Search Results

Search found 10225 results on 409 pages for 'intel syntax'.

Page 373/409 | < Previous Page | 369 370 371 372 373 374 375 376 377 378 379 380  | Next Page >

  • ActionListener isn't Implementing

    - by Nick Gibson
    JFrameWithPanel is not abstract and does not override abstract method actionPerformed(java.awt.event.ActionEvent) in java.awt.event.ActionListener public class JFrameWithPanel extends JFrame implements ActionListener I Don't get this code. Book and Java site tells me this is the syntax for the method, but again this error shows up constantly. import javax.swing.*; import javax.swing.JOptionPane; import java.awt.*; import java.awt.event.*; import java.lang.Math.*; import java.lang.Integer.*; import java.util.*; import java.util.Random; import java.io.*; import java.text.*; import java.text.DecimalFormat.*; public class JFrameWithPanel extends JFrame implements ActionListener { JButton button = new JButton("Exit"); public JFrameWithPanel() { super("JFrame with Panel"); JComboBox packageChoice = new JComboBox(); packageChoice.addItem("A+ Certification"); packageChoice.addItem("Network+ Certification "); packageChoice.addItem("Security+ Certifictation"); packageChoice.addItem("CIT Full Test Package"); packageChoice.addActionListener(this); setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); JPanel pane = new JPanel(); pane.add(button); pane.add(packageChoice); setContentPane(pane); setSize(200,100); setVisible(true); } } then later public class CreateJFrameWithPanel { public static void main(String[] args) { JFrameWithPanel panel = new JFrameWithPanel(); } }

    Read the article

  • How to run a javascript function before postback of asp.net button?

    - by Curtis White
    I'm using Javascript to create a DIV element and open up a new page by using onclientclick. This works great. Now, I need to write to it from the server side and this element must be created before it is posted back. How do I get the javascript to execute before the postback? Currently, I have to press the button twice because the element doesn't exist to write too on the first click. To be clear, I need this to execute before the "OnClick" of the button. Update: It looks like the Javascript function is called before the postback but the element is not updated until I run the second postback. Hmm Update: Unfortunately it is a bit more complicated then this. I'm creating a div tag in javascript to open a new window. Inside the div tag, I'm using a databinding syntax <%=Preview% so that I can get access to this element on the server side. From the server side, I'm injecting the code. I'm thinking this may be a chicken-egg problem but not sure. UPDATE! It is not the Javascript not running first. It is the databinding mechanism which is reading the blank variable before I'm able to set it. Hmm

    Read the article

  • Grouping by property value and writing group members

    - by Will S
    I need to group the following list by the department value but am having trouble with the LINQ syntax. Here's my list of objects: var people = new List<Person> { new Person { name = "John", department = new List<fields> {new fields { name = "department", value = "IT"}}}, new Person { name = "Sally", department = new List<fields> {new fields { name = "department", value = "IT"}}}, new Person { name = "Bob", department = new List<fields> {new fields { name = "department", value = "Finance"}}}, new Person { name = "Wanda", department = new List<fields> {new fields { name = "department", value = "Finance"}}}, }; I've toyed around with grouping. This is as far as I've got: var query = from p in people from field in p.department where field.name == "department" group p by field.value into departments select new { Department = departments.Key, Name = departments }; So can iterate over the groups, but not sure how to list the Person names - foreach (var department in query) { Console.WriteLine("Department: {0}", department.Department); foreach (var foo in department.Department) { // ?? } } Any ideas on what to do better or how to list the names of the relevant departments?

    Read the article

  • Tiny MCE (jquery plugin version) not showing toolbar in IE (works fine in other browsers)

    - by I am Wonder
    I had an implementation working well but for some reason IE decided it was tired of playing nice. I have an advanced implementation of TinyMCE (the jquery plugin version - see http://tinymce.moxiecode.com/examples/example_23.php for details). It still works great in all browsers but IE. In IE it shows the drop-down options for Format, Font family, and Font size, but only as text.. not as a drop down normally looks. All other buttons on the toolbar are missing. (I've tried IE8 and IE8 Compatibility Mode) I get a javascript error: Syntax error Line 36 Char 1. Unfortunately the javascript is being loaded dynamically so this doesn't help me. Here is my implementation code for the TinyMCE editor: $(function () { $('#InputStuffHere').tinymce({ // General options theme: "advanced", plugins: "safari,pagebreak,style,layer,table,save,advhr,advimage,advlink,inlinepopups,preview,media,searchreplace,contextmenu,paste,fullscreen,noneditable,visualchars,nonbreaking,template", // Theme options theme_advanced_buttons1: "bold,italic,underline,strikethrough,|,justifyleft,justifycenter,justifyright,justifyfull,formatselect,fontselect,fontsizeselect,|,hr,removeformat", theme_advanced_buttons2: "cut,copy,paste,pastetext,pasteword,|,search,replace,|,bullist,numlist,|,outdent,indent,blockquote,|,undo,redo,|,link,unlink,image,|,forecolor,backcolor,|,spellchecker", theme_advanced_buttons3 : "", theme_advanced_toolbar_location: "top", theme_advanced_toolbar_align: "left", theme_advanced_statusbar_location: "bottom", theme_advanced_resizing: true, // Drop lists for link/image/media/template dialogs template_external_list_url: "lists/template_list.js", external_link_list_url: "lists/link_list.js", external_image_list_url: "lists/image_list.js", media_external_list_url: "lists/media_list.js", //initialization callback init_instance_callback: "TinyMCEReady", add_form_submit_trigger : false }); }); So... anyone seen anything like this or have any ideas for me? Thank you so much everyone!

    Read the article

  • What is wrong with this php loop?

    - by Mark R
    I made a loop but it doesn't work. here's what I did: <?php if(is_tree('4')) { ?> <?php $show_after_p = 2; $content = apply_filters('the_content', $post->post_content); if(substr_count($content, '<p>') > $show_after_p) { $contents = explode("</p>", $content); $p_count = 1; foreach($contents as $content) { echo $content; if($p_count == $show_after_p) { ?> YOUR AD CODE GOES HERE < ? } echo "</p>"; $p_count++; } } ?> <?php else : ?> <?php the_content('<p class="serif">Read the rest of this page &raquo;</p>'); ?> <?php endif; } ?> I need to make it work but don't know how. I'm guessing it's a simple syntax error I'm not seeing?

    Read the article

  • printing out dictionnaires

    - by kyril
    I have a rather specific question: I want to print out characters at a specific place using the \033[ syntax. This is what the code below should do: (the dict cells has the same keys as coords but with either '*' or '-' as value.) coords = {'x'+str(x)+'y'+str(y) : (x,y) for x,y, in itertools.product(range(60), range(20))} for key, value in coords.items(): char = cells[key] x,y = value HORIZ=str(x) VERT=str(y) char = str(char) print('\033['+VERT+';'+HORIZ+'f'+char) However, I noticed that if I put this into a infinite while loop, it does not always prints the same characters at the same position. There are only slight changes, but it deletes some and puts them back in after some loops. I already tried it with lists, and there it seems to behave just fine, so I tend to think it has something todo with the dict, but I can not figure out what it could be. You can see the Problem in a console here: SharedConsole.I am happy for every tip on this matter. On a related topic: After the printing, some changes should be made at the values of the cells dict, but for reason unknown to me, the only the first two rules are executed and the rest is ignored. The rules should test how many neighbours (which is in population) are around the cell and apply the according rule. In my implemention of this I have some kind of weird tumor growth (which should not happen, as if there more than three around they should the cell should die) (see FreakingTumor): if cells_copy [coord] == '-': if population == 3: cells [coord] = '*' if cells_copy [coord] == '*': if population > 3: cells [coord] = '-' elif population <= 1: cells [coord] = '-' elif population == 2 or 3: cells [coord] = '*' I checked the population variable several times, so I am quite sure that is not the matter. I am sorry for the slow consoles. Thanks in advance! Kyril

    Read the article

  • LINQ to SQL: NOTing a prebuilt expression

    - by ck
    I'm building a library of functions for one of my core L2S classes, all of which return a bool to allow checking for certain situations. Example: Expression<Func<Account, bool>> IsSomethingX = a => a.AccountSupplementary != null && a.AccountSupplementary.SomethingXFlag != null && a.AccountSupplementary.SomethingXFlag.Value; Now to query where this is not true, I CAN'T do this: var myAccounts= context.Accounts .Where(!IsSomethingX); // does not compile However, using the syntax from the PredicateBuilder class, I've come up with this: public static IQueryable<T> WhereNot<T>(this IQueryable<T> items, Expression<Func<T, bool>> expr1) { var invokedExpr = Expression.Invoke(expr1, expr1.Parameters.Cast<Expression>()); return items.Where(Expression.Lambda<Func<T, bool>> (Expression.Not(invokedExpr), expr1.Parameters)); } var myAccounts= context.Accounts .WhereNot(IsSomethingX); // does compile which actually produces the correct SQL. Does this look like a good solution, and is there anything I need to be aware of that might cause me problems in future?

    Read the article

  • Unable to parse variable length string separated by delimiter

    - by Technext
    Hi, I have a problem with parsing a string, which consists only of directory path. For ex. My input string is Abc\Program Files\sample\ My output should be Abc//Program Files//sample The script should work for input path of any length i.e., it can contain any no. of subdirectories. (For ex., abc\temp\sample\folder\joe) I have looked for help in many links but to no avail. Looks like FOR command extracts only one whole line or a string (when we use ‘token’ keyword in FOR syntax) but my problem is that I am not aware of the input path length and hence, the no. of tokens. My idea was to use \ as a delimiter and then extract each word before and after it (), and put the words to an output file along with // till we reach the end of the string. I tried implementing the following but it did not work: @echo off FOR /F "delims=\" %%x in (orig.txt) do ( IF NOT %%x == "" echo.%%x//output.txt ) The file orig.txt contains only one line i.e, Abc\Program Files\sample\ The output that I get contains only: Abc// The above output contains blank spaces as well after ‘Abc//’ My desired output should be: Abc//program Files//sample// Can anyone please help me with this? Regards, Technext

    Read the article

  • Using jquery to change checkbox status

    - by Jeff
    Hi everyone! I have a list of items that have checkboxes associated with them, and the items are beneath a list header, which also has a checkbox(for db purposes only) which is actually hidden from view. I need to make it so that if any of the checkboxes beneath the header is checked, then the header checkbox is checked as well. BUT I also need to make it so that if all of the checkboxes are unchecked, then the header one is unchecked...how hard is this going to be? This is how I have it setup now: if($('.childCheckBox').is(":checked")){ $('#parentBox').attr('checked', true); } Now I am thinking that if I were to do something where I add an else if clause: else if($('.proBox2').is(not)(":checked"){ alert("uncheck parent"); } But I don't know the correct syntax for is-not, or isn't, or even if there is anything that will do that. Are there any thoughts out there? I need the box to check if one is selected and uncheck if none are selected. Thanks!!

    Read the article

  • How to enforce that HTTP client uses conditional requests for updates?

    - by Day
    In a (proper RMM level 3) RESTful HTTP API, I want to enforce the fact that clients should make conditional requests when updating resources, in order to avoid the lost update problem. What would be an appropriate response to return to clients that incorrectly attempt unconditional PUT requests? I note that the (abandoned?) mod_atom returns a 405 Method Not Allowed with an Allow header set to GET, HEAD (view source) when an unconditional update is attempted. This seems slightly misleading - to me this implies that PUT is never a valid method to attempt on the resource. Perhaps the response just needs to have an entity body explaining that If-Match or If-Unmodified-Since must be used to make the PUT request conditional in which case it would be allowed? Or perhaps a 400 Bad Request with a suitable explanation in the entity body would be a better solution? But again, this doesn't feel quite right because it's using a 400 response for a violation of application specific semantics when RFC 2616 says (my emphasis): The request could not be understood by the server due to malformed syntax. But than again, I think that using 400 Bad Request for application specific semantics is becoming a widely accepted pragmatic solution (citation needed!), and I'm just being overly pedantic.

    Read the article

  • writing output to a dropdown list

    - by sushant
    <% dim req_id req_id=Request.Form("Req_id") Set conn=server.CreateObject("adodb.connection") conn.Open session("Psrconnect") Set rs=CreateObject("Adodb.Recordset") rs.Open "select * from releases where project like '%"&req_id&"%'", conn %> <SELECT style="LEFT: 454px; WIDTH: 500px; TOP: 413px" name="txtrelease1" id="txtrelease1"> <% if rs.EOF=true then %> <OPTION value="NO Request to Edit">No Request to Edit</OPTION> <% else do while rs.EOF<>true p=InStrRev(rs.Fields(0),"\") q=Len(rs.Fields(0)) r=(Right(rs.Fields(0),(q-p))) %> <OPTION value=<%=rs.Fields(0)%>> r </OPTION> <% rs.movenext loop end if %> </SELECT> i want to right the value of r in the dropdown list. i dont know the syntax. as of now the drop down list shows "r" , not the value inside it. how to do it?

    Read the article

  • $this->url() to another subdomain

    - by Supertino7
    Hello, I created subdomain for my application. host_www.type = "Zend_Controller_Router_Route_Hostname" host_www.route = "www.mywebsite.com" host_www.defaults.module = "produits" host_www.defaults.controller = "produits" host_www.defaults.action = "index" fiche_boutique.route = "ficheboutique/:boutique" fiche_boutique.defaults.controller = "boutique" fiche_boutique.defaults.action = "fiche-boutique" fiche_boutique.defaults.module = "default" fiche_boutique.chain = "host_www" host_produits.type = "Zend_Controller_Router_Route_Hostname" host_produits.route = "produits.mywebsite.com" host_produits.defaults.module = "produits" host_produits.defaults.controller = "produits" host_produits.defaults.action = "index" fiche_produit.type = "Zend_Controller_Router_Route_Regex" fiche_produit.route = "([-\w]+).htm" fiche_produit.reverse = "%s.htm" fiche_produit.map.1 = "q" fiche_produit.defaults.module = "produits" fiche_produit.defaults.controller = "produits" fiche_produit.defaults.action = "voir-produit" fiche_produit.chain = "host" I don't know if the syntax in this zend config ini file is correct, in particular for routes chaining. Once I'm on this subdomain, urls constructed with $this-url() like this : <a href="<?= $this->url(array('boutique' => 1234), 'fiche_boutique', true) ?>"> Visit this store </a> still point to the subdomain produits.mywebsite.com, where I want it to point to www.mywebsite.com For the moment, I do this : <a href="http://www.mywebsite.com<?= $this->url(array('boutique' => 1234), 'fiche_boutique', true) ?>"> Visit this store </a> But it's not flexible at all. Is there a solution, a parameter to add, or my config file is wrong ? thanks in advance for your help.

    Read the article

  • Aliasing `T*` with `char*` is allowed. Is it also allowed the other way around?

    - by StackedCrooked
    Note: This question has been renamed and reduced to make it more focused and readable. Most of the comments refer to the old text. According to the standard objects of different type may not share the same memory location. So this would not be legal: int i = 0; short * s = reinterpret_cast<short*>(&i); // BAD! The standard however allows an exception to this rule: any object may be accessed through a pointer to char or unsigned char: int i = 0; char * c = reinterpret_cast<char*>(&i); // OK However, it is not clear to me if this is also allowed the other way around. For example: char * c = read_socket(...); unsigned * u = reinterpret_cast<unsigned*>(c); // huh? Summary of the answers The answer is NO for two reasons: You an only access an existing object as char*. There is no object in my sample code, only a byte buffer. The pointer address may not have the right alignment for the target object. In that case dereferencing it would result in undefined behavior. On the Intel and AMD platforms it will result performance overhead. On ARM it will trigger a CPU trap and your program will be terminated! This is a simplified explanation. For more detailed information see answers by @Luc Danton, @Cheers and hth. - Alf and @David Rodríguez.

    Read the article

  • Jquery passing an HTML element into a function

    - by christian
    I have an HTML form where I am going to copy values from a series of input fields to some spans/headings as the user populates the input fields. I am able to get this working using the following code: $('#source').keyup(function(){ if($("#source").val().length == 0){ $("#destinationTitle").text('Sample Title'); }else{ $("#destinationTitle").text($("#source").val()); } }); In the above scenario the html is something like: Sample Title Basically, as the users fills out the source box, the text of the is changed to the value of the source input. If nothing is input in, or the user deletes the values typed into the box some default text is placed in the instead. Pretty straightforward. However, since I need to make this work for many different fields, it makes sense to turn this into a generic function and then bind that function to each 's onkeyup() event. But I am having some trouble with this. My implementation: function doStuff(source,target,defaultValue) { if($(source).val().length == 0){ $(target).text(defaultValue); }else{ $(target).text($(source).val()); } } which is called as follows: $('#source').keyup(function() { doStuff(this, '"#destinationTitle"', 'SampleTitle'); }); What I can't figure out is how to pass the second parameter, the name of the destination html element into the function. I have no problem passing in the element I'm binding to via "this", but can't figure out the destination element syntax. Any help would be appreciated - many thanks!

    Read the article

  • $ is not defined

    - by coffeeaddict
    I cannot figure out why it's still not recognizing jQuery syntax when I clearly have included the jQuery library right before my $(document).ready <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" > <head id="Head1"><title> </title></head> <body> <form name="form1" method="post" action="jQueryDialogTest.aspx" id="form1"> <div> <input type="hidden" name="__VIEWSTATE" id="__VIEWSTATE" value="/wEPDwULLTE2MTY2ODcyMjlkZA==" /> </div> <script src="content/js/jquery-1.3.2.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="content/js/popup.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <div id="testDialog" winWidth="400" winHeight="500" winResizable="true"> Some test mark-up, should show inside the dialog </div> <div><input type="button" id="invokeDialog" value="Click Me!" /></div> </form> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("input.invokeDialog").click.showDialog("#testDialog"); }); </script> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • How to reference input elements within a specific scope when there are multiple input elements of same kind?

    - by Will Merydith
    How do I select data for input elements within a specific scope? I have the same form multiple times (class "foo-form), and want to ensure I get the values for the hidden inputs within the scope of the form being submitted. Is the scope "this" implied? If not, what is the syntax for selecting input class "foo-text" within the scope of this? Feel free to point me to examples in the jquery docs - I could not find what I was looking for. $('.foo-form').submit(function() { // Store a reference to this form var $thisForm = $(this); }); <form class="foo-form"> <input type="hidden" class="foo-text"/> <input type="submit" class="button" /> </form> <form class="foo-form"> <input type="hidden" class="foo-text"/> <input type="submit" class="button" /> </form> <form class="foo-form"> <input type="hidden" class="foo-text"/> <input type="submit" class="button" /> // user clicks this submit button </form>

    Read the article

  • Help me sort programing languages a bit

    - by b-gen-jack-o-neill
    Hi, so I asked here few days ago about C# and its principles. Now, if I may, I have some additional general questions about some languages, becouse for novice like me, it seems a bit confusing. To be exact I want to ask more about language functions capabilities than syntax and so. To be honest, its just these special functions that bothers me and make me so confused. For exmaple, C has its printf(), Pascal has writeln() and so. I know in basic the output in assembler of these funtions would be similiar, every language has more or less its special functions. For console output, for file manipulation, etc. But all these functions are de-facto part of its OS API, so why is for example in C distinguished between C standard library functions and (on Windows) WinAPI functions when even printf() has to use some Windows feature, call some of its function to actually show desired text on console window, becouse the actuall "showing" is done by OS. Where is the line between language functions and system API? Now languages I dont quite understand - Python, Ruby and similiar. To be more specific, I know they are similiar to java and C# in term they are compiled into bytecode. But, I do not unerstand what are its capabilities in term of building GUI applications. I saw tutorial for using Ruby to program GUI applications on Linux and Windows. But isn´t that just some kind of upgrade? I mean fram other tutorials It seemed like these languages was first intended for small scripts than building big applications. I hope you understand why I am confused. If you do, please help me sort it out a bit, I have no one to ask.

    Read the article

  • Bizzare Java invalid Assignment Operator Error

    - by Kay
    public class MaxHeap<T extends Comparable<T>> implements Heap<T>{ private T[] heap; private int lastIndex; private static final int defaultInitialCapacity = 25; public void add(T newItem) throws HeapException{ if (lastIndex < Max_Heap){ heap[lastIndex] = newItem; int place = lastIndex; int parent = (place – 1)/2; //ERROR HERE********** while ( (parent >=0) && (heap[place].compareTo(heap[parent])>0)){ T temp = heap[place]; heap[place] = heap[parent]; heap[parent] = temp; place = parent; parent = (place-1)/2; }else { throw new HeapException(“HeapException: Heap full”); } } } Eclipse complains that there is a: "Syntax error on token "Invalid Character", invalid AssignmentOperator" With the red line beneath the '(place-1)' There shouldn't be an error at all since it's just straight-forward arithmetic. Or is it not that simple?

    Read the article

  • ORDERBY "human" alphabetical order using SQL string manipulation

    - by supertrue
    I have a table of posts with titles that are in "human" alphabetical order but not in computer alphabetical order. These are in two flavors, numerical and alphabetical: Numerical: Figure 1.9, Figure 1.10, Figure 1.11... Alphabetical: Figure 1A ... Figure 1Z ... Figure 1AA If I orderby title, the result is that 1.10-1.19 come between 1.1 and 1.2, and 1AA-1AZ come between 1A and 1B. But this is not what I want; I want "human" alphabetical order, in which 1.10 comes after 1.9 and 1AA comes after 1Z. I am wondering if there's still a way in SQL to get the order that I want using string manipulation (or something else I haven't thought of). I am not an expert in SQL, so I don't know if this is possible, but if there were a way to do conditional replacement, then it seems I could impose the order I want by doing this: delete the period (which can be done with replace, right?) if the remaining figure number is more than three characters, add a 0 (zero) after the first character. This would seem to give me the outcome I want: 1.9 would become 109, which comes before 110; 1Z would become 10Z, which comes before 1AA. But can it be done in SQL? If so, what would the syntax be? Note that I don't want to modify the data itself—just to output the results of the query in the order described. This is in the context of a Wordpress installation, but I think the question is more suitably an SQL question because various things (such as pagination) depend on the ordering happening at the MySQL query stage, rather than in PHP.

    Read the article

  • Using NHibernate's HQL to make a query with multiple inner joins

    - by Abu Dhabi
    The problem here consists of translating a statement written in LINQ to SQL syntax into the equivalent for NHibernate. The LINQ to SQL code looks like so: var whatevervar = from threads in context.THREADs join threadposts in context.THREADPOSTs on threads.thread_id equals threadposts.thread_id join posts1 in context.POSTs on threadposts.post_id equals posts1.post_id join users in context.USERs on posts1.user_id equals users.user_id orderby posts1.post_time where threads.thread_id == int.Parse(id) select new { threads.thread_topic, posts1.post_time, users.user_display_name, users.user_signature, users.user_avatar, posts1.post_body, posts1.post_topic }; It's essentially trying to grab a list of posts within a given forum thread. The best I've been able to come up with (with the help of the helpful users of this site) for NHibernate is: var whatevervar = session.CreateQuery("select t.Thread_topic, p.Post_time, " + "u.User_display_name, u.User_signature, " + "u.User_avatar, p.Post_body, p.Post_topic " + "from THREADPOST tp " + "inner join tp.Thread_ as t " + "inner join tp.Post_ as p " + "inner join p.User_ as u " + "where tp.Thread_ = :what") .SetParameter<THREAD>("what", threadid) .SetResultTransformer(Transformers.AliasToBean(typeof(MyDTO))) .List<MyDTO>(); But that doesn't parse well, complaining that the aliases for the joined tables are null references. MyDTO is a custom type for the output: public class MyDTO { public string thread_topic { get; set; } public DateTime post_time { get; set; } public string user_display_name { get; set; } public string user_signature { get; set; } public string user_avatar { get; set; } public string post_topic { get; set; } public string post_body { get; set; } } I'm out of ideas, and while doing this by direct SQL query is possible, I'd like to do it properly, without defeating the purpose of using an ORM. Thanks in advance! EDIT: The database looks like this: http://i41.tinypic.com/5agciu.jpg (Can't post images yet.)

    Read the article

  • How to update attributes without valitation

    - by Brian Roisentul
    I've got a model with its validations, and I found out that I can't update an attribute without validating the object before. I already tried to add on => :create syntax at the end of each validation line, but I got the same results. My announcement model have the following validations: validates_presence_of :title validates_presence_of :description validates_presence_of :announcement_type_id validate :validates_publication_date validate :validates_start_date validate :validates_start_end_dates validate :validates_category validate :validates_province validates_length_of :title, :in => 6..255, :on => :save validates_length_of :subtitle, :in => 0..255, :on => :save validates_length_of :subtitle, :in => 0..255, :on => :save validates_length_of :place, :in => 0..50, :on => :save validates_numericality_of :vacants, :greater_than_or_equal_to => 0, :only_integer => true validates_numericality_of :price, :greater_than_or_equal_to => 0, :only_integer => true My rake task does the following: task :announcements_expiration => :environment do announcements = Announcement.expired announcements.each do |a| #Gets the user that owns the announcement user = User.find(a.user_id) puts a.title + '...' a.state = 'deactivated' if a.update_attributes(:state => a.state) puts 'state changed to deactivated' else a.errors.each do |e| puts e end end end This throws all the validation exceptions for that model, in the output. Does anybody how to update an attribute without validating the model?

    Read the article

  • I have a parse error in my php code

    - by user1421767
    I have a piece of code which I am struggling on. I want the onclick function to display the "Question" row in the function but when I place '$questionrow['QuestionContent']' within the brackets, it is giving me an error stating: Parse error: syntax error, unexpected T_ENCAPSED_AND_WHITESPACE, expecting T_STRING or T_VARIABLE or T_NUM_STRING in /xxx7/Mobile_app/previousquestions.php on line 119 How do I place the QuestionContent within the brackets correctly in function below: onclick='parent.addwindow('$questionrow['QuestionContent']');'>Add</button> Below is whole code: <?php $output = ""; while ($questionrow = mysql_fetch_assoc($questionresult)) { $output .= " <table> <tr> <td class='questiontd'>{$questionrow['QuestionContent']}</td> <td class='addtd'><button type='button' class='add' onclick='parent.addwindow('$questionrow['QuestionContent']');'>Add</button></td> </tr>"; } $output .= " </table>"; echo $output; ?>

    Read the article

  • Can't referr to my get method

    - by chility
    I have this amazing and good looking class: public class SayingsHolder extends Application{ ArrayList<String> SayingsList = new ArrayList<String>(){{ SayingsList.add("1"); SayingsList.add("2"); }}; public ArrayList<String> getSayingsList() { return SayingsList; } } Now I'm trying to call the getSayingsList method inside of my activity's FragmentStatePagerAdapter by: private class ScreenSlidePagerAdapter extends FragmentStatePagerAdapter { final SayingsHolder holder = (SayingsHolder).getApplication(); } Everything fine for now, but when I make my code like this: private class ScreenSlidePagerAdapter extends FragmentStatePagerAdapter { final SayingsHolder holder = (SayingsHolder).getApplication(); holder.getSayingsList(); } it says: Syntax error on token "getSayingsList", Identifier expected after this token The problem is that holder is not functional at all. What I mean is that when i type the this holder. the getSayingsList is not showing at all. What am I missing here? I know that it is an extremely small issue, but it seems that I can't spot it. My activity extends FragmentActivity if it's important It seems that I'm missing something here. I can't call my method anywhere in my activity. I'm starting a bounty, because I need an example.

    Read the article

  • CakePHP 2.0: how to access properties of the parent object?

    - by PaulJ
    I just started learning CakePHP 2.0 a few days ago, and there's one thing that is leaving me stumped: say I have an User model and a Posts model: class User extends AppModel { public $name = "User"; public $hasMany=array( 'Post' => array( 'className' => 'Post', 'foreignKey' => 'author_id' ) ); } class Post extends AppModel { public $name = 'Post'; public $belongsTo = array( 'className' = 'User', 'foreignKey' = 'author_id', ); } (Where "author_id" is the foreign key in the posts table that references the Users table's primary key). And now, in the PostsController, I want to access the properties of the user that owns the current post (to show his display name, for example). What would be the proper syntax? I tried: $this->Post->User->find('first', array('conditions' => array('User.id' => "$usuario"))) But it didn't work (I guess it's because the User is the parent of the Post object, not its child). Or should CakePHP load everything automatically, once you've declared the $hasMany and $belongsTo relationships?

    Read the article

  • WCF hosting: Can access svc file but cannot go to wsdl link

    - by Impulse
    Hello, I have a WCF service that is hosted in IIS 7.5. I have two servers, one for test and one for production. The service works fine on test server, but on the production server I have the following error. When I access the address http//..../service.svc I can see the default page that says: You have created a service. To test this service, you will need to create a client and use it to call the service. You can do this using the svcutil.exe tool from the command line with the following syntax: svcutil.exe http://..../service.svc?wsdl This will generate a configuration file and a code file that contains the client class. Add the two files to your client application and use the generated client class to call the Service. But when I click the wsdl link, I cannot go to the wsdl page. It returns me to this default web page without any errors. I am suspecting a network/firewall authorization error but does anybody have an experience like this one? All IIS settings are the same for test and production servers. Thank you, Best Regards.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 369 370 371 372 373 374 375 376 377 378 379 380  | Next Page >