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• Needed environment for building gstreamer plugins in Windows

  - by utnapistim

  Hi, I've been strugling for two weeks to create an environment for building a gstreamer plugin on windows (needed for a songbird addon). I've installed MSYS, MinGW and Cygwin, then installed GStreamer OSSBuild, and I also downloaded the sources for Songbird, which come with their own precompiled version of gstreamer. I was unable to run gst-inspect (or any other gstreamer applications) from the songbird sources and I figured I will settle for OSSBuild. When following the instructions for building a GST plugin (found here) through, cygwin will not recognize the OSSBuild and the build fails when running autogen, with the following error: checking for GST... no configure: error: You need to install or upgrade the GStreamer development packages on your system. On debian-based systems these are libgstreamer0.10-dev and libgstreamer-plugins-base0.10-dev. on RPM-based systems gstreamer0.10-devel, libgstreamer0.10-devel or similar. The minimum version required is 0.10.16. configure failed I could also not use MSYS or MinGW as they are unable to run autogen at all. I understand that cygwin should have it's own gstreamer development packages but I couldn't find how to install them. My question: How do I install the gstreamer packages in cygwin or how do I build using cygwin with the OSSBuild dependencies? In short, how do I get an environment where I can build a gstreamer plugin under windows?

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• hiding buttons in master page

  - by pankaj

  Hi, I am working on an app where i am having some linkbuttons in master page. I want to display them depending upon the authorization given to them once they logs in. I have initially made all of them visible false and then i am checking the authorisation in the aspx.cs class of master page. I make the link button visible depending upon the right granted to the user. But it is making all the link buttons visible. Instead it should only make two of them visible and rest should be hidden. Following is my code from MasterPage.aspx.cs: ArrayList arrlstUserRoles = new ArrayList(); arrlstUserRoles = (ArrayList)Session["Roles"]; for (int j = 0; j < arrlstUserRoles.Count; j++) { if (int.Parse(arrlstUserRoles[j].ToString()) == 1) { lbtnRetailer.Visible = true; } else if (int.Parse(arrlstUserRoles[j].ToString()) == 2) { lbtnCategory.Visible = true; } else if (int.Parse(arrlstUserRoles[j].ToString()) == 3) { lbtnCouponTemplate.Visible = true; } else if (int.Parse(arrlstUserRoles[j].ToString()) == 4) { //lbtnStoreManagement.Visible = true; } else if (int.Parse(arrlstUserRoles[j].ToString()) == 5) { lbtnStoreManagement.Visible = true; } else if (int.Parse(arrlstUserRoles[j].ToString()) == 6) { lbtnContentManagement.Visible = true; } else if (int.Parse(arrlstUserRoles[j].ToString()) == 7) { //lbtnStoreManagement.Visible = true; } }

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• SVN marking file production ready

  - by dan.codes

  I am kind of new to SVN, I haven't used it in detail basically just checking out trunk and committing then exporting and deploying. I am working on a big project now with several developers and we are looking for the best deployment process. The one thing we are hung up on is the best way to tag, branch and so on. We are used to CVS where all you have to do is commit a file and tag it as production ready and if not that code will not get deployed. I see that SVN handles tagging differently then CVS. I figure I am looking at this and making it overly complex. It seems the only way to work on a project and commit files without it being in the production code is to do it in a branch and then merge those changes when you are ready for it to be deployed. I am assuming you could also be working on other code that should be deployed so you would have to be switching between working copies, because otherwise you are working on a branch that isn't getting mixed in with the trunk or production branch? This process seems overly complex and I was wondering if anyone could give me what you think is the best process for managing this.

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• PHP JQuery: Where to specify uploadify destination folder

  - by Eamonn

  I have an uploadify script running, basic setup. Works fine when I hard code the destination folder for the images into uploadify.php - now I want to make that folder dynamic. How do I do this? I have a PHP variable $uploadify_path which contains the path to the folder I want. I have switched out my hard coded $targetPath = path/to/directory for $targetPath = $uploadify_path in both uploadify.php and check_exists.php, but it does not work. The file upload animation runs, says it is complete, yet the directory remains empty. The file is not hiding out somewhere else either. I see there is an option in the Javascript to specify a folder. I tried this also, but to no avail. If anyone could educate me on how to pass this variable destination to uploadify, I'd be very grateful. I include my current code for checking (basically default): The Javascript <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $('#file_upload').uploadify({ 'swf' : 'uploadify/uploadify.swf', 'uploader' : 'uploadify/uploadify.php', // Put your options here }); }); </script> uploadify.php $targetPath = $_SERVER['DOCUMENT_ROOT'] . $uploadify_path; // Relative to the root if (!empty($_FILES)) { $tempFile = $_FILES['Filedata']['tmp_name']; $targetFile = $targetPath . $_FILES['Filedata']['name']; // Validate the file type $fileTypes = array('jpg','jpeg','gif','png'); // File extensions $fileParts = pathinfo($_FILES['Filedata']['name']); if (in_array($fileParts['extension'],$fileTypes)) { move_uploaded_file($tempFile,$targetFile); echo '1'; } else { echo 'Invalid file type.'; } }

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• linux raw socket programming question

  - by user194420

  Hi all, I am trying to create a raw socket which send and receive message with ip/tcp header under linux. I can successfully binds to a port and receive tcp message(ie:syn) However, the message seems to be handled by the os, but not mine. I am just a reader of it(like wireshark). My raw socket binds to port 8888, and then i try to telnet to that port . In wireshark, it shows that the port 8888 reply a "rst ack" when it receive the "syn" request. In my program, it shows that it receive a new message and it doesnot reply with any message. Any way to actually binds to that port?(prevent os handle it) Here is part of my code, i try to cut those error checking for easy reading sockfd = socket(AF_INET, SOCK_RAW, IPPROTO_TCP); int tmp = 1; const int *val = &tmp; setsockopt (sockfd, IPPROTO_IP, IP_HDRINCL, val, sizeof (tmp)); servaddr.sin_family = AF_INET; servaddr.sin_addr.s_addr = htonl(INADDR_ANY); servaddr.sin_port = htons(8888); bind(sockfd, (struct sockaddr*)&servaddr, sizeof(servaddr)); //call recv in loop

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• PHP check http referer for form submitted by AJAX, secure?

  - by Michael Mao

  Hi all: This is the first time I am working for a front-end project that requires server-side authentication for AJAX requests. I've encountered problems like I cannot make a call of session_start as the beginning line of the "destination page", cuz that would get me a PHP Warning : Warning: session_start() [function.session-start]: Cannot send session cache limiter - headers already sent (output started at C:\xampp\htdocs\comic\app\ajaxInsert Book.php:1) in C:\xampp\htdocs\comic\app\common.php on line 10 I reckon this means I have to figure out a way other than checking PHP session variables to authenticate the "caller" of this PHP script, and this is my approach : I have a "protected" PHP page, which must be used as the "container" of my javascript that posts the form through jQuery $.ajax(); method In my "receiver" PHP script, what I've got is: <?php define(BOOKS_TABLE, "books"); define(APPROOT, "/comic/"); define(CORRECT_REFERER, "/protected/staff/addBook.php"); function isRefererCorrect() { // the following line evaluates the relative path for the referer uri, // Say, $_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'] returns "http://localhost/comic/protected/staff/addBook.php" // Then the part we concern is just this "/protected/staff/addBook.php" $referer = substr($_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'], 6 + strrpos($_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'], APPROOT)); return (strnatcmp(CORRECT_REFERER, $referer) == 0) ? true : false; } //http://stackoverflow.com/questions/267546/correct-http-header-for-json-file header('Content-type: application/json charset=UTF-8'); header('Cache-Control: no-cache, must-revalidate'); echo json_encode(array ( "feedback"=>"ok", "info"=>isRefererCorrect() )); ?> My code works, but I wonder is there any security risks in this approach? Can someone manipulate the post request so that he can pretend that the caller javascript is from the "protected" page? Many thanks to any hints or suggestions.

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• How to access global variable in a view in Ruby on Rails?

  - by ben

  I have a User model. I have a Session controller, in which I have a global user variable that is assigned as follows: $user = User.authenticate(params[:session][:email], params[:session][:password]) (I've made user global just to try to solve this problem, so if there's a better way please let me know!) I need to use the email of the logged in user as a parameter to send to Flex part of my website. At the moment I'm creating the link as follows: <%= link_to "secondpage", secondpage_path(:email => @session.$user.email) But I'm getting the following error: compile error /Users/benhartney/rails_projects/talk/app/views/layouts/_header.html.erb:12: syntax error, unexpected tGVAR ..._path(:email = @session.$user.email) ).to_s); @output_buffe... There's also a little arrow pointing at $user If I remove the $ from $user, I get this error: undefined method `user' for nil:NilClass If I remove the (:email => @session.user.email) part, everything works fine, so I think all of the code except for this is ok. Can anyone tell me what I'm doing wrong? Thanks for reading!

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• VB.NET class inherits a base class and implements an interface issue (works in C#)

  - by 300 baud

  I am trying to create a class in VB.NET which inherits a base abstract class and also implements an interface. The interface declares a string property called Description. The base class contains a string property called Description. The main class inherits the base class and implements the interface. The existence of the Description property in the base class fulfills the interface requirements. This works fine in C# but causes issues in VB.NET. First, here is an example of the C# code which works: public interface IFoo { string Description { get; set; } } public abstract class FooBase { public string Description { get; set; } } public class MyFoo : FooBase, IFoo { } Now here is the VB.NET version which gives a compiler error: Public Interface IFoo Property Description() As String End Interface Public MustInherit Class FooBase Private _Description As String Public Property Description() As String Get Return _Description End Get Set(ByVal value As String) _Description = value End Set End Property End Class Public Class MyFoo Inherits FooBase Implements IFoo End Class If I make the base class (FooBase) implement the interface and add the Implements IFoo.Description to the property all is good, but I do not want the base class to implement the interface. The compiler error is: Class 'MyFoo' must implement 'Property Description() As String' for interface 'IFoo'. Implementing property must have matching 'ReadOnly' or 'WriteOnly' specifiers. Can VB.NET not handle this, or do I need to change my syntax somewhere to get this to work?

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• How to detect that the internet connection has got disconnected through a java desktop application?

  - by Yatendra Goel

  I am developing a Java Desktop Application that access internet. It is a multi-threaded application, each thread do the same work (means each thread is an instance of same Thread class). Now, as all the threads need internet connection to be active, there should be some mechanism that detects whether an internet connection is active or not. Q1. How to detect whether the internet connection is active or not? Q2. Where to implement this internet-status-check-mechanism code? Should I start a separate thread for checking internet status regularly and notifies all the threads when the status changes from one state to another? Or should I let each thread check for the internet-status itself? Q3. This issue should be a very common issue as every application accessing an internet should deal with this problem. So how other developers usually deal with this problem? Q4. If you could give me a reference to a good demo application that addresses this issue then it would greatly help me.

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• How to make a calculator in PHP?

  - by Giulio Muscarello

  I want to use PHP to calculate simple algebraic expressions like, 8*(5+1), entered via an <input> tag by a normal user (which means, normal notation: no syntax changes like Multiply(8, Add(5, 1))). Also, it has to show all steps, but that's not hard. The problem, right now, is calculating the value of the expressions. Note: this is what I thought so far, which is quite inefficient but it's a provisory solution. Just replace strings where possible: in our example, recognize the string 5+1 and replace it with 6. Then, loop again, replace (6) with 6, loop again, and replace 8*6 with 48. The code for multiplying, for example, should look like this: for ($a=1; $a < 1000; $a++) { for ($b=1; $b < 1000; $b++) { string_replace($a . '*' . $b, $a*$b, $string); } }

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• jQuery AJAX Redirection problem

  - by meosoft

  Hello please consider this: On page A I have a link that takes you to page B when JS is off, but when JS is on, I want to replace content on current page with content from the page B. Pages A and B are in fact the same script that is able to tell AJAX calls from regular ones and serve the content appropriately. Everything works fine, as long as there are no redirects involved. But, sometimes there is a 301 redirect and what seems to be happening is that client browser then makes a second request, which will return with a 200 OK. Only the second request is sent without a X-Requested-With header, therefore I cannot tell within my script wether it came from AJAX or not, and will send a complete page instead of just the content. I have tried checking for 301 status code in my error, success, and complete handlers but none of them worked. It seems to be handling the 301 behind the scenes. Could anyone help me with this? jQuery 1.4, PHP 5 Edit: People requested the code to this, which I didn't think was necessary but here goes: // hook up menu ajax loading $('#menu a').live("click", function(){ // update menu highlight if($(this).parents('#menu').size() > 0){ $("#menu>li").removeClass("current_page_item"); $(this).parent().addClass("current_page_item"); } // get the URL where we will be retrieving content from var url = $(this).attr('href'); window.location.hash = hash = url; $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: url, success: function(data){ // search for an ID that is only present if page is requested directly if($(data).find('#maincontent').size() > 0){ data = $(data).find('#maincontent .content-slide *').get(); } // the rest is just animating the content into view $("#scroller").html(data); $('.content-slide').each(setHeight); $('.content-slide').animate({ left: "0px" }, 1000, 'easeOutQuart', function(){ $('#home').css("left", "-760px").html(data); $('#scroller').css("left", "-760px"); $('.content-slide').each(setHeight); } ); } }); return false; });

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• Prime Numbers in C?

  - by Ali Azam Rana

  FIRST PROGRAM #include<stdio.h> void main() { int n,c; printf("enter a numb"); scanf("%i",n); for(c=2;c<=n;c++) { if(n%c==0) break; } if(c==n) printf("\nprime\n"); else printf("\nnot prime\n"); getchar(); } SECOND PROGRAM #include <stdio.h> int main() { printf("Enter a Number\n"); int in,loop,rem,chk; scanf("%d",&in); for (loop = 1; loop <=in; loop++) { rem = in % loop; if(rem == 0) chk = chk +1; } if (chk == 2) printf("\nPRIME NUM ENTERED\n"); else printf("\nNUM ENTERED NOT PRIME\n"); getchar(); } the 2nd program works other was the one my friend wrote the program looks fine but on checking it by stepping into we found that the if condition in first program is coming true under every input so whats the logical error here please help me found out......

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• Moving from a non-clustered PK to a clustered PK in SQL 2005

  - by adaptr

  HI all, I recently asked this question in another thread, and thought I would reproduce it here with my solution: What if I have an auto-increment INT as my non-clustered primary key, and there are about 15 foreign keys defined to it ? (snide comment about original designer being braindead in the original :) ) This is a 15M row table, on a live database, SQL Standard, so dropping indexes is out of the question. Even temporarily dropping the foreign key constraints will be difficult. I'm curious if anybody has a solution that causes minimal downtime. I tested this in our testing environment and finally found that the downtime wasn't as severe as I had originally feared. I ended up writing a script that drops all FK constraints, then drops the non-clustered key, re-creates the PK as a clustered index, and finally re-created all FKs WITH NOCHECK to avoid trawling through all FKs to check constraint compliance. Then I just enable the CHECK constraints to enable constraint checking from that point onwards, and all is dandy :) The most important thing to realize is that during the time the FKs are absent, there MUST NOT be any INSERTs or DELETEs on the parent table, as this may break the constraints and cause issues in the future. The total time taken for clustering a 15M row, 800MB index was ~4 minutes :)

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• Magento config XML for adding a controller action to a core admin controller

  - by N. B.

  I'm trying to add a custom action to a core controller by extending it in a local module. Below I have the class definition which resides in magento1_3_2_2/app/code/local/MyCompany/MyModule/controllers/Catalog/ProductController.php class MyCompany_MyModule_Catalog_ProductController extends Mage_Adminhtml_Catalog_ProductController { public function massAttributeSetAction(){ ... } } Here is my config file at magento1_3_2_2/app/code/local/MyCompany/MyModule/etc/config.xml: ... <global> <rewrite> <mycompany_mymodule_catalog_product> <from><![CDATA[#^/catalog_product/massAttributeSet/#]]></from> <to>/mymodule/catalog_product/massAttributeSet/</to> </mycompany_mymodule_catalog_product> </rewrite> <admin> <routers> <MyCompany_MyModule> <use>admin</use> <args> <module>MyCompany_MyModule</module> <frontName>MyModule</frontName> </args> </MyCompany_MyModule> </routers> </admin> </global> ... However, https://example.com/index.php/admin/catalog_product/massAttributeSet/ simply yields a admin 404 page. I know that the module is active - other code is executing fine. I feel it's simply a problem with my xml syntax. Am I going about this the write way? I'm hesitant because I'm not actually rewriting a controller method... I'm adding one entirely. However it does make sense in that, the original admin url won't respond to that action name and it will need to be redirected. I'm using Magento 1.3.2.2 Thanks for any guidance.

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• css layout for footer at bottom with dynamic ajax content changing height of page

  - by m42

  [Update] I actually compromised on this problem for now by foregoing the fixed footer design. It seems that there is no problem with dynamic content moving the footer and resizing containers appropriately unless the footer is fixed to the browser bottom initially. I hope others will eventually provide a great solution that encompasses the best of both worlds. I spent all day trying to get the footer to move down the page to accommodate dynamically added (via ajax) content. I really need some pointers or links because I haven't found anything that helps. Basically: My site has some pages that begin with only a text box and a button so that the total height of the content area is only a few inches beneath the header area. I don't have any problem getting the sticky footer working so that the footer appears at the bottom of the browser window even when there is very little content on screen. That same css layout works fine for other pages that have content that extends beneath the browser window. The catch: The content has to be rendered and passed to the browser with the initial load. The Problem: Any content that is added to the page via AJAX after the initial load paints down the page correctly -- but the footer remains in its initial location. Please tell me there is a fix for this. I can't post the css until checking with my boss first - if possible - and if needed, I will later - but it's just a very basic version of the many sticky footer css solutions floating around the web. Thanks.

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• LNK 1104 error to lib file - Continues despite removing includes and links

  - by user1556594

  A link error to a lib file popped up out of the blue in a c++ application of mine after code was working fine in my last session. Error 1 error LNK1104: cannot open file '..........\Program Files (x86)\FMOD SoundSystem\FMOD Programmers API Windows\api\lib\fmodex_vc.lib' I triple checked my project directories were set up correctly to link to the lib file, that the file existed in said directory and that it was a working version of the .lib. My next step was to remove the includes to the file and the links to bypass the error and work on the rest of my code until the problem was solved. The error remains, however, despite: Commenting out absolutely every include relating to the lib. Commenting out absolutely every line of code dependant on the includes. Removing the directory from VC++ Directories in the project properties. Checking the Additional Library Directories field was also clear of references. To my understanding this should have made the library and related code virtually non-existant to the compiler. What am I missing? The library itself is fmodex_vc.lib - part of the FMOD API for providing sound to interactive applications. Again, the application was working one session, but failed to compile the next. I hadn't touched the code since so this led me to believe some aspect of VS is at fault. I'd like to avoid the time involded in re-installing if possible as I'm on the clock for a review tomorrow evening and there are a few more things I'd like to smooth out before then. If necessary, however, I won't hesitate. Very much appreciate the help.

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• How do I use InputType=numberDecimal with the "phone" soft keypad?

  - by Adam Dunn

  For an EditText box, the user should only be entering valid numbers, so I am using android:inputType="numberDecimal". Unfortunately, the soft keyboard that Android brings up has numbers only along the top row, while the next three rows have various other symbols (dollar sign, percent sign, exclamation mark, space, etc). Since the numberDecimal only accepts numbers 0-9, negative sign, and decimal point, it would make more sense to use the "phone" soft keyboard (0-9 in a 3x3 grid, plus some other symbols). This would make the buttons larger and easier to hit (since it's a 4x4 grid rather than a 10x4 grid in the same screen area). Unfortunately, using android:inputType="phone" allows non-numeric characters such as parentheses I have attempted to use android:inputType="numberDecimal|phone", but the numberDecimal aspect of the bit flag seems to be ignored. I have also tried using android:inputType="phone" in combination with android:digits="0123456789-.", but that still allows multiple negative signs or decimal points (inputType="number" has really good error checking for things like that, and won't let the user even type it in). I have also tried using android:inputType="phone" in the xml layout file, while using a DigitsKeyListener in the java code, but then that just uses the default number soft keyboard (the one that has numbers only along top row) (it appears to set InputType.TYPE_CLASS_NUMBER, which voids the InputType.TYPE_CLASS_PHONE set by the xml layout). Writing a custom IME wouldn't work, since the user would have to select the IME as a global option outside the app. Is there any way to use the "phone" style soft keyboard while also using the "number" restrictions on what is entered?

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• javascript error handeling

  - by pankaj

  I have a javascript function for checking errors which i am callin on OnClicentClick event of a button. Once it catch a error i want to stop execution of click event . But in my case it always it always executes the onclick event. Following is my function: function DisplayError() { if (document.getElementById('<%=txtPassword.ClientID %>').value.length < 6 || document.getElementById('<%=txtPassword.ClientID %>').value.length > 12) { document.getElementById('<%=lblError.ClientID %>').innerText = "Password length must be between 6 to 12 characters"; return false; } var str = <%=PhoneNumber()%>; if(str.length <10) { alert('<%=phoneNum%>'.length); document.getElementById('<%=lblError.ClientID %>').innerText = "Phone Number not in correct format"; return false; } } button html code: <asp:Button runat="server" Text="Submit" ID="btnSubmit" ValidationGroup="submit" onclick="btnSubmit_Click" OnClientClick="DisplayError()"/> It should not execute the button click event once it satisfies any of the IF condition in javascript function.

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• Extremely strange glitch in Chrome - parses contents of string!

  - by George Edison

  Okay - this is the dumbest glitch I have seen in a while: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en"> <head> <script type='text/javascript'> var data = "</script>"; </script> </head> <body> This should break! </body> </html> This causes syntax errors because the JavaScript parser is actually reading the contents of the string. How stupid! How can I put </script> in my code. Is there any way? Is there a valid reason for this behavior?

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• How do you verify that 2 copies of a VB 6 executable came from the same code base?

  - by Tim Visher

  I have a program under version control that has gone through multiple releases. A situation came up today where someone had somehow managed to point to an old copy of the program and thus was encountering bugs that have since been fixed. I'd like to go back and just delete all the old copies of the program (keeping them around is a company policy that dates from before version control was common and should no longer be necessary) but I need a way of verifying that I can generate the exact same executable that is better than saying "The old one came out of this commit so this one should be the same." My initial thought was to simply MD5 hash the executable, store the hash file in source control, and be done with it but I've come up against a problem which I can't even parse. It seems that every time the executable is generated (method: Open Project. File Make X.exe) it hashes differently. I've noticed that Visual Basic messes with files every time the project is opened in seemingly random ways but I didn't think that would make it into the executable, nor do I have any evidence that that is indeed what's happening. To try to guard against that I tried generating the executable multiple times within the same IDE session and checking the hashes but they continued to be different every time. So that's: Generate Executable Generate MD5 Checksum: md5sum X.exe > X.md5 Verify MD5 for current executable: md5sum -c X.md5 Generate New Executable Verify MD5 for new executable: md5sum -c X.md5 Fail verification because computed checksum doesn't match. I'm not understanding something about either MD5 or the way VB 6 is generating the executable but I'm also not married to the idea of using MD5. If there is a better way to verify that two executables are indeed the same then I'm all ears. Thanks in advance for your help!

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• Determining polygon intersection and containment

  - by Victor Liu

  I have a set of simple (no holes, no self-intersections) polygons, and I need to check that they don't intersect each other (one can be entirely contained in another; that is okay). I can check this by simply checking the per-vertex inside-ness of one polygon versus other polygons. I also need to determine the containment tree, which is the set of relationships that say which polygon contains any given polygon. Since no polygon can intersect any other, then any contained polygon has a unique container; the "next-bigger" one. In other words, if A contains B contains C, then A is the parent of B, and B is the parent of C, and we don't consider A the parent of C. The question: How do I efficiently determine the containment relationships and check the non-intersection criterion? I ask this as one question because maybe a combined algorithm is more efficient than solving each problem separately. The algorithm should take as input a list of polygons, given by a list of their vertices. It should produce a boolean B indicating if none of the polygons intersect any other polygon, and also if B = true, a list of pairs (P, C) where polygon P is the parent of child C. This is not homework. This is for a hobby project I am working on.

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• Ruby: how does constant-lookup work in instance_eval/class_eval?

  - by Alan O'Donnell

  I'm working my way through Pickaxe 1.9, and I'm a bit confused by constant-lookup in instance/class_eval blocks. I'm using 1.9.2. It seems that Ruby handles constant-lookup in *_eval blocks the same way it does method-lookup: look for a definition in receiver.singleton_class (plus mixins); then in receiver.singleton_class.superclass (plus mixins); then continue up the eigenchain until you get to #<Class:BasicObject>; whose superclass is Class; and then up the rest of the ancestor chain (including Object, which stores all the constants you define at the top-level), checking for mixins along the way Is this correct? The Pickaxe discussion is a bit terse. Some examples: class Foo CONST = 'Foo::CONST' class << self CONST = 'EigenFoo::CONST' end end Foo.instance_eval { CONST } # => 'EigenFoo::CONST' Foo.class_eval { CONST } # => 'EigenFoo::CONST', not 'Foo::CONST'! Foo.new.instance_eval { CONST } # => 'Foo::CONST' In the class_eval example, Foo-the-class isn't a stop along Foo-the-object's ancestor chain! And an example with mixins: module M CONST = "M::CONST" end module N CONST = "N::CONST" end class A include M extend N end A.instance_eval { CONST } # => "N::CONST", because N is mixed into A's eigenclass A.class_eval { CONST } # => "N::CONST", ditto A.new.instance_eval { CONST } # => "M::CONST", because A.new.class, A, mixes in M

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• Is it safe to read regular expressions from a file?

  - by Zilk

  Assuming a Perl script that allows users to specify several text filter expressions in a config file, is there a safe way to let them enter regular expressions as well, without the possibility of unintended side effects or code execution? Without actually parsing the regexes and checking them for problematic constructs, that is. There won't be any substitution, only matching. As an aside, is there a way to test if the specified regex is valid before actually using it? I'd like to issue warnings if something like /foo (bar/ was entered. Thanks, Z. EDIT: Thanks for the very interesting answers. I've since found out that the following dangerous constructs will only be evaluated in regexes if the use re 'eval' pragma is used: (?{code}) (??{code}) ${code} @{code} The default is no re 'eval'; so unless I'm missing something, it should be safe to read regular expressions from a file, with the only check being the eval/catch posted by Axeman. At least I haven't been able to hide anything evil in them in my tests. Thanks again. Z.

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• LINQ-SQL Updating Multiple Rows in a single transaction

  - by RPM1984

  Hi guys, I need help re-factoring this legacy LINQ-SQL code which is generating around 100 update statements. I'll keep playing around with the best solution, but would appreciate some ideas/past experience with this issue. Here's my code: List<Foo> foos; int userId = 123; using (DataClassesDataContext db = new FooDatabase()) { foos = (from f in db.FooBars where f.UserId = userId select f).ToList(); foreach (FooBar fooBar in foos) { fooBar.IsFoo = false; } db.SubmitChanges() } Essentially i want to update the IsFoo field to false for all records that have a particular UserId value. Whats happening is the .ToList() is firing off a query to get all the FooBars for a particular user, then for each Foo object, its executing an UPDATE statement updating the IsFoo property. Can the above code be re-factored to one single UPDATE statement? Ideally, the only SQL i want fired is the below: UPDATE FooBars SET IsFoo = FALSE WHERE UserId = 123 EDIT Ok so looks like it cant be done without using db.ExecuteCommand. Grr...! What i'll probably end up doing is creating another extension method for the DLINQ namespace. Still require some hardcoding (ie writing "WHERE" and "UPDATE"), but at least it hides most of the implementation details away from the actual LINQ query syntax.

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• JMeter CSV Data Set is corrupting Japanese strings stored as proper UTF-8, I get Question Marks instead

  - by Mark Bennett

  I read in search terms from a simple text file to send to a search engine. It works fine in English, but gives me ???? for any Japanese text. Text with mixed English and Japanese does show the English text, so I know it's reading it. What I'm seeing: Input text: Snow Leopard ??????????????? Turns into: Snow Leopard ??????????????? This is in my POST field of an HTTP. If I set JMeter to encode the data, it just puts in the percent sequence for question marks. Interesting note: In the example above there are 15 Japanese characters, and then 15 question marks, so at some point it's being seen as full characters and not just bytes. About the Data: The CSV file is very simple in structure. There's only one field / one column, which I name TERM, and later use as ${TERM} I don't really need full CSV because it's only one string per line. There's no commas or quotes. When I run the Unix "file" command on the file, it says UTF-8 text. I've also verified it in command line and graphical mode on two machines. JMeter CSV Dataset Config: Filename: japanese-searches.csv File encoding: UTF-8 (also tried without) Variable names: TERM Delimiter: , Allow Quoted Data: False (I also tried True, different, but still wrong) Recycle at EOF: True Stop at EOF: False Staring mode: All threads A few things I've tried: Tried Allow quoted Data. It changed to other strange characters. -Dfile.encoding=UTF-8 Tried encoding the POST, but it just turned into a bunch of %nn for question marks And I'm not sure how "debug" just after the each line of the CSV is read in. I think it's corrupted right away, but I'm not sure. If it's only mangled when I reference it, then instead of ${TERM} perhaps there's some other "to bytes" function call. I'll start checking into that. I haven't done anything with the JMeter functions yet.

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