Search Results

Search found 111079 results on 4444 pages for 'user generated content'.

Page 374/4444 | < Previous Page | 370 371 372 373 374 375 376 377 378 379 380 381  | Next Page >

  • MS Excel automation without macros in the generated reports. Any thoughts?

    - by ezeki77
    Hello! I know that the web is full of questions like this one, but I still haven't been able to apply the answers I can find to my situation. I realize there is VBA, but I always disliked having the program/macro living inside the Excel file, with the resulting bloat, security warnings, etc. I'm thinking along the lines of a VBScript that works on a set of Excel files while leaving them macro-free. Now, I've been able to "paint the first column blue" for all files in a directory following this approach, but I need to do more complex operations (charts, pivot tables, etc.), which would be much harder (impossible?) with VBScript than with VBA. For this specific example knowing how to remove all macros from all files after processing would be enough, but all suggestions are welcome. Any good references? Any advice on how to best approach external batch processing of Excel files will be appreciated. Thanks! PS: I eagerly tried Mark Hammond's great PyWin32 package, but the lack of documentation and interpreter feedback discouraged me.

    Read the article

  • How to zoom IFRAME content only without using a frame set?

    - by Baskaran
    I need to zoom frame content only. Here in my web page I used zoom: 0.75; height: 520px; width: 800px;. If I increase the zoom value it means that the frame size will be increased. <HTML> <HEAD> <TITLE> New Document </TITLE> <STYLE> #frame { width: 800px; height: 520px; border: 1px solid black; } #frame { zoom: 0.75; -moz-transform: scale(0.75); -moz-transform-origin: 0 0; } </STYLE> </HEAD> <BODY> <IFRAME id="frame" src="http://www.google.com"></IFRAME> </BODY> </HTML> In the above sample HTML page I want to zoom the content of the IFRAME without changing the size of that IFRAME.

    Read the article

  • How do I change from locally generated File in Silverlight to a Website?

    - by Kris Erickson
    Because I want to do things like load images from the web, I guess I need to move my Silverlight project from using a default file to some kind of web package. I don't really want an ASP .Net site, in fact, I totally don't want an ASP.Net site and yet I want to be able to develop and load images from the web. How do I move my development files to a website and still be able to compile, debug, etc from Visual Studio?

    Read the article

  • Finding shared list IDs in a MySQL table using bitwise operands

    - by landons
    I want to find items in common from the "following_list" column in a table of users: +----+--------------------+-------------------------------------+ | id | name | following_list | +----+--------------------+-------------------------------------+ | 9 | User 1 | 26,6,12,10,21,24,19,16 | | 10 | User 2 | 21,24 | | 12 | User 3 | 9,20,21,26,30 | | 16 | User 4 | 6,52,9,10 | | 19 | User 5 | 9,10,6,24 | | 21 | User 6 | 9,10,6,12 | | 24 | User 7 | 9,10,6 | | 46 | User 8 | 45 | | 52 | User 9 | 10,12,16,21,19,20,18,17,23,25,24,22 | +----+--------------------+-------------------------------------+ I was hoping to be able to sort by the number of matches for a given user id. For example, I want to match all users except #9 against #9 to see which of the IDs in the "following_list" column they have in common. I found a way of doing this through the "SET" datatype and some bit trickery: http://dev.mysql.com/tech-resources/articles/mysql-set-datatype.html#bits However, I need to do this on an arbitrary list of IDs. I was hoping this could be done entirely through the database, but this is a little out of my league. Any bit gurus out there? Thanks, Landon

    Read the article

  • Why is an anonymous inner class containing nothing generated from this code?

    - by Andrew Westberg
    When run through javac on the cmd line Sun JVM 1.6.0_20, this code produces 6 .class files OuterClass.class OuterClass$1.class OuterClass$InnerClass.class OuterClass$InnerClass2.class OuterClass$InnerClass$InnerInnerClass.class OuterClass$PrivateInnerClass.class When run through JDT in eclipse, it produces only 5 classes. OuterClass.class OuterClass$1.class OuterClass$InnerClass.class OuterClass$InnerClass2.class OuterClass$InnerClass$InnerInnerClass.class OuterClass$PrivateInnerClass.class When decompiled, OuterClass$1.class contains nothing. Where is this extra class coming from and why is it created? package com.test; public class OuterClass { public class InnerClass { public class InnerInnerClass { } } public class InnerClass2 { } //this class should not exist in OuterClass after dummifying private class PrivateInnerClass { private String getString() { return "hello PrivateInnerClass"; } } public String getStringFromPrivateInner() { return new PrivateInnerClass().getString(); } }

    Read the article

  • How do large sites accomplish row-level permissions?

    - by JayD3e
    So I am making a small site using cakephp, and my ACL is set up so that every time a piece of content is created, an ACL rule is created to link the owner of the piece of content to the actual content. This allows each owner to edit/delete their own content. This method just seems so inefficient, because there is an equivalent amount of ACL rules as content in the database. I was curious, how do big sites, with millions of pieces of content, solve this problem?

    Read the article

  • In what cases should I install (and configure) Postfix as a desktop user?

    - by Gonzalo
    Possible cases: 1) I plan to do Debian packaging (this case is the motivation since postfix gets installed as a dependency of some development packages, so it means that in such a case might be necessary). 2) I plan to use Evolution and a Internet provider mail account. 3) I plan to use gmail. Surely if I read Postfix documentation I may find the answer, but its huge and couldn't find it. In any case how (or where) should I find the answer to a question like that by myself? (I really tried)

    Read the article

  • How do I clear a WebView's content before loading a page?

    - by Mark
    I have an embedded WebView in my Cocoa application in which I load an external web page. Each time the user clicks on a button, the view opens and shows the page. The problem is that the second time the user opens the WebView, the previous page is still visible. Instead I'd like to show a blank/empty page (together with a progress indicator). How can I clear a WebView before loading a new page? The closest solution I could find was to call this: [webView stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString:@"document.open();document.close()"]; Is there a better way to do this? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Pass information to php file from javascript while restricting user from doing it their self?

    - by Sean Madigan
    I am making a game where the battle system uses javascript to battle. At the end of the battle you either win or lose. If the user wins, I need to update the mysql database with the XP they earned. The best way I can think of doing this is to have the javascript run an ajax function when the user wins that POSTs something like addxp.php?amount=235, but if I do that then the user can easilly look at the source and see that they can just enter in that page themself to update their xp without battling. But this is the only way I know how to do it? Help please :-/

    Read the article

  • Do I need to Salt and Hash a randomly generated token?

    - by wag2639
    I'm using Adam Griffiths's Authentication Library for CodeIgniter and I'm tweaking the usermodel. I came across a generate function that he uses to generate tokens. His preferred approach is to reference a value from random.org but I considered that superfluous. I'm using his fall back approach of randomly generating a 20 character long string: $length = 20; $characters = '0123456789abcdefghijklmnopqrstuvwxyzABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ'; $token = ''; for ($i = 0; $i < $length; $i++) { $token .= $characters[mt_rand(0, strlen($characters)-1)]; } He then hashes this token using a salt (I'm combing code from different functions) sha1($this->CI->config->item('encryption_key').$str); I was wondering if theres any reason to to run the token through the salted hash? I've read that simply randomly generating strings was a naive way of making random passwords but is the sh1 hash and salt necessary? Note: I got my encryption_key from https://www.grc.com/passwords.htm (63 random alpha-numeric)

    Read the article

  • php code for geeting paramenter and image from the post request

    - by abdulsamad
    Hi all can any one guide me how to get parameter specially image from the given post request. --0xKhTmLbOuNdArY Content-Disposition: form-data; name="source" lighttable --0xKhTmLbOuNdArY Content-Disposition: form-data; name="title" Google (The top search engine). --0xKhTmLbOuNdArY Content-Disposition: form-data; name="isbn" 9780077282073 --0xKhTmLbOuNdArY Content-Disposition: form-data; name="price" 5 --0xKhTmLbOuNdArY Content-Disposition: form-data; name="condition" Execlent --0xKhTmLbOuNdArY Content-Disposition: form-data; name="media" Content-Type: image/jpg Content-Transfer-Encoding: binary ÿØÿà NoTE:: ÿØÿà is the image in that request.

    Read the article

  • How to use jquery ui slider to create a pagination effect and load the content in a <DIV>?

    - by jsust
    I want to create a pagination script using jquery UI's slider widget. So far I have got the slider working but I dont know how to send request to the server to fetch new content. So far I have a working slider <!DOCTYPE html> <html lang="en"> <head> <meta charset="UTF-8" /> <title>jQuery UI Slider - Range slider</title> <link type="text/css" href="themes/base/jquery.ui.all.css" rel="stylesheet" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.ui.core.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.ui.widget.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.ui.mouse.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.ui.slider.js"></script> <style type="text/css"> body { padding:5em; } </style> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $("#slider-range").slider({ min: 1, max: 14, values: [1], slide: function(event, ui) { $(".values").html(ui.values[0];); } }); }); </script> </head> <body> <div class="values" style="padding:2em;"></div> <div id="slider-range"></div> <div class="info" style="margin-top:2em; background:#CCC;padding:2em;"> Here is where the content will be displayed. </div> </body> Thanks in Advance

    Read the article

  • How to Get Search Bar in Tableview to Appear When User Taps Search Icon at the top of sectionIndex s

    - by Gorgando
    I have a tableview with an indexed scrollbar on the right side that shows the letters A-Z and has a magnifying glass icon at the top ({search}). All of the letters in the scrollbar appropriately take the user to the corresponding section except for the magnifying glass, which takes the user to "A" and keeps the searchBar hidden. I just want it to go to the very top of the table so that the searchBar shows up when the user taps the magnifying glass icon in the scroll bar. I've been looking all over for ways to do this, but I can't find any way shy of adding the searchBar to the first tableCell and it's own section, which I'd prefer not to do unless it's the only way. Thanks so much!

    Read the article

  • Ruby on Rails: How can I authenticate different user types from one place?

    - by sscirrus
    Hi everyone! This is my first post on Stack Overflow. I am trying to build a system that authenticates three types of user with completely different site experiences: Customers, Employers, and Vendors. I'm thinking of using a polymorphic 'User' table (using AuthLogic) with username, password, and user_type (+ AuthLogic's other required fields). If this is a good way to go, how do I set this up so after authenticating an user_id with a user_type the standard way, I can direct the user to the page that's right for them? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Publishing content to multiple (unknown) domains using Open Graph?

    - by Beau Lebens
    I'm working on an application that publishes content ('articles') on a variety of URLs, which are all controlled by the same WordPress installation (mapped domains, all powered by the same set of code/part of a network). All of the publishing is done through one central Facebook App. I have no idea what the domains for these URLS are going to be, since they are controlled by our users who register domains and then configure them within their account on our service. When I attempt to use Open Graph to publish content on one of these sites (that has a customized domain), they are rejected with the following error (error code 1611028): Object at URL * * * * of type 'article' is invalid because the domain '* * * ' is not allowed for the specified application id ' * * *'. You can verify your configured 'App Domain' at.... Since I can't enter all of the domains into Facebook, and since they are not derived from my App URL anyway, is there any way that I can have this work? Some sort of magic OG tag I can put in the pages or something? Or is it just not possible to do what I'm trying to do?

    Read the article

  • How do I post back information from a webpage that has post-generated content?

    - by meanbunny
    Ok so I am very new to html and the web. Right now I am trying to generate list items on the fly and then have them post back to the web server so I know what the person is trying to obtain. Here is the code for generating the list items: foreach (var item in dataList) { MyDataList.InnerHtml += "<li><a runat='server' onclick='li_Click' id='" + item.Name + "-button'></a></li>"; } Further down I have my click event. protected void li_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //How do I determine here which item was actually clicked? } My question is how do I determine which list item was clicked? Btw, the code running behind is C#. EDIT 1 LinkButton link = new LinkButton(); link.ID = "all-button"; link.Text = "All"; link.Click += new EventHandler(link_Click); MyDataList.Controls.Add(link); Then below I have my link_Click event that never seems to hit a breakpoint. void link_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (sender != null) { if (sender.GetType() == typeof(LinkButton)) { LinkButton button = (LinkButton)sender; if (button.ID == "all-button") { } } } } I know this has to be possible I just cant figure out what I am missing. Edit 2 Ok ok I think I know what the problem is. I was trying to add a second list inside of another list. This was causing the whole thing to have problems. It is working now.

    Read the article

  • How does one validate html that's generated from JS running in the browser?

    - by Henry Rose
    The page in question has very skeletal html sent over the wire to facilitate the building of a complicated UI in javascript. I'm now encountering a strange browser compatibility issue that feels very much like I've got a markup problem somewhere on the page. I've validated the page as it comes across the wire using the W3C tool and ensured there are no issues in that html. I've also tried validating the output of running on the browser console: document.getElementsByTagName('html')[0].outerHTML I find that the output of the above introduces lots of new issues, such as removing the trailing '/' in self closing tags. This added noise is distracting, but it also makes me uneasy about validating this method. How do you validate markup that's rendered client side?

    Read the article

  • Serve up syntactic XHTML5 using the text/html MIME type?

    - by cboettig
    I have a site currently written with HTML5 tags. I'd like to be able to parse the site as XML, with support for namespaces, etc, to facilitate programmatic extraction of data. Currently I have <!DOCTYPE html> and <meta charset="utf-8"> Which I gather is equivalent in HTML5 to explicitly setting the content-types as <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> for my current setup. In order to serve XML it sounds like the right thing to do is <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> Should I also change my Content-Type to <meta http-equiv="content-type" content="application/xhtml+xml; charset=iso-8859-1" /> Or is that not necessary? What is the advantage of having content-type be "application/xhtml+xml"? What is the disadvantage? (Sounds like it may break internet explorer rendering of the site? but maybe that information is out of date now?) Many thanks!

    Read the article

  • How? Encrypt and Decrypt user membership passwords in ASP.NET

    - by smdrager
    We are creating a new site using ASP.NET membership provider for user registration and log in. Our old system encrypted user passwords so that we could recover them if we needed to. I am having a great deal of trouble figuring out if it is possible to use ASP.NET membership functions to simply encrypt the password when the user registers and then unencrypt it so I can see it. Documentation for this is neigh non-existant. I know how to configure Web.config to have it store passwords as encrypted ala passwordFormat="Hashed" in the provider and assigning a validationKey in the machineKey, however it seems like the password still gets hashed (though perhaps it is just well encrypted). Either way I cannot decifer how the password can be recovered (by us) if neccessary. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • What is the best way to setup my tables and relationships for this use case?

    - by Dustin Brewer
    1)A user can have many causes and a cause can belong to many users. 2)A user can have many campaigns and campaigns can belong to many users. Campaigns belong to one cause. I want to be able to assign causes or campaigns to a given user, individually. So a user can be assigned a specific campaign. OR a user could be assigned a cause and all of the campaigns of that cause should then be associated with a user. Is that possible? And could I set it up so that the relationships could be simplified like so: User.causes = all causes that belong to a user User.campaigns = all campaigns that belong to user whether through a cause association or campaign association

    Read the article

  • EXCEL - Locking a Cell from User input whilst allowing a Linked combobox?

    - by Christopher Leach
    I have a Protected Worksheet which is a checklist with a series of checkpoints. Each row has Item and Description cells that are locked. Each row has several columns with its contents to be set by a ComboBox and a text input column. Both i have left unlocked. I have Locked the the Item and Description columns and left only the 'Select Unlocked Cells' checked via Sheet Protection. I have one ComboBox on the worksheet that moves around and adjusts its LinkedCell and its Content list using the worksheets SelectionChanged event. When the user selects a cell to bring up the drop down list, the user is able to type into the cell and the Drop Down Box disappears. What is the best way to keep the cell unlocked so it can be selectable(as 'Select Locked Cells" is unchecked) however stop the user from being able to type in the cell and to allow the cells contents to become modifiable only via the ComboBox?

    Read the article

  • Strange data swapping error occurs when I attempt to update rows in my table from another table in m

    - by Wesley
    So I have a table of data that is 10,000 lines long. Several of the columns in the table simply describe information about one of the columns, meaning, that only one column has the content, and the rest of the columns describe the location of the content (its for a book). Right now, only 6,000 of the 10,000 rows' content column is filled with its content. Rows 6-10,000's content column simply says null. I have another table in the db that has the content for rows 6,000-10,000, with the correct corresponding primary key which would (seemingly) make it easy to update the 10,000 row table. I have been trying an update query such as the following: UPDATE table(10,000) SET content_column = (SELECT content FROM table(6,000-10,000) WHERE table(10,000).id = table(6-10,000.id) Which kind of works, the only problem is that it pulls in the data from the second table just fine, but it replaces the existing content column with null. So rows 1-6,000's content column become null, and rows 6-10,000's content column have the correct values...Pretty strange I thought anyway. Does anybody have any thoughts about where I am going wrong? If you could show me a better sql query, I would appreciate it! Thanks

    Read the article

  • Adapting the width of a Flexs 3 DataGridColumn to the content of its ItemRenderer ?

    - by phtrivier
    I have the following scenario : A Flex 3 DataGrid is sitting here At runtime, a column is added to this grid The column has a custom ItemRenderer The ItemRenderer inherits from HBox, and adds a few items to the HBOx dynamically My problem is that the width of the column doesn't change. As a consequence, my column stays small, and an ugly horizontal scrollbar is displayed in the line, instead of my content (which is completely unreadable). I would like the column to adapt its width to the content of the HBox in the ItemRenderer. I tried the following : Setting the 'percentWidth' of the ItemRenderer to '100' Invalidating the properties of the ItemRenderer after adding the items The only thing that has a "visible" effect it to force the width of the DataGridColumn. Obviously this is not acceptable since I'm dynamically adding components to the ItemRenderer, and I don't know how many or how big they are. Besides, when I am in the ItemRenderer, I have no access to the column itself (or do I ?) so I cannot force the size of the column from here. So is there a way around this ? Would AdvancedDataGrid help here (notwhistanding the fact that I cannot really use it for other reasons ...) Thanks PH

    Read the article

  • How to run .run files? Not a root user

    - by user108056
    I have a Nvidia driver in my computer(Asus K55V Series) but it's missing the programe to run it so i can't use it. So i have downloaded the programe for nvidia through Http://www.nvidia.com/Download/index.aspx?lang=en-us but it's a .run file and i don't have programmes to run it. Product Type: GeForce Product Series: GeForce 600MSeries (Notebooks) Product: GeForce GT 630M Operating System: Linux 32bits (ubuntu) Language: I'm portuguese so i've selected Português (Brasil) but it doesn't really matter in the instalation. Help!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 370 371 372 373 374 375 376 377 378 379 380 381  | Next Page >