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• Login for webapp, needs to be available for support staff

  - by Christian W

  I know the title is a little off, but it's hard to explain the problem in a short sentence. I am the administrator of a legacy webapp that lets users create surveys and distribute them to a group of people. We have two kinds of "users". Authorized licenseholders which does all setup themselves. Clients who just want to have a survey run, but still need a user (because the webapp has "User" as the top entity in a surveyenvironment.) Sometimes users in #1 want us to do the setup for them (which we offer to do). This means that we have to login as them. This is also how we do support: we login as them and then follow them along, guiding them. Which brings me to my dilemma. Currently our security is below par. But this makes it simple for us to do support. We do want to increase our security, and one thing I have been considering is just doing the normal hashing to DB, however, we need to be able to login as a customer, and if they change their password without telling us, and the password is hashed in the db, we have no way of knowing it. So I was thinking of some kind of twoway encryption for the passwords. Either that or some kind of master password. Any suggestions? (The platform is classic ASP... I said it was legacy...)

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• WPF: How to connect to a sql ce 3.5 database with ADO.NET?

  - by EV

  Hi, I'm trying to write an application that has two DataGrids - the first one displays customers and the second one selected customer's records. I have generated the ADO.NET Entity Model and the connection property are set in App.config file. Now I want to populate the datagrids with the data from sql ce 3.5 database which does not support LINQ-TO-SQL. I used this code for the first datagrid in code behind: CompanyDBEntities db; private void Window_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { db = new CompanyDBEntities(); ObjectQuery<Employees> departmentQuery = db.Employees; try { // lpgrid is the name of the first datagrid this.lpgrid.ItemsSource = departmentQuery; } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show(ex.Message); } However, the datagrid is empty although there are records in a database. It would also be better to use it in MVVM pattern but I'm not sure how does the ado.net and MVVM work together and if it is even possible to use them like that. Could anyone help? Thanks in advance.

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• How do I view the full content of a text or varchar(MAX) column in SQL Server 2008 Management Studio

  - by adamjford

  In this live SQL Server 2008 (build 10.0.1600) database, there's an Events table, which contains a text column named Details. (Yes, I realize this should actually be a varchar(MAX) column, but whoever set this database up did not do it that way.) This column contains very large logs of exceptions and associated JSON data that I'm trying to access through SQL Server Management Studio, but whenever I copy the results from the grid to a text editor, it truncates it at 43679 characters. I've read on various locations on the Internet that you can set your Maximum Characters Retrieved for XML Data in Tools > Options > Query Results > SQL Server > Results To Grid to Unlimited, and then perform a query such as this: select Convert(xml, Details) from Events where EventID = 13920 (Note that the data is column is not XML at all. CONVERTing the column to XML is merely a workaround I found from Googling that someone else has used to get around the limit SSMS has from retrieving data from a text or varchar(MAX) column.) However, after setting the option above, running the query, and clicking on the link in the result, I still get the following error: Unable to show XML. The following error happened: Unexpected end of file has occurred. Line 5, position 220160. One solution is to increase the number of characters retrieved from the server for XML data. To change this setting, on the Tools menu, click Options. So, any idea on how to access this data? Would converting the column to varchar(MAX) fix my woes?

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• Algorithm(s) for rearranging simple symbolic algebraic expressions

  - by Gabe Johnson

  Hi, I would like to know if there is a straightforward algorithm for rearranging simple symbolic algebraic expressions. Ideally I would like to be able to rewrite any such expression with one variable alone on the left hand side. For example, given the input: m = (x + y) / 2 ... I would like to be able to ask about x in terms of m and y, or y in terms of x and m, and get these: x = 2*m - y y = 2*m - x Of course we've all done this algorithm on paper for years. But I was wondering if there was a name for it. It seems simple enough but if somebody has already cataloged the various "gotchas" it would make life easier. For my purposes I won't need it to handle quadratics. (And yes, CAS systems do this, and yes I know I could just use them as a library. I would like to avoid such a dependency in my application. I really would just like to know if there are named algorithms for approaching this problem.)

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• Python alignment of assignments (style)

  - by ikaros45

  I really like following style standards, as those specified in PEP 8. I have a linter that checks it automatically, and definitely my code is much better because of that. There is just one point in PEP 8, the E251 & E221 don't feel very good. Coming from a JavaScript background, I used to align the variable assignments as following: var var1 = 1234; var2 = 54; longer_name = 'hi'; var lol = { 'that' : 65, 'those' : 87, 'other_thing' : true }; And in my humble opinion, this improves readability dramatically. Problem is, this is dis-recommended by PEP 8. With dictionaries, is not that bad because spaces are allowed after the colon: dictionary = { 'something': 98, 'some_other_thing': False } I can "live" with variable assignments without alignment, but what I don't like at all is not to be able to pass named arguments in a function call, like this: some_func(length= 40, weight= 900, lol= 'troll', useless_var= True, intelligence=None) So, what I end up doing is using a dictionary, as following: specs = { 'length': 40, 'weight': 900, 'lol': 'troll', 'useless_var': True, 'intelligence': None } some_func(**specs) or just simply some_func(**{'length': 40, 'weight': 900, 'lol': 'troll', 'useless_var': True, 'intelligence': None}) But I have the feeling this work around is just worse than ignoring the PEP 8 E251 / E221. What is the best practice?

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• JSESSIONID collision between two servers on same ip but different ports

  - by Steve Armstrong

  I've got a situation where I have two different webapps running on a single server, using different ports. They're both running Java's Jetty servlet container, so they both use a cookie parameter named JSESSIONID to track the session id. These two webapps are fighting over the session id. Open a Firefox tab, and go to WebApp1 WebApp1's HTTP response has a set-cookie header with JSESSIONID=1 Firefox now has a Cookie header with JSESSIONID=1 in all it's HTTP requests to WebApp1 Open a second Firefox tab, and go to WebApp2 The HTTP reqeust to WebApp2 also has a Cookie header with JSESSIONID=1, but in the doGet, when I call req.getSession(false); I get null. And if I call req.getSession(true) I get a new Session object, but then the HTTP response from WebApp2 has a set-cookie header with JSESSIONID=20 Now, WebApp2 has a working Session, but WebApp1's session is gone. Going to WebApp1 will give me a new session, blowing away WebApp2's session. Continue forever So the Sessions are thrashing between each web app. I'd really like for the req.getSession(false) to return a valid session if there's already a JSESSIONID cookie defined. One option is to basically reimplement the Session framework with a HashMap and cookies called WEBAPP1SESSIONID and WEBAPP2SESSIONID, but that sucks, and means I'll have to hack the new Session stuff into ActionServlet and a few other places. This must be a problem others have encountered. Is Jetty's HttpServletRequest.getSession(boolean) just crappy?

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• How do I include the proper XML / HTML definitions in a file generated by XSL?

  - by Colen

  As I understand it, you need to include the following code at the top of your HTML files to make sure they're parsed properly: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en"> ... I'm generating an html file by transforming an XML file using an XSL file. This is going to be done using the MSXML tool, which produces a standard HTML file as output. If I just do this: <xsl:template match="/"> <html> ... Everything is fine. But if I do this: <xsl:template match="/"> <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en"> ... I get the error XML Parsing Error: XML or text declaration not at start of entity in Firefox, or Cannot have a DOCTYPE declaration outside of a prolog. in IE. Presumably this is because the parser is finding two How do I make the browser a) understand that I am using proper strict HTML, and b) make sure those declarations are put into the HTML output file that MSXML generates?

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• Qt - QWebView Problem

  - by user547057

  Hi, I have a PyQt gui script which consists of a QWebView widget. I'm trying to send a GET request, i.e go to a page, fill a form and hit click using the code at the bottom of this question. Since i'm dealing with the documentElement(a QWebElement) of the webview, I need to place all DOM actions in a separate function(which I have named fillForm) and connect the loadFinished() signal into the function. Without connecting the signal, the document will not have loaded and I won't be able to get the elements I want. I'm able to submit the form correctly and get the proper response from the webpage. The problem i'm having is that, the above leads to a sort of infinite loop. This is because the webpage gets reloaded each time a new page is loaded, so the form gets filled each and every single time without stopping. I'd like to know if there's some way of finding out whether the WebView's page has loaded fully, non-asynchronously or maybe pause execution of the script(without freezing the gui) until the whole document has loaded. I'm unable to come up with a satisfactory solution(my idea consisted of keeping a global variable to track clicks) to this problem. I would appreciate it if someone could help me out with a better way to tackle this. Thanks! Here's the code i'm using import sys from PyQt4.QtCore import * from PyQt4.QtGui import * from PyQt4.QtWebKit import * from PyQt4 import QtCore app = QApplication(sys.argv) web = QWebView() web.load(QUrl("http://mywebsite.com")) def fillForm(): doc = web.page().mainFrame().documentElement() searchform = doc.findFirst("input[type=text]") searchform.setAttribute("value", "hello") button = doc.findFirst("input[type=submit]") button.evaluateJavaScript("click()") QtCore.QObject.connect(web, QtCore.SIGNAL("loadFinished"), fillForm) web.show() sys.exit(app.exec_())

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• Predefined column names in SQL Server pivot table

  - by Marcos Buarque

  Hi, the other day I opened a topic here in StackOverflow (stackoverflow.com/questions/4663698/how-can-i-display-a-consolidated-version-of-my-sql-server-table). At that time I needed help on how to show data on a pivot table. From the help I got here in the forum, my research led me to this page about dynamic SQL: www.sommarskog.se/dynamic_sql.html. And then it led me to this awesome SQL script by Itzik Ben-Gan that will create a stored procedure that outputs a pivot table exactly the way I want: sommarskog.se/pivot_sp.sp. Well, almost. I need one change in this stored procedure. Instead of having dynamic column names pulled from the @on_cols variable in the SPROC, I need the output table to hold generic column names in simple ASC order. Could be, for example, col1, col2, col3, col4 ... The dynamic column names are a problem for me. So I need them named by their index in the order they appear. I have tried all sorts of things changing this great SQL script, but it won't work. I did not paste the code from the author because it is too long, but the link above will get us there. Any help appreciated. Thank you very much

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• widget within module in Yii

  - by Karolis

  I'm trying to create a widget within the module and then load that widget from 'outside' of the module. More particularly I'm using user module written by someone else. I don't want to have a separate page for displaying a login form, therefore I tried to make a CPortlet/widget (confusion) displaying the login form. Basically, I've moved the code from LoginController into that widget. Then I try to display the widget on some random page by <?php $this->widget('user.components.LoginForm'); ?> However, I get an error CWebApplication does not have a method named "encrypting". in UserIdentity class in this line: else if(Yii::app()->controller->module->encrypting($this->password)!==$user->password) This happens, because I'm basically trying to execute this code within context of the app and not the module. Thus the "Yii::app()-controller-module" trick doesn't really work as expected. What am I doing wrong:-\ Is there a better way to achieve this. I.e. display that login form in some other page, which is normally displayed by accessing login controller within user module (user/login) or is a widget the right way of doing it? Thanks.

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• PHP import functions

  - by ninuhadida

  Hi, I'm trying to find the best pragmatic approach to import functions on the fly... let me explain. Say I have a directory called functions which has these files: array_select.func.php stat_mediam.func.php stat_mean.func.php ..... I would like to: load each individual file (which has a function defined inside) and use it just like an internal php function.. such as array_pop(), array_shift(), etc. Once I stumbled on a tutorial (which I can't find again now) that compiled user defined functions as part of a PHP installation.. Although that's not a very good solution because on shared/reseller hosting you can't recompile the PHP installation. I don't want to have conflicts with future versions of PHP / other extensions, i.e. if a function named X by me, is suddenly part of the internal php functions (even though it might not have the same functionality per se) I don't want PHP to throw a fatal error because of this and fail miserably. So the best method that I can think of is to check if a function is defined, using function_exists(), if so throw a notice so that it's easy to track in the log files, otherwise define the function. However that will probably translate to having a lot of include/require statement in other files where I need such a function, which I don't really like. Or possibly, read the directory and loop over each *.func.php file and include_once. Though I find this a bit ugly. The question is, have you ever stumbled upon some source code which handled such a case? How was it implemented? Did you ever do something similar? I need as much ideas as possible! :)

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• Strange Problem with Webservice and IIS

  - by Rene

  Hello there, I have a Problem which confuses me a little bit, resp. where I don't have any Idea about what it could be. The System I'm using is Windows Vista, IIS 7.0, VS2008, Windows Software Factory, Entity Framework, WCF. The Binding for all Webservices is wshttpbinding. I'm using a Webservice hosted in IIS. This Webservice uses/calls another Webservice (also installed in the IIS). If I use a client calling the first Webservice (which calls the second Webservice) it works fine for about 4-10 Times. And then (it is repeatable to get this Problem, but sometimes it happens after 4, sometimes after 10 Time, but it always will happen), the Service and the IIS gets stuck. Stuck means, that this Webservice isn't callable anymore and generates an timeout after 1 minute. Even increasing Timeout doesn't change anything. If i try to restart the IIS I get an timeout error. So the IIS is also "stuck" (it is not really stuck, but I can't restart it). Only if I kill the w3wp.exe IIS is restartable and the Webservice will work again (until i again call this service several times). The logfiles (i'm no expert in things like logging or where to find/enable such logs, so to say : i'm a newbie) like http-logging, Event Viewer or WCF-Message Logging don't show any hints upon the source of the problem. I don't have this problem when I'm using a Webservice which doesn't call another Service. Calling a Webservice is done by Service Reference (I'm using no Proxy-Classes), but I think this should be no Problem. I have no idea of what is happening, nor how to solve this Problem. Regards Rene

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• iPhone OS: Why is my managedModelObject not complying with Key Value Coding?

  - by nickthedude

  Ok so I'm trying to build this stat tracker for my app and I have built a data model object called statTracker that keeps track of all the stuff I want it to. I can set and retrieve values using the selectors, but if I try and use KVC (ie setValue: forKey: ) everything goes bad and says my StatTracker class is not KVC compliant: valueForUndefinedKey:]: the entity StatTracker is not key value coding-compliant for the key "timesLauched".' 2010-05-18 15:55:08.573 here's the code that is triggering it: NSArray *statTrackerArray = [[NSArray alloc] init]; statTrackerArray = [[CoreDataSingleton sharedCoreDataSingleton] getStatTracker]; NSNumber *number1 = [[NSNumber alloc] init]; number1 = [NSNumber numberWithInt:(1 + [[(StatTracker *)[statTrackerArray objectAtIndex:0] valueForKey:@"timesLauched"] intValue])]; [(StatTracker *)[statTrackerArray objectAtIndex:0] setValue:number1 forKey:@"timesLaunched" ]; NSError *error; if (![[[CoreDataSingleton sharedCoreDataSingleton] managedObjectContext] save:&error]) { NSLog(@"error writing to db"); } Not sure if this is enough code for you folks let me know what you need if you do need more. This would be so sweet if I could use KVC because I could then abstract all this stat tracking stuff into a single method call with a string argument for the value in question. At least that is what I hope to accomplish here. I'm actually now understanding the power of KVC but now I'm just trying to figure out how to make it work. Thanks! Nick

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• Getting Started with Ruby & Ruby on Rails

  - by JakeTheSnake

  Some background: I'm a jack-of-all traits, one of which is programming. I learned VB6 through Excel and PHP for creating websites and so far it's worked out just fine for me. I'm not CS major or even mathematically inclined - logic is what interests me. Current status: I'm willing to learn new and more powerful languages; my first foray into such a route is learning Ruby. I went to the main Ruby website and did the interactive intro. (by the way, I'm currently getting redirected to google.com when I try the link...it's happening to other websites as well...is my computer infected?) I liked what I learned and wanted to get started using Ruby to create websites. I downloaded InstantRails and installed it; everything so far has been fine - the program starts up just fine, and I can test some Ruby code in the console. However my troubles begin when I try and view a web page with Ruby code present. Lastly, my problem: As in PHP, I can browse to the .php file directly and through using PHP tags and some simple 'echo' statements I can be on my way in making dynamic web pages. However with the InstantRails app working, accessing a .rb or .rhtml page doesn't produce similar results. I made a simple text file named 'test.rb' and put basic HTML tags in there (html, head, body) and the Ruby tags <%= and % with some ruby code inside. The web page actually shows the tags and the code - as if it's all just plain HTML. I take it Ruby isn't parsing the page before it is displayed to the user, but this is where my lack of understanding of the Ruby environment stops me short. Where do I go from here?

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• How do I draw the points in an ESRI Polyline, given the bounding box as lat/long and the "points" as

  - by Aaron

  I'm using OpenMap and I'm reading a ShapeFile using com.bbn.openmap.layer.shape.ShapeFile. The bounding box is read in as lat/long points, for example 39.583642,-104.895486. The bounding box is a lower-left point and an upper-right point which represents where the points are contained. The "points," which are named "radians" in OpenMap, are in a different format, which looks like this: [0.69086486, -1.8307719, 0.6908546, -1.8307716, 0.6908518, -1.8307717, 0.69085056, -1.8307722, 0.69084936, -1.8307728, 0.6908477, -1.8307738, 0.69084626, -1.8307749, 0.69084185, -1.8307792]. How do I convert the points like "0.69086486, -1.8307719" into x,y coordinates that are usable in normal graphics? I believe all that's needed here is some kind of conversion, because bringing the points into Excel and graphing them creates a line whose curve matches the curve of the road at the given location (lat/long). However, the axises need to be adjusted manually and I have no reference as how to adjust the axises, since the given bounding box appears to be in a different format than the given points. The ESRI Shapefile technical description doesn't seem to mention this (http://www.esri.com/library/whitepapers/pdfs/shapefile.pdf).

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• Using JSF, PrimeFaces and JPA: Create Basic WebApp without using Generated CRUD Classes, Forms, etc

  - by user2774489

  I am trying to build a basic CRUD application with NetBeans 7.4, JSF, PrimeFaces and JPA using MySQL. I have successfully done this by using the NetBeans wizards. I want to do this from scratch, no wizards. There seems to be a lack of support for the combo of JSF, PrimeFaces and JPA. When I say "lack", I mean a full example (I might be asking too much), without using the CRUD auto-gen templates/classes AND shows actual queries coded and passed to the datatables(primefaces). YouTube is full of non-English speaking examples using Hibernate (not JPA) and other examples that show flashy GUI's with no code. So far I understand you need an @Entity class (provides the physical build of the tables), a Controller (serializable) and the .xhtml web page to show the datatable.. what else? Also, I'm not seeing any posts or examples where queries are using with JPA/JSF and how they are tied together (in one place). I need to connect the dots here so that I can leverage JSF/JPA to create simple queries to populate my PF DataTables. I've read the blogs and I've googled the intranets until I'm blue in the face. Sending me a list of URL's to read to learn about each product is something I've already done. I get what they do independently, but am looking for the "How do they all connect" answer with maybe some basic code examples!! :)

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• What do you need to implement to provide a Content Set for an NSArrayController?

  - by whuuh

  Heys, I am writing something in Xcode. I use Core Data for persistency and link the view and the model together with Cocoa Bindings; pretty much your ordinary Core Data application. I have an array controller (NSArrayController) in my Xib. This has its managedObjectContext bound to the AppDelegate, as is convention, and tracks an entity. So far so good. Now, the "Content Set" biding of this NSArrayController limits its content set (as you'd expect), by a keyPath from the selection in another NSArrayController (otherAc.selection.detailsOfMaster). This is the usual way to implement a Master-Detail relationship. I want to variably change the key path at runtime, using other controls. This way, I sould return a content set that includes several other content sets, which is all advanced and beyond Interface Builder. To achieve this, I think I should bind the Content Set to my AppDelegate instead. I have tried to do this, but don't know what methods to implement. If I just create the KVC methods (objectSet, setObjectSet), then I can provide a Content Set for the Array Controller in the contentSet method. However, I don't think I'm binding this properly, because it doesn't "refresh". I'm new to binding; what do I need to implement to properly update the Content Set when other things, like the selection in the master NSArrayController, changes?

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• how to parametrize an import in a View?

  - by Gianluca Colucci

  Hello everybody, I am looking for some help and I hope that some good soul out there will be able to give me a hint :) In the app I am building, I have a View. When an instance of this View gets created, it "imports" (MEF) the corresponding ViewModel. Here some code: public partial class ContractEditorView : Window { public ContractEditorView () { InitializeComponent(); CompositionInitializer.SatisfyImports(this); } [Import(ViewModelTypes.ContractEditorViewModel)] public object ViewModel { set { DataContext = value; } } } and here is the export for the ViewModel: [PartCreationPolicy(CreationPolicy.NonShared)] [Export(ViewModelTypes.ContractEditorViewModel)] public class ContractEditorViewModel: ViewModelBase { public ContractEditorViewModel() { _contract = new Models.Contract(); } } Now, this works if I want to open a new window to create a new contract... But it does not if I want to use the same window to edit an existing contract... In other words, I would like to add a second construct both in the View and in the ViewModel: the original constructor would accept no parameters and therefore it would create a new contract; the new construct - the one I'd like to add - I'd like to pass an ID so that I can load a given entity... What I don't understand is how to pass this ID to the ViewModel import... Thanks in advance, Cheers, Gianluca.

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• Port Win32 DLL hook to Linux

  - by peachykeen

  I have a program (NWShader) which hooks into a second program's OpenGL calls (NWN) to do post-processing effects and whatnot. NWShader was originally built for Windows, generally modern versions (win32), and uses both DLL exports (to get Windows to load it and grab some OpenGL functions) and Detours (to hook into other functions). I'm using the trick where Win will look in the current directory for any DLLs before checking the sysdir, so it loads mine. I have on DLL that redirects with this method: #pragma comment(linker, "/export:oldFunc=nwshader.newFunc) To send them to a different named function in my own DLL. I then do any processing and call the original function from the system DLL. I need to port NWShader to Linux (NWN exists in both flavors). As far as I can tell, what I need to make is a shared library (.so file). If this is preloaded before the NWN executable (I found a shell script to handle this), my functions will be called. The only problem is I need to call the original function (I would use various DLL dynamic loading methods for this, I think) and need to be able to do Detour-like hooking of internal functions. At the moment I'm building on Ubuntu 9.10 x64 (with the 32-bit compiler flags). I haven't been able to find much on Google to help with this, but I don't know exactly what the *nix community refers to it as. I can code C++, but I'm more used to Windows. Being OpenGL, the only part the needs modified to be compatible with Linux is the hooking code and the calls. Is there a simple and easy way to do this, or will it involve recreating Detours and dynamically loading the original function addresses?

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• sql query - how to apply limit within group by

  - by Raj

  hey guys assuming i have a table named t1 with following fields: ROWID, CID, PID, Score, SortKey it has the following data: 1, C1, P1, 10, 1 2, C1, P2, 20, 2 3, C1, P3, 30, 3 4, C2, P4, 20, 3 5, C2, P5, 30, 2 6, C3, P6, 10, 1 7, C3, P7, 20, 2 what query do i write so that it applies group by on CID, but instead of returning me 1 single result per group, it returns me a max of 2 results per group. also where condition is score = 20 and i want the results ordered by CID and SortKey. If I had to run my query on above data, i would expect the following result: RESULTS FOR C1 - note: ROWID 1 is not considered as its score < 20 C1, P2, 20, 2 C1, P3, 30, 3 RESULTS FOR C2 - note: ROWID 5 appears before ROWID 4 as ROWID 5 has lesser value SortKey C2, P5, 30, 2 C2, P4, 20, 3 RESULTS FOR C3 - note: ROWID 6 does not appear as its score is less than 20 so only 1 record returned here C3, P7, 20, 2 IN SHORT, I WANT A LIMIT WITHIN A GROUP BY. I want the simplest solution and want to avoid temp tables. sub queries are fine. also note i am using sqlite for this

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• How do I use IIS6 style metabase paths in IIS7 AppCmd tool?

  - by Mike Atlas

  I'm currently in the process of upgrading old II6 automation scripts that use the IISVdir tool to create/modify/update apps and virtual directories, and replacing them with AppCmd for IIS7. The IIS6, "IISVDir" commands reference paths in that are from the metabase, eg, "/W3SVC/1/ROOT/MyApp" - where 1 is ID of the "Default Web Site" site. The command doesn't actually require the display name of the site to make changes to it. This works well, since on a different language OS, the "Default Web Site" site name could be named, for example, "??? Web ???" or anything else for that matter. But this flexibility is lost if AppCmd can only reference "Default Web Site" via its name, and not a language-neutral identifier. So, how can I script AppCmd to refer to sites, vdirs and apps using language neutral identifiers to reference the "Default App Site"? Perhaps I need to start creating my own site instead, from the start, and name it something else specific, and stop using "Default Web Site" as the root? (Disclosure: I only have a IIS7-English machine that I am working on currently, but I have both IIS6-English and IIS6-Japanese machines for testing my old scripts - so perhaps it really is just "Default Web Site" still on Win2k8-Japanese?)

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• Bulk insert of component collection in Hibernate?

  - by edbras

  I have the mapping as listed below. When I update a detached Categories item (that doesn't contain any Hibernate class as it comes from a dto converter) I notice that Hibernate will first delete ALL employer wages instances (the collection link) and then insert ALL employer wage entries ONE-BY-ONE :(... I understand that it has to delete and then insert all entries as it was completely detached. BUT, what I don't understand, why is Hibernate NOT inserting all the entries through bulk-insert?.. That is: inserting all the employer wage entries all in one SQL statement ? How can I tell Hibernate to use bulk-insert? (if possible). I tried playing with the following value but didn't see any difference: hibernate.jdbc.batch_size=30 My mapping snippet: <class name="com.sample.CategoriesDefault" table="dec_cats" > <id name="id" column="id" type="string" length="40" access="property"> <generator class="assigned" /> </id> <component name="incomeInfoMember" class="com.sample.IncomeInfoDefault"> <property name="hasWage" type="boolean" column="inMemWage"/> ... <component name="wage" class="com.sample.impl.WageDefault"> <property name="hasEmployerWage" type="boolean" column="inMemEmpWage"/> ... <set name="employerWages" cascade="all-delete-orphan" lazy="false"> <key column="idCats" not-null="true" /> <one-to-many entity-name="mIWaEmp"/> </set> </component> </component> </class>

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• What are the hibernate annotations used to persist a value typed Map with an enumerated type as a ke

  - by Jason Novak

  I am having trouble getting the right hibernate annotations to use on a value typed Map with an enumerated class as a key. Here is a simplified (and extremely contrived) example. public class Thing { public String id; public Letter startLetter; public Map<Letter,Double> letterCounts = new HashMap<Letter, Double>(); } public enum Letter { A, B, C, D } Here are my current annotations on Thing @Entity public class Thing { @Id public String id; @Enumerated(EnumType.STRING) public Letter startLetter; @CollectionOfElements @JoinTable(name = "Thing_letterFrequencies", joinColumns = @JoinColumn(name = "thingId")) @MapKey(columns = @Column(name = "letter", nullable = false)) @Column(name = "count") public Map<Letter,Double> letterCounts = new HashMap<Letter, Double>(); } Hibernate generates the following DDL to create the tables for my MySql database create table Thing (id varchar(255) not null, startLetter varchar(255), primary key (id)) type=InnoDB; create table Thing_letterFrequencies (thingId varchar(255) not null, count double precision, letter tinyblob not null, primary key (thingId, letter)) type=InnoDB; Notice that hibernate tries to define letter (my map key) as a tinyblob, however it defines startLetter as a varchar(255) even though both are of the enumerated type Letter. When I try to create the tables I see the following error BLOB/TEXT column 'letter' used in key specification without a key length I googled this error and it appears that MySql has issues when you try to make a tinyblob column part of a primary key, which is what hibernate needs to do with the Thing_letterFrequencies table. So I would rather have letter mapped to a varchar(255) the way startLetter is. Unfortunately, I've been fussing with the MapKey annotation for a while now and haven't been able to make this work. I've also tried @MapKeyManyToMany(targetEntity=Product.class) without success. Can anyone tell me what are the correct annotations for my letterCounts map so that hibernate will treat the letterCounts map key the same way it does startLetter?

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• Trouble with object injection in Spring.Net

  - by Abdel Olakara

  Hi all, I have a issue with my Spring.Net configuration where its not injecting an object. I have a CommService to which an object named GeneralEmail is injected to. Here is the configuration: <!-- GeneralMail Object --> <object id="GeneralMailObject" type="CommUtil.Email.GeneralEmail, CommUtil"> <constructor-arg name="host" value="xxxxx.com"/> <constructor-arg name="port" value="25"/> <constructor-arg name="user" value="[email protected]"/> <constructor-arg name="password" value="xxxxx"/> <constructor-arg name="template" value="xxxxx"/> </object> <!-- Communication Service --> <object id="CommServiceObject" type="TApp.Code.Services.CommService, TApp"> <property name="emailService" ref="GeneralMailObject" /> </object> The communication service object is again injected to many other aspx pages & service. In one scenario, I need to call the commnucation service from an static WebMethod. I try doing: CommService cso = new CommService(); But when i try to get the emailService object, its null! why didn't the spring inject the GeneralMail object into my cso object? What am I doing wrong and how do I access the object from spring container. Thanks in advance for the suggestions and solutions. Reagrds, Abdel Olakara

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• Is it possible to add JPA annotation to superclass instance variables?

  - by Kristofer Borgstrom

  Hi, I am creating entities that are the same for two different tables. In order do table mappings etc. different for the two entities but only have the rest of the code in one place - an abstract superclass. The best thing would be to be able to annotate generic stuff such as column names (since the will be identical) in the super class but that does not work because JPA annotations are not inherited by child classes. Here is an example: public abstract class MyAbstractEntity { @Column(name="PROPERTY") //This will not be inherited and is therefore useless here protected String property; public String getProperty() { return this.property; } //setters, hashCode, equals etc. methods } Which I would like to inherit and only specify the child-specific stuff, like annotations: @Entity @Table(name="MY_ENTITY_TABLE") public class MyEntity extends MyAbstractEntity { //This will not work since this field does not override the super class field, thus the setters and getters break. @Column(name="PROPERTY") protected String property; } Any ideas or will I have to create fields, getters and setters in the child classes? Thanks, Kris

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