Richard Moss

    Read the article

  • How to exclude rows where matching join is in an SQL tree

    - by Greg K
    Sorry for the poor title, I couldn't think how to concisely describe this problem. I have a set of items that should have a 1-to-1 relationship with an attribute. I have a query to return those rows where the data is wrong and this relationship has been broken (1-to-many). I'm gathering these rows to fix them and restore this 1-to-1 relationship. This is a theoretical simplification of my actual problem but I'll post example table schema here as it was requested. item table: +------------+------------+-----------+ | item_id | name | attr_id | +------------+------------+-----------+ | 1 | BMW 320d | 20 | | 1 | BMW 320d | 21 | | 2 | BMW 335i | 23 | | 2 | BMW 335i | 34 | +------------+------------+-----------+ attribute table: +---------+-----------------+------------+ | attr_id | value | parent_id | +---------+-----------------+------------+ | 20 | SE | 21 | | 21 | M Sport | 0 | | 23 | AC | 24 | | 24 | Climate control | 0 | .... | 34 | Leather seats | 0 | +---------+-----------------+------------+ A simple query to return items with more than one attribute. SELECT item_id, COUNT(DISTINCT(attr_id)) AS attributes FROM item GROUP BY item_id HAVING attributes > 1 This gets me a result set like so: +-----------+------------+ | item_id | attributes | +-----------+------------+ | 1 | 2 | | 2 | 2 | | 3 | 2 | -- etc. -- However, there's an exception. The attribute table can hold a tree structure, via parent links in the table. For certain rows, parent_id can hold the ID of another attribute. There's only one level to this tree. Example: +---------+-----------------+------------+ | attr_id | value | parent_id | +---------+-----------------+------------+ | 20 | SE | 21 | | 21 | M Sport | 0 | .... I do not want to retrieve items in my original query where, for a pair of associated attributes, they related like attributes 20 & 21. I do want to retrieve items where: the attributes have no parent for two or more attributes they are not related (e.g. attributes 23 & 34) Example result desired, just the item ID: +------------+ | item_id | +------------+ | 2 | +------------+ How can I join against attributes from items and exclude these rows? Do I use a temporary table or can I achieve this from a single query? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • NoSQL for filesystem storage organization and replication?

    - by wheaties
    We've been discussing design of a data warehouse strategy within our group for meeting testing, reproducibility, and data syncing requirements. One of the suggested ideas is to adapt a NoSQL approach using an existing tool rather than try to re-implement a whole lot of the same on a file system. I don't know if a NoSQL approach is even the best approach to what we're trying to accomplish but perhaps if I describe what we need/want you all can help. Most of our files are large, 50+ Gig in size, held in a proprietary, third-party format. We need to be able to access each file by a name/date/source/time/artifact combination. Essentially a key-value pair style look-up. When we query for a file, we don't want to have to load all of it into memory. They're really too large and would swamp our server. We want to be able to somehow get a reference to the file and then use a proprietary, third-party API to ingest portions of it. We want to easily add, remove, and export files from storage. We'd like to set up automatic file replication between two servers (we can write a script for this.) That is, sync the contents of one server with another. We don't need a distributed system where it only appears as if we have one server. We'd like complete replication. We also have other smaller files that have a tree type relationship with the Big files. One file's content will point to the next and so on, and so on. It's not a "spoked wheel," it's a full blown tree. We'd prefer a Python, C or C++ API to work with a system like this but most of us are experienced with a variety of languages. We don't mind as long as it works, gets the job done, and saves us time. What you think? Is there something out there like this?

    Read the article

  • Sorting and Pagination does not work after I build a custom keyword search that is build using relat

    - by Roland
    I recently started to build a custom keyword search using Yii 1.1.x The search works 100%. But as soon as I sort the columns and use pagination in the admin view the search gets lost and all results are shown. So with otherwords it's not filtering so that only the search results show. Somehow it resets it. In my controller my code looks as follows $builder=Messages::model()->getCommandBuilder(); //Table1 Columns $columns1=array('0'=>'id','1'=>'to','2'=>'from','3'=>'message','4'=>'error_code','5'=>'date_send'); //Table 2 Columns $columns2=array('0'=>'username'); //building the Keywords $keywords = explode(' ',$_REQUEST['search']); $count=0; foreach($keywords as $key){ $kw[$count]=$key; ++$count; } $keywords=$kw; $condition1=$builder->createSearchCondition(Messages::model()->tableName(),$columns1,$keywords,$prefix='t.'); $condition2=$builder->createSearchCondition(Users::model()->tableName(),$columns2,$keywords); $condition = substr($condition1,0,-1) . " OR ".substr($condition2,1); $condition = str_replace('AND','OR',$condition); $dataProvider=new CActiveDataProvider('Messages', array( 'pagination'=>array( 'pageSize'=>self::PAGE_SIZE, ), 'criteria'=>array( 'with'=>'users', 'together'=>true, 'joinType'=>'LEFT JOIN', 'condition'=>$condition, ), 'sort'=>$sort, )); $this->render('admin',array( 'dataProvider'=>$dataProvider,'keywords'=>implode(' ',$keywords),'sort'=>$sort )); and my view looks like this $this->widget('zii.widgets.grid.CGridView', array( 'dataProvider'=>$dataProvider, 'columns'=>array( 'id', array( 'name'=>'user_id', 'value'=>'CHtml::encode(Users::model()->getReseller($data->user_id))', 'visible'=>Yii::app()->user->checkAccess('poweradministrator') ), 'to', 'from', 'message', /* 'date_send', */ array( 'name'=>'error_code', 'value'=>'CHtml::encode($data->status($data->error_code))', ), array( 'class'=>'CButtonColumn', 'template'=>'{view} {delete}', ), ), )); I really do not know what do do anymore since I'm terribly lost, any help will be hihsly appreciated

    Read the article

  • Extract history from Korn shell

    - by Luc
    I am not happy about the history file in binary format of the Korn shell. I like to "collect" some of my command lines, many of them actually, and for a long time. I'm talking about years. That doesn't seem easy in Korn because the history file is not plain text so I can't edit it, and a lot of junk is piling up in it. By "junk" I mean lines that I don'twant to keep, like 'cat' or 'man'. So I added these lines to my .profile: fc -ln 1 9999 ~/khistory.txt source ~/loghistory.sh ~/khistory.txt loghistory.sh contains a handful of sed and sort commands that gets rid of a lot of the junk. But apparently it is forbidden to run fc in the .profile file. I can't login whenever I do, the shell exits right away with signal 11. So I removed that 'fc -l' line from my .profile file and added it to the loghistory.sh script, but the shell still crashes. I also tried this line in my .profile: strings ~/.sh_history ~/khistory.txt source ~/loghistory.sh That doesn't crash, but the output is printed with an additional, random character in the beginning of many lines. I can run 'fc -l' on the command line, but that's no good. I need to automate that. But how? How can I extract my ksh history as plain text? TIA

    Read the article

  • On C++ global operator new: why it can be replaced

    - by Jimmy
    I wrote a small program in VS2005 to test whether C++ global operator new can be overloaded. It can. #include "stdafx.h" #include "iostream" #include "iomanip" #include "string" #include "new" using namespace std; class C { public: C() { cout<<"CTOR"<<endl; } }; void * operator new(size_t size) { cout<<"my overload of global plain old new"<<endl; // try to allocate size bytes void *p = malloc(size); return (p); } int main() { C* pc1 = new C; cin.get(); return 0; } In the above, my definition of operator new is called. If I remove that function from the code, then operator new in C:\Program Files (x86)\Microsoft Visual Studio 8\VC\crt\src\new.cpp gets called. All is good. However, in my opinion, my implementations of operator new does NOT overload the new in new.cpp, it CONFLICTS with it and violates the one-definition rule. Why doesn't the compiler complain about it? Or does the standard say since operator new is so special, one-definition rule does not apply here? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Who's setting TCP window size down to 0, Indy or Windows?

    - by François
    We have an application server which have been observed sending headers with TCP window size 0 at times when the network had congestion (at a client's site). We would like to know if it is Indy or the underlying Windows layer that is responsible for adjusting the TCP window size down from the nominal 64K in adaptation to the available throughput. And we would be able to act upon it becoming 0 (nothing gets send, users wait = no good). So, any info, link, pointer to Indy code are welcome... Disclaimer: I'm not a network specialist. Please keep the answer understandable for the average me ;-) Note: it's Indy9/D2007 on Windows Server 2003 SP2. More gory details: The TCP zero window cases happen on the middle tier talking to the DB server. It happens at the same moments when end users complain of slowdowns in the client application (that's what triggered the network investigation). 2 major Network issues causing bottlenecks have been identified. The TCP zero window happened when there was network congestion, but may or may not be caused by it. We want to know when that happen and have a way to do something (logging at least) in our code. So where to hook (in Indy?) to know when that condition occurs?

    Read the article

  • Is there an easier way to do Classic ASP "relative path"?

    - by Alex.Piechowski
    Right now, I'm having trouble. First of all I have a page, let's call it "http://blah.com/login". That obviously goes strait to "index.asp" A line of Main.asp: <!--#include file="resource/menu.asp"--> Page top includes all of what I need for my menu... so: Part of resource/menu.htm: <div id="colortab" class="ddcolortabs"> <ul> <li><a href="main.asp" title="Main" rel="dropmain"><span>Main</span></a></li> ... </ul> </div> <!--Main drop down menu --> <div id="dropmain" class="dropmenudiv_a"> <a href="main/announcements.asp">Announcements</a> <a href="main/contacts.asp">Contact Information</a> <a href="main/MeetingPlans.asp">Meeting Plan</a> <a href="main/photos.asp">Photo Gallery</a> <a href="main/events.asp">Upcoming Events</a> </div> Let's say I click on the "announcements" (http://blah.com/login/main/announcements.asp) link... Now I'm at the announcements page! But wait, I include the same menu file. Guess what happens: I get sent to "http://blah.com/login/main/main/announcements.asp Which doesn't exist... My solution: Make a menu_sub.asp include for any subpages. But wait a second... this WORKS, but it gets REALLY REALLY messy... What can I do to use just one main "menu.asp" instead of "menu_sub.asp"? using "/main/announcements.asp" WON'T be an option because this is a web application that will be on different directories per server. Any ideas? PLEASE

    Read the article

  • Doctrine 2 entity cannot be saved with its many-to-many related entities

    - by user1333185
    I'm writing a project in ZF and have many-to-many related accounts and videos entities and I provide the account with the videos collection. When I try to save the account I receive the following error: A new entity was found through the relationship 'Entities\Account#playlistVideos' that was not configured to cascade persist operations for entity: Entities\Video@000000004d5f02ef00000000196757dc. Explicitly persist the new entity or configure cascading persist operations on the relationship. If you cannot find out which entity causes the problem implement 'Entities\Video#__toString()' to get a clue. I found a suggested solution with cascade={"persist"} which should allow videos to be saved together with the account by only specifying $this-em-persist($account) but then I get the error: Fatal error: method_exists(): The script tried to execute a method or access a property of an incomplete object. Please ensure that the class definition "Proxies\EntitiesAccountProxy" of the object you are trying to operate on was loaded before unserialize() gets called or provide a __autoload() function to load the class definition in... The same happens when I try to manually persist videos and account. Thank you for the help in advance.

    Read the article

  • Passing javascript object to webservice via Jquery ajax

    - by kralco626
    I have a webservice that returns an object [WebMethod] public List<User> ContractorApprovals() I also have a webservice that accepcts an object [WebMethod] public bool SaveContractor(Object u) When I make my webservice calls via Jquery: function ServiceCall(method, parameters, onSucess, onFailure) { var parms = "{" + (($.isArray(parameters)) ? parameters.join(',') : parameters) + "}"; // to json $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "services/"+method, data: parms, contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(msg) { if (typeof onSucess == 'function' || typeof onSucess == 'object') onSucess(msg.d); }, error: function(msg, err) { $("#dialog-error").dialog('open');} }); I can call the first one just fine. My onSucess function gets passed a javascript object exactly structured like my User object on the service. However, I am now having trouble getting the object back to the server. I'm accepting Object as a parameter on the server side so I can't inagine there is an issue there. So I'm thinking something is wrong with the parms on the client side but i'm not sure what... I am doing something to the effect ServiceCall("AuthorizationManagerWorkManagement.asmx/ContractorApprovals", "", function(data,args){$("#div").data('user',data[0])}, null) then ServiceCall("AuthorizationManagerWorkManagement.asmx/SaveContractor", $("#div").data('user'), //These also do not work: "{'u': ' + $("#div").data("user") + '}", NOR JSON.stringify({u: userObject}) function(data,args){(alert(data)}, null) I know the first service call works, I can get the data. The second one is causing the "onFailure" method to execute rather then "OnSuccess". Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • How do I detect proximity of the mouse pointer to a line in Flex?

    - by Hanno Fietz
    I'm working on a charting UI in Flex. One of the features I want to implement is "snapping" of the mousepointer to the data points in the diagram. I. e., if the user hovers the mouse pointer over a line diagram and gets close to the data point, I want the pointer to move to the exact coordinates and show a marker, like this: Currently, the lines are drawn on a Shape, using the Graphics API. The Shape is a child DisplayObject of a custom UIComponent subclass with the exact same dimensions. This means, I already get mouseOver events on the parent of the diagram's canvas. Now I need a way to detect if the pointer is close to one of the data points. I. e. I need an answer to the question "Which data points lie within a radius of x pixels from my current position and which of them is closest?" upon each move of the mouse. I can think of the following possibilities: draw the lines not as simple lines in the graphics API, but as more advanced objects that can have their own mouseOver events. However, I want the snapping to trigger before the mouse is actually over the line. check the original data for possible candidates upon each mouse movement. Using binary search, I might be able to reduce the number of items I have to compare sufficently. prepare some kind of new data structure from the raw data that makes the above search more efficient. I don't know how that would look like. I'm guessing this is a pretty standard problem for a number of applications, but probably the actual code usually is inside of some framework. Is there anything I can read about this topic?

    Read the article

  • android: consume key press, bypassing framework processing

    - by user360024
    What I want android to do: when user presses a single key, have the view respond, but do so without opening a text area and displaying the character associated with the key that was pressed, and without requiring that the Enter key be pressed, and without requiring that the user press Esc to make the text area go away. For example, when user presses "u" (and doesn't press Enter), that means "undo the last action", so the controller and model immediately undo the last action, then the view does an invalidate() and user sees that their last action has been undone. In other words the "u" key press should be silently processed, such that the only visual result is that user's last action has been undone. I've implemented OnKeyListener and provided an onKey() method: the class: public class MyGameView extends View implements OnKeyListener{ in the constructor: //2010jun06, phj: With onKey(), helps let this View consume key presses // before the framework gets a chance to consume the key press. setOnKeyListener((View.OnKeyListener)this); the onKey() method: public boolean onKey(View v, int keyCode, KeyEvent event) { if (keyCode == KeyEvent.KEYCODE_R) { Log.d("BWA", "In onKey received keycode associated with R."); } return true; // meaning the event (key press) has been consumed, so // the framework should not handle this event. } but when user presses "u" key on the emulator keypad, a textarea is opened at the bottom of the screen, the "u" charater is displayed there, and the onKey() method doesn't execute until user presses the Enter key. Is there a way to make android do what I want? Thanks,

    Read the article

  • Radiobutton in iphone

    - by Harita
    hi, i am using radio button image (empty circle) in button to answer the question from 3 options, and the 3 options are radio button's. i have created 3 uibuttons programmatically in tableview delegate method cellforrowatindexpath. i need when one button is selected(with filled circle image) other one if selected before gets unselected. i am using below code in button clicked method. static int _row; -(IBAction) optionClicked:(id)sender { UIButton *btn = (UIButton)sender; _row = btn.tag; if (btn.tag == 0) { if(btn1On) { [btnrad1 setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"unfilled.png"]forState:UIControlStateNormal]; btn1On=FALSE; } else { [btnrad1 setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"filled.png"]forState:UIControlStateNormal]; btn1On = TRUE; btn2On = FALSE; btn3On = FALSE; } } else if (btn.tag == 1) { if(btn2On) { [btnrad2 setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"unfilled.png"]forState:UIControlStateNormal]; btn2On=FALSE; } else { [btnrad2 setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"filled.png"]forState:UIControlStateNormal]; btn2On = TRUE; btn1On = FALSE; btn3On = FALSE; } } else if (btn.tag == 2) { if(btn3On) { [btnrad3 setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"unfilled.png"]forState:UIControlStateNormal]; btn3On=FALSE; } else { [btnrad3 setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"filled.png"]forState:UIControlStateNormal]; btn3On = TRUE; btn1On = FALSE; btn2On = FALSE; } } else { NSLog(@"Error"); } } above code is doing selection of button in another row. like i am selecting 1st option in 1st row but its is selecting 2nd row button. i don't know how to use _row to check for every cell of table view.

    Read the article

  • Problem in getting response from server in jquery

    - by Alvin
    Hello, I'm using $.ajax(options) method to pass the request to server based on username and password, but whenever I try to print the response by XMLHttpRequest object when response gets successful, I'm getting an empty value. $(document).ready(function(){ $("#form").submit(function(){ $.ajax({url:"Chat.jsp",type:"POST",data:$("#form").serialize(),success:function(request) { alert(request.responseText); //This is displaying nothing },error:function(){document.write("YOU can't");}}); }); }); This is what I'm doing in my servlets code after executing query: try { String user = request.getParameter("j_username"); String password = request.getParameter("j_password"); if(user != null && password != null) { String query = "Select * from users where user_name="+"\'"+user+"\'"+"&& user_pass="+"\""+password+"\""; DBCheck db= new DBCheck(); boolean b = db.doExecuteQuery(con.createStatement(),query); response.setHeader("Cache-Control", "no-cache"); if(b) { response.getWriter().println("Username already exits"); } else { response.getWriter().println("Username doesn't exit"); } } } catch(SQLException ex) { ex.printStackTrace(); } } May I know the problem, and how can I fix it?

    Read the article

  • PHP Preserve scope when calling a function

    - by Joshua
    I have a function that includes a file based on the string that gets passed to it i.e. the action variable from the query string. I use this for filtering purposes etc so people can't include files they shouldn't be able to and if the file doesn't exist a default file is loaded instead. The problem is that when the function runs and includes the file scope, is lost because the include ran inside a function. This becomes a problem because I use a global configuration file, then I use specific configuration files for each module on the site. The way I'm doing it at the moment is defining the variables I want to be able to use as global and then adding them into the top of the filtering function. Is there any easier way to do this, i.e. by preserving scope when a function call is made or is there such a thing as PHP macros? Edit: Would it be better to use extract($_GLOBALS); inside my function call instead? Edit 2: For anyone that cared. I realised I was over thinking the problem altogether and that instead of using a function I should just use an include, duh! That way I can keep my scope and have my cake too.

    Read the article

  • How to wait until location is completely found? (Core Location)

    - by sudo rm -rf
    Hello. I have a problem within my app. I'm trying to find the user's location to the best preciseness in order to determine their zip-code. Currently I have a button that, when pressed, starts a method named locateMe. -(IBAction)locateMe; { self.locationManager = [[CLLocationManager alloc] init]; locationManager.delegate = self; locationManager.desiredAccuracy = kCLLocationAccuracyBest; [locationManager startUpdatingLocation]; Then I've implemented didUpdateToLocation: -(void)locationManager:(CLLocationManager *)manager didUpdateToLocation:(CLLocation *)newLocation fromLocation:(CLLocation *)oldLocation; { NSLog(@"Found location! %f,%f",newLocation.coordinate.latitude,newLocation.coordinate.longitude); } I had previously done much more complicated stuff in didUpdateToLocation but as I tested some things I realized that the first location it found was not precise in the least. So, I put the NSLog call in there and it gave me an output similar to below... Found location! 39.594093,-98.614834 Found location! 39.601372,-98.592171 Found location! 39.601372,-98.592171 Found location! 39.611444,-98.538196 Found location! 39.611444,-98.538196 As you can see, it first gives me a value which is not correct, which was causing problems within my app because it wasn't giving the correct location. So, here's my question. Is there any way I can wait for the location manager to finish finding the most precise location? Thanks in advance! EDIT: I'm wanting something like this: if (newLocation.horizontalAccuracy <= locationManager.desiredAccuracy) { } But it never gets called!

    Read the article

  • I can't get RedirectToAction to work

    - by DaveDev
    I have the following Action Method that I'm trying to redirect from if the user is valid. But nothing happens. The breakpoint in the redirected-to action method never gets hit. [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Login(User user) { try { if (ModelState.IsValid) { if (userRepository.ValidUser(user)) { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Group"); } else { return Json("Invalid"); } } } catch (Exception) { return Json("Invalid"); } } And in another Controller, I have the following Action Method that I'm trying to redirect to: // HttpVerbs.Post doesn't work either [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Get)] public ActionResult Index(int? page) { const int pageSize = 10; IEnumerable<Group> groups = GetGroups(); var paginatedGroups = new PaginatedList<Group>(groups, page ?? 0, pageSize); return View(paginatedGroups); } private IEnumerable<Group> GetGroups() { return groupRepository.GetGroups(); } Is there anything obviously wrong with what I'm doing? Could somebody suggest a different approach I could take?

    Read the article

  • When an NSWindow object has a delegate that is a NSWindow subclass, who is responsible to act on received events?

    - by spade78
    So I'm building a program that features the use of the IKImageBrowserView component as a subview in an NSWindow. As a side note, I have a controller object called ImageBrowserController which subclasses NSWindow and is set as the delegate of the NSWindow object of my app. I have sent IKImageBrowserView the message setCanControlQuickLookPanel:YES to enable it to automatically use the QuickLook functionality to preview image files when the IKImageBrowserView is a first responder to receive key events. Then it took me a while to figure out how to make the IKImageBrowserView a first responder which I finally got working by overriding acceptsFirstResponder inside my ImageBrowserController. Now I understand that as the delegate to the NSWindow, ImageBrowserController has a place in the responder chain after the event gets triggered on NSWindow. And I understand that as a subview of NSWindow, IKImageBrowserView is in line to be passed events for event handling. What I don't get is where the connection is between the ImageBrowserController being a first responder and the event somehow making it to the IKImageBrowserView. I didn't set NSWindow or IKImageBrowserView as first responders explicitly. So why isn't it necessary for me to implement event handling inside my ImageBrowserController? EDIT: So after reading the accepted answer and going back to my code I tried removing the acceptsFirstResponder override in my ImageBrowserController and the QuickLook functionality still triggered just like the accepted answer said it would. Commenting out the setCanControlQuickLookPanel:YES made the app beep at me when I tried to invoke QuickLook functionality via the spacebar. I'm getting the feeling that my troubles were caused by user error of XCode in hitting the RUN button instead of the BUILD button after making changes to my code (sigh).

    Read the article

  • Database contents setting themselves to 0

    - by Luis Armando
    I have a Database that contains 4 tables, however I'm using 1 of them which is separated from the others. In this table I have 4 fields which are varchar and the rest are ints (11 other fields), when the users fill up the DB everything gets saved correctly, however it has happened 3 times so far that the database values for the int's reset to 0 without any apparent reason. At first, I thought, it was because those fields (where the numbers should go) were varchars not ints. However since I changed it, it happened again. I've already double checked my code and I have nothing that even updates or inserts a 0 value. Also I'm using codeigniter and active records which protect against SQL injections AND have XSS filtering enabled, could anyone point out something I might be missing or a reason for this to be happening? Also, I'm pretty sure about the answer of this but, is there ANY way to recover some data?? Other than having to ask everyone to fill in everything again.. =/ ** EDIT ** The Storage Engine is MyISAM and Collation is latin1_swedish_ci, Pack Keys are default, for all intents and purposes it's a normal DB

    Read the article

  • Javascript Getting Objects to Fallback to One Another

    - by Ian
    Here's a ugly bit of Javascript it would be nice to find a workaround. Javascript has no classes, and that is a good thing. But it implements fallback between objects in a rather ugly way. The foundational construct should be to have one object that, when a property fails to be found, it falls back to another object. So if we want a to fall back to b we would want to do something like: a = {sun:1}; b = {dock:2}; a.__fallback__ = b; then a.dock == 2; But, Javascript instead provides a new operator and prototypes. So we do the far less elegant: function A(sun) { this.sun = sun; }; A.prototype.dock = 2; a = new A(1); a.dock == 2; But aside from elegance, this is also strictly less powerful, because it means that anything created with A gets the same fallback object. What I would like to do is liberate Javascript from this artificial limitation and have the ability to give any individual object any other individual object as its fallback. That way I could keep the current behavior when it makes sense, but use object-level inheritance when that makes sense. My initial approach is to create a dummy constructor function: function setFallback(from_obj, to_obj) { from_obj.constructor = function () {}; from_obj.constructor.prototype = to_obj; } a = {sun:1}; b = {dock:2}; setFallback(a, b); But unfortunately: a.dock == undefined; Any ideas why this doesn't work, or any solutions for an implementation of setFallback? (I'm running on V8, via node.js, in case this is platform dependent)

    Read the article

  • How to pair users? (Like Omegle.com)

    - by Carlos Dubus
    Hi, I'm trying to do an Omegle.com clone script, basically for learning purposes. I'm doing it in PHP/MySQL/AJAX. I'm having problems finding two users and connecting them. The purpose of omegle is connecting two users "randomly". What I'm doing right now is the following: When a user enters the website a session is assigned. There are 3 states for each session/user (Normal,Waiting,Chatting) At first the user has state Normal and a field "connected_to" = NULL If the users clicks the START button, a state of "Waiting" is assigned. Then it looks for another user with state Waiting, if doesn't find one then it keeps looping, waiting for the "connected_to" to change. The "connected_to" will change when other user click START and then find another user waiting and updates the sessions accordingly. Now this have several problems, like: A user only can be connected to one user at a time. In omegle you can open more than one chat simultaneously. I don't know if this is the best way. About the chat, each user is polling the events from the server with AJAX calls, I saw that omegle, instead of several HTTP requests each second (let's say), does ONE request and wait for an answer, that means that the PHP script is looping indefinitely until gets an answer.I did this using set_time_limit(30) each time the loop is started. Then when the Ajax call is done start over again. Is this approach correct? I will appreciate a LOT your answers, Thank you, Carlos

    Read the article

  • Ruby and public_method_defined? : strange behaviour

    - by aXon
    Hi there Whilst reading through the book "The well grounded Rubyist", I came across some strange behaviour. The idea behind the code is using one's own method_missing method. The only thing I am not able to grasp is, why this code gets executed, as I do not have any Person.all_with_* class methods defined, which in turn means that the self.public_method_defined?(attr) returns true (attr is friends and then hobbies). #!/usr/bin/env ruby1.9 class Person PEOPLE = [] attr_reader :name, :hobbies, :friends def initialize(mame) @name = name @hobbies = [] @friends = [] PEOPLE << self end def has_hobby(hobby) @hobbies << hobby end def has_friend(friend) @friends << friend end def self.method_missing(m,*args) method = m.to_s if method.start_with?("all_with_") attr = method[9..-1] if self.public_method_defined?(attr) PEOPLE.find_all do |person| person.send(attr).include?(args[0]) end else raise ArgumentError, "Can't find #{attr}" end else super end end end j = Person.new("John") p = Person.new("Paul") g = Person.new("George") r = Person.new("Ringo") j.has_friend(p) j.has_friend(g) g.has_friend(p) r.has_hobby("rings") Person.all_with_friends(p).each do |person| puts "#{person.name} is friends with #{p.name}" end Person.all_with_hobbies("rings").each do |person| puts "#{person.name} is into rings" end The output is is friends with is friends with is into rings which is really understandable, as there is nothing to be executed.

    Read the article

  • How can I shared controller logic in ASP.NET MVC for 2 controllers, where they are overriden

    - by AbeP
    Hello, I am trying to implement user-friendly URLS, while keeping the existing routes, and was able to do so using the ActionName tag on top of my controller (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/436866/can-you-overload-controller-methods-in-asp-net-mvc) I have 2 controllers: ActionName("UserFriendlyProjectIndex")] public ActionResult Index(string projectName) { ... } public ActionResult Index(long id) { ... } Basically, what I am trying to do is I store the user-friendly URL in the database for each project. If the user enters the URL /Project/TopSecretProject/, the action UserFriendlyProjectIndex gets called. I do a database lookup and if everything checks out, I want to apply the exact same logic that is used in the Index action. I am basically trying to avoid writing duplicate code. I know I can separate the common logic into another method, but I wanted to see if there is a built-in way of doing this in ASP.NET MVC. Any suggestions? I tried the following and I go the View could not be found error message: [ActionName("UserFriendlyProjectIndex")] public ActionResult Index(string projectName) { var filteredProjectName = projectName.EscapeString().Trim(); if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(filteredProjectName)) return RedirectToAction("PageNotFound", "Error"); using (var db = new PIMPEntities()) { var project = db.Project.Where(p => p.UserFriendlyUrl == filteredProjectName).FirstOrDefault(); if (project == null) return RedirectToAction("PageNotFound", "Error"); return View(Index(project.ProjectId)); } } Here's the error message: The view 'UserFriendlyProjectIndex' or its master could not be found. The following locations were searched: ~/Views/Project/UserFriendlyProjectIndex.aspx ~/Views/Project/UserFriendlyProjectIndex.ascx ~/Views/Shared/UserFriendlyProjectIndex.aspx ~/Views/Shared/UserFriendlyProjectIndex.ascx Project\UserFriendlyProjectIndex.spark Shared\UserFriendlyProjectIndex.spark I am using the SparkViewEngine as the view engine and LINQ-to-Entities, if that helps. thank you!

    Read the article

  • Why does Android allocate more memory than needed when loading images

    - by Simon
    Folks, I don't think that this is a duplicate and is NOT one of those how do I avoid OOMs questions. This is a genuine quest for knowledge so hold off on those down votes please... Imagine I have a JPEG of 500x500 pixels. I load it as ARGB_8888 which is as "bad as it gets". I would expect Android to allocate 500x500x4 bytes = a little under 1MB however, look at a heap dump and you will see that Android allocates significantly more, often factors of 5-10 times greater. You frequently see questions on here about OOMS where the stack trace shows a heap request of say 15MB and it is ALWAYS much larger than is required simply to hold the bytes of the image. The OP usually catches some downvotes then is bombarded with stock answers and comments about using less memory (thanks Romain!) and in scaling. I think there is more than meets the eye here. Anybody know why this is? If there is no apparent answer, I will put together an SSCCE if it helps. PS. I assume that JPEG vs PNG etc is irrelevant since we're talking about the memory usage of the backing bitmap which is simply x times y times BPP - or am I being slow?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 374 375 376 377 378 379 380 381 382 383 384 385  | Next Page >