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  • Python C API from C++ app - know when to lock

    - by Alex
    Hi Everyone, I am trying to write a C++ class that calls Python methods of a class that does some I/O operations (file, stdout) at once. The problem I have ran into is that my class is called from different threads: sometimes main thread, sometimes different others. Obviously I tried to apply the approach for Python calls in multi-threaded native applications. Basically everything starts from PyEval_AcquireLock and PyEval_ReleaseLock or just global locks. According to the documentation here when a thread is already locked a deadlock ensues. When my class is called from the main thread or other one that blocks Python execution I have a deadlock. Python Cfunc1() - C++ func that creates threads internally which lead to calls in "my class", It stuck on PyEval_AcquireLock, obviously the Python is already locked, i.e. waiting for C++ Cfunc1 call to complete... It completes fine if I omit those locks. Also it completes fine when Python interpreter is ready for the next user command, i.e. when thread is calling funcs in the background - not inside of a native call I am looking for a workaround. I need to distinguish whether or not the global lock is allowed, i.e. Python is not locked and ready to receive the next command... I tried PyGIL_Ensure, unfortunately I see hang. Any known API or solution for this ? (Python 2.4)

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  • Switch/case without break inside DllMain

    - by Sherwood Hu
    I have a Dllmain that allocates Thread local storage when a thread attaches to this DLL. Code as below: BOOL APIENTRY DllMain(HMODULE hModule, DWORD ul_reason_for_call, LPVOID lpReserved) { LPVOID lpvData; BOOL fIgnore; switch (ul_reason_for_call) { case DLL_PROCESS_ATTACH: onProcessAttachDLL(); // Allocate a TLS index. if ((dwTlsIndex = TlsAlloc()) == TLS_OUT_OF_INDEXES) return FALSE; // how can it jump to next case??? case DLL_THREAD_ATTACH: // Initialize the TLS index for this thread. lpvData = (LPVOID) LocalAlloc(LPTR, MAX_BUFFER_SIZE); if (lpvData != NULL) fIgnore = TlsSetValue(dwTlsIndex, lpvData); break; ... } I know that for the main thread, the DLL_THREAD_ATTACH is not entered, as per Microsoft Documentation. However, the above code worked. I am using VC2005. When I entered the debugger, I saw that after it entered DLL_THREAD_ATTACH case when ul_reason_for_call = 1! How can that happen? If I add `break' at the end of DLL_PROCESS_ATTACH block, the DLL failed to work. How can this happen?

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  • Linux: modpost does not build anything

    - by waffleman
    I am having problems getting any kernel modules to build on my machine. Whenever I build a module, modpost always says there are zero modules: MODPOST 0 modules To troubleshoot the problem, I wrote a test module (hello.c): #include <linux/module.h> /* Needed by all modules */ #include <linux/kernel.h> /* Needed for KERN_INFO */ #include <linux/init.h> /* Needed for the macros */ static int __init hello_start(void) { printk(KERN_INFO "Loading hello module...\n"); printk(KERN_INFO "Hello world\n"); return 0; } static void __exit hello_end(void) { printk(KERN_INFO "Goodbye Mr.\n"); } module_init(hello_start); module_exit(hello_end); Here is the Makefile for the module: obj-m = hello.o KVERSION = $(shell uname -r) all: make -C /lib/modules/$(KVERSION)/build M=$(shell pwd) modules clean: make -C /lib/modules/$(KVERSION)/build M=$(shell pwd) clean When I build it on my machine, I get the following output: make -C /lib/modules/2.6.32-27-generic/build M=/home/waffleman/tmp/mod-test modules make[1]: Entering directory `/usr/src/linux-headers-2.6.32-27-generic' CC [M] /home/waffleman/tmp/mod-test/hello.o Building modules, stage 2. MODPOST 0 modules make[1]: Leaving directory `/usr/src/linux-headers-2.6.32-27-generic' When I make the module on another machine, it is successful: make -C /lib/modules/2.6.24-27-generic/build M=/home/somedude/tmp/mod-test modules make[1]: Entering directory `/usr/src/linux-headers-2.6.24-27-generic' CC [M] /home/somedude/tmp/mod-test/hello.o Building modules, stage 2. MODPOST 1 modules CC /home/somedude/tmp/mod-test/hello.mod.o LD [M] /home/somedude/tmp/mod-test/hello.ko make[1]: Leaving directory `/usr/src/linux-headers-2.6.24-27-generic' I looked for any relevant documentation about modpost, but found little. Anyone know how modpost decides what to build? Is there an environment that I am possibly missing? BTW here is what I am running: uname -a Linux waffleman-desktop 2.6.32-27-generic #49-Ubuntu SMP Wed Dec 1 23:52:12 UTC 2010 i686 GNU/Linux

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  • JQuery code in ASP .NET content pages

    - by user2645830
    I have made a very simple sample project where I want to toggle an asp .net calendar control through jquery. Could anyone please point out why it is not working. I have made no changes to master page from the sample project provided for ASP .NET web application. <%@ Page Title="Home Page" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Site.master" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="Default.aspx.cs" Inherits="WebApplication5._Default" %> <asp:Content ID="HeaderContent" runat="server" ContentPlaceHolderID="HeadContent"> <script type="text/javascript" src="scripts/jquery-1.4.1.min.js"> </script> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> // <![CDATA[ function Button1_onclick() { alert( $('<%=Calendar1.ClientID%>')); $('<%=Calendar1.ClientID%>').toggle(); } // ]]> </script> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="BodyContent" runat="server" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent"> <h2> Welcome to ASP.NET! </h2> <p> To learn more about ASP.NET visit <a href="http://www.asp.net" title="ASP.NET Website">www.asp.net</a>. </p> <input id="Button1" type="button" value="button" onclick="return Button1_onclick()" /> <asp:Calendar ID="Calendar1" runat="server"></asp:Calendar> <p> You can also find <a href="http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/? LinkID=152368&amp;clcid=0x409" title="MSDN ASP.NET Docs">documentation on ASP.NET at MSDN</a>. </p> </asp:Content>

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  • Using SiteMesh with RequestDispatcher's forward()

    - by Rob Hruska
    I'm attempting to integrate SiteMesh into a legacy application using Tomcat 5 as my a container. I have a main.jsp that I'm decorating with a simple decorator. In decorators.xml, I've just got one decorator defined: <decorators defaultdir="/decorators"> <decorator name="layout-main" page="layout-main.jsp"> <pattern>/jsp/main.jsp</pattern> </decorator> </decorators> This decorator works if I manually go to http://example.com/my-webapp/jsp/main.jsp. However, there are a few places where a servlet, instead of doing a redirect to a jsp, does a forward: getServletContext().getRequestDispatcher("/jsp/main.jsp").forward(request, response); This means that the URL remains at something like http://example.com/my-webapp/servlet/MyServlet instead of the jsp file and is therefore not being decorated, I presume since it doesn't match the pattern in decorators.xml. I can't do a <pattern>/*</pattern> because there are other jsps that do not need to be decorated by layout-main.jsp. I can't do a <pattern>/servlet/MyServlet*</pattern> because MyServlet may forward to main.jsp sometimes and perhaps error.jsp at other times. Is there a way to work around this without expansive changes to how the servlets work? Since it's a legacy app I don't have as much freedom to change things, so I'm hoping for something configuration-wise that will fix this. SiteMesh's documentation really isn't that great. I've been working mostly off the example application that comes with the distribution. I really like SiteMesh, and am hoping I can get it to work in this case.

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  • django-social-auth for Facebook is redirecting home and not logging in

    - by Scott Rogowski
    I have had django-social-auth working for Google for quite some time now but am having problems with Facebook. I am at the point where clicking on the /login/facebook/ link will take me to the Facebook authorization page. I then click "go to app" and it redirects me to my home page but does not log in or create a user but does put some strange "#=" onto the back of my URL. Reading up on that, here https://developers.facebook.com/blog/post/552/, and here https://github.com/omab/django-social-auth/issues/199, it seems that would be happening if the redirect uri was not defined. However, on my facebook app settings, I have the following (replacing my site with example.com): + App Namespace: "example" + Site URL: "http://example.com/complete/facebook/" + Site Domain: "example.com" + Sandbox Mode: "On" + Post-Authorize Redirect URL: "http://apps.facebook.com/example/" + Deauthorize URL: "http://www.example.com/" + Post-Authorize URL: "http://example.com/complete/facebook/" The request that django-social-auth is sending to facebook is (replacing my info again): "https://www.facebook.com/dialog/oauth?scope=email&state=*&redirect_uri=http%3A%2F%2Fexample.com%2Fcomplete%2Ffacebook%2F%3Fredirect_state%3D***&client_id=*" The /complete/facebook/ is what is in the documentation and google works as /complete/google/ What am I missing here?

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  • How does the PHP IteratorIterator class work?

    - by WilliamMartin
    Try as I might I cannot get my head around what the IteratorIterator class actually does. I understand that classes can implement Traversable so the engine knows it can loop using foreach and I realise that IteratorIterator is supposed to convert anything that is Traversable into an Iterator but I cannot for the life of me understand how. Take for example, the PDOStatement class; how would the standard Iterator methods (next, key, rewind, etc) be implemented to allow iteration over a PDOStatement? Sorry if my question is unclear, I am just struggling to grasp the exact reason for this class and the documentation on it is scant. Thanks, Will Update: Going through the phpt files, I found one test which uses IteratorIterator: <?php $root = simplexml_load_string('<?xml version="1.0"?> <root> <child>Hello</child> <child>World</child> </root> '); foreach (new IteratorIterator($root->child) as $child) { echo $child."\n"; } ?> The expected output is: Hello World I don't really follow how the IteratorIterator construct takes $root-child as an argument and how it manages to iterate over the child elements.

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  • Are finalizers ever allowed to call other managed classes' methods?

    - by romkyns
    I used to be pretty sure the answer is "no", as explained in Overriding the Finalize method and Object.Finalize documentation. However, while randomly browsing through FileStream in Reflector, I found that it can actually call just such a method from a finalizer: private SafeFileHandle _handle; ~FileStream() { if (this._handle != null) { this.Dispose(false); } } protected override void Dispose(bool disposing) { try { ... } finally { if ((this._handle != null) && !this._handle.IsClosed) // <=== HERE { this._handle.Dispose(); // <=== AND HERE } [...] } } I started wondering whether this will always work due to the exact way in which it's written, and hence whether the "do not touch managed classes from finalizers" is just a guideline that can be broken given a good reason and the necessary knowledge to do it right. I dug a bit deeper and found out that the worst that can happen when the "rule" is broken is that the managed object being accessed had already been finalized, or may be getting finalized in parallel on a separate thread. So if the SafeFileHandle's finalizer didn't do anything that would cause a subsequent call to Dispose fail then the above should be fine... right? Question: so there might after all be situations in which a method on another managed class may be called reliably from a finalizer? I've always believed this to be false, but this code suggests that it's possible and that there can be good enough reasons to do it. Bonus: Observe that the SafeFileHandle will not even know it's being called from a finalizer, since this is just a normal call to Dispose(). The base class, SafeHandle, actually has two private methods, InternalDispose and InternalFinalize, and in this case InternalDispose will be called. Isn't this a problem? Why not?...

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  • Why does Microsoft advise against readonly fields with mutable values?

    - by Weeble
    In the Design Guidelines for Developing Class Libraries, Microsoft say: Do not assign instances of mutable types to read-only fields. The objects created using a mutable type can be modified after they are created. For example, arrays and most collections are mutable types while Int32, Uri, and String are immutable types. For fields that hold a mutable reference type, the read-only modifier prevents the field value from being overwritten but does not protect the mutable type from modification. This simply restates the behaviour of readonly without explaining why it's bad to use readonly. The implication appears to be that many people do not understand what "readonly" does and will wrongly expect readonly fields to be deeply immutable. In effect it advises using "readonly" as code documentation indicating deep immutability - despite the fact that the compiler has no way to enforce this - and disallows its use for its normal function: to ensure that the value of the field doesn't change after the object has been constructed. I feel uneasy with this recommendation to use "readonly" to indicate something other than its normal meaning understood by the compiler. I feel that it encourages people to misunderstand the meaning of "readonly", and furthermore to expect it to mean something that the author of the code might not intend. I feel that it precludes using it in places it could be useful - e.g. to show that some relationship between two mutable objects remains unchanged for the lifetime of one of those objects. The notion of assuming that readers do not understand the meaning of "readonly" also appears to be in contradiction to other advice from Microsoft, such as FxCop's "Do not initialize unnecessarily" rule, which assumes readers of your code to be experts in the language and should know that (for example) bool fields are automatically initialised to false, and stops you from providing the redundancy that shows "yes, this has been consciously set to false; I didn't just forget to initialize it". So, first and foremost, why do Microsoft advise against use of readonly for references to mutable types? I'd also be interested to know: Do you follow this Design Guideline in all your code? What do you expect when you see "readonly" in a piece of code you didn't write?

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  • Use different configurations with Simple Injection

    - by Ruben.Canton
    I'm using the library "Simple Injector" (http://simpleinjector.codeplex.com) and it looks cool and nice. But after building a configuration and use it, now I want to know how to change from one configuration to another. Scenario: Let's imagine I've set up a configuration in the Global Asax and I have the public and global Container there. Now I want to make some tests and I want them to use mock classes so I want to change the configuration. I can, of course, build another configuration and assign it to the global Container created by default, so that every time I run a test the alternative configuration will be set. But on doing that and though I'm in development context the Container is changed for everyone, even for normal requests. I know I'm testing in this context and that shouldn't matter, but I have the feeling that this is not the way for doing this... and I wonder how to change from one configuration to another in the correct way. Note: At Simple Injector documentation says that you can ask questions in stackoverflow so that's why I'm here. =P PD: I'm new in this IoC and DI world so try to be easy with me when explaining it :)

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  • PHP: retrieve all declared namespaces of a DOMElement

    - by soulmerge
    I am using the DOM extension to parse an xml file containing xml namespaces. I would have that namespace declarations are treated just like any other attribute, but my tests seem to disagree. I have a document that starts like this: <rdf:RDF xmlns:rdf="http://www.w3.org/1999/02/22-rdf-syntax-ns#" xmlns="http://purl.org/rss/1.0/" xmlns:taxo="http://purl.org/rss/1.0/modules/taxonomy/" xmlns:dc="http://purl.org/dc/elements/1.1/" xmlns:syn="http://purl.org/rss/1.0/modules/syndication/" xmlns:prism="http://purl.org/rss/1.0/modules/prism/" xmlns:admin="http://webns.net/mvcb/" > And a test code like this: $doc = new DOMDocument(); $doc->loadXml(file_get_contents('/home/soulmerge/tmp/rss1.0/recent.xml')); $root = $doc->documentElement; var_dump($root->tagName); # prints 'string(7) "rdf:RDF"' var_dump($root->attributes->item(0)); # prints 'NULL' var_dump($root->getAttributeNode('xmlns')); # prints 'object(DOMNameSpaceNode)#3 (0) {}' So the questions are: Does anyone know where could I find the documentation of DOMNameSpaceNode? A search on php.net does not yield any useful result. How do I extract all those namespace declarations from that DOMElement?

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  • Boost Property_Tree iterators, how to handle them?

    - by Andry
    Hello... I am sorry but I asked a question about the same argument before, but my problem concerns another aspect of the one described in that question (How to iterate a boost...). My problem is this, take a look at the following code: #include <iostream> #include <string> #include <boost/property_tree/ptree.hpp> #include <boost/property_tree/xml_parser.hpp> #include <boost/algorithm/string/trim.hpp> int main(int argc, char** argv) { using boost::property_tree::ptree; ptree pt; read_xml("try.xml", pt); ptree::const_iterator end = pt.end(); for (ptree::const_iterator it = pt.begin(); it != end; it++) std::cout << "Here " << it->? << std::endl; } Well, as told me in the previous question, there is the possibility to use iterators on property_tree in Boost, but I do not know what type it is... and what methods or properties I can use... Well, I assume that it must be another ptree or something representing another xml hierarchy to be browsed again (if I want) but documentation about this is very bad... I do not know why, but in boost docs I cannot find nothing good about this... just something about a macro to browse nodes, but this approach is one I would really like to avoid... Well, the question is so... Once getting the iterator on a ptree, how can I access node name, value, parameters (a node in a xml file)? Thankyou

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  • Concurrent WCF calls via shared channel

    - by Kent Boogaart
    I have a web tier that forwards calls onto an application tier. The web tier uses a shared, cached channel to do so. The application tier services in question are stateless and have concurrency enabled. But they are not being called concurrently. If I alter the web tier to create a new channel on every call, then I do get concurrent calls onto the application tier. But I wanted to avoid that cost since it is functionally unnecessary for my scenario. I have no session state, and nor do I need to re-authenticate the caller each time. I understand that the creation of the channel factory is far more expensive than than the creation of the channels, but it is still a cost I'd like to avoid if possible. I found this article on MSDN that states: While channels and clients created by the channels are thread-safe, they might not support writing more than one message to the wire concurrently. If you are sending large messages, particularly if streaming, the send operation might block waiting for another send to complete. Firstly, I'm not sending large messages (just a lot of small ones since I'm doing load testing) but am still seeing the blocking behavior. Secondly, this is rather open-ended and unhelpful documentation. It says they "might not" support writing more than one message but doesn't explain the scenarios under which they would support concurrent messages. Can anyone shed some light on this?

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  • Static Libraries on iPhone device

    - by Akusete
    I have two projects, a Cocoa iPhone application and a static library which it uses. I've tested it successfully on the iPhone simulator, but when I try to deploy it to my iPhone device I get (symbol not found) link errors. If I remove the dependancy of the library the project builds/runs fine. I have made sure all the build settings are set to iPhoneOS not the simulator. Im sure its something simple, but has anyone run into similar problems moving from iPhone simulator to device? --EDIT: I have managed to create new projects (one for the application and one for the static library), and successfully get them to run on the iPhone or simulator. But I have a very strange problem... for each specific project I cannot get it working for BOTH the device and the simulator... I have double checked the build settings, made sure the libraries that are being references are for the matching build settings (I believe) but I cannot resolve these linking errors. I think I must be doing something very wrong... all the apple documentation says 'its super simple - one click' but this is giving me a lot of problems. This is probably something to do with xCode build settings, but I cannot seem to understand why selecting the different build platforms and rebuilding the libraries does not work.

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  • How do you manually set a RadioGroup value in wicket?

    - by Kane
    I'm trying to change the selected radio button in a Wicket RadioGroup during an AjaxEventBehavior but can't figure out how to do so. Specifically when a user types some text in a textbox I want to change the selected radio button to one I specify. How do you do this? Here's what I have so far (it crashes on addComponent): myRadioGroup = new RadioGroup("MyNewGroup", new PropertyModel(getPojo(), "selectedGroup")); Radio internalRadio = new Radio("InternalDirectoryNumber", new Model("Internal")); myRadioGroup .add(internalRadio); Radio externalRadio = new Radio("OtherMobileNumber", new Model("External")); myRadioGroup .add(externalRadio); TextField myTxtField= new TextField("TextBoxPrivateNumber", new PropertyModel(getVoiceItem(), "privateMobilePhone")); myTxtField.add( new AjaxEventBehavior( "onKeyUp" ) { @Override protected void onEvent(AjaxRequestTarget target) { Component component = target.getPage().get("myForm:MyNewGroup").setDefaultModelObject("External"); target.addComponent(component); //this causes an exception } }); myRadioGroup .add(myTxtField); Here is the exception that's thrown. java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: cannot update component that does not have setOutputMarkupId property set to true. Component: [MarkupContainer [Component id = myRadioGroup]] What's the proper way to do this? I'm not finding a whole lot of wicket documentation for this online.

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  • JBoss Client-Cert Authentication: Hot to setup UsersRolesLoginModule in login-config.xml

    - by sixtyfootersdude
    I am looking that chapter 8 of the RedHat, JBoss documentation. I am trying to setup Certificate Authentication as described on this page . On the page it says that the login-config file should have this in it: <application-policy name="jmx-console"> <authentication> <login-module code="org.jboss.security.auth.spi.BaseCertLoginModule" flag="required"> <module-option name="password-stacking">useFirstPass</module-option> <module-option name="securityDomain">java:/jaas/jmx-console</module-option> </login-module> <login-module code="org.jboss.security.auth.spi.UsersRolesLoginModule" flag="required"> <module-option name="password-stacking">useFirstPass</module-option> <module-option name="usersProperties">jmx-console-users.properties</module-option> <module-option name="rolesProperties">jmx-console-roles.properties</module-option> </login-module> </authentication> </application-policy> I think that the BaseCertLoginModule chekcs the clients server and the UsersRolesloginModule assigns the client to role (using the file jmx-console-roles.properties). However I am completely bewildered as to what should be in this file: jmx-console-users.properties. Normally that file stores user/password pairs (source) but when using client-cert I don't think that there should be passwords in there. Right now I am leaving that file empty but I am getting this exception: [org.jboss.security.auth.spi.UsersRolesLoginModule.initialize:135] Failed to load users/passwords/role files java.io.IOException: No properties file: users.properties or defaults: defaultUsers.properties found ... What should be in that file? Thanks.

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  • How do i change this method to get strings instead of ints

    - by David
    here is the original code: public static int getInt () { Scanner in = new Scanner (System.in) ; if (in.hasNextInt()) { int a = in.nextInt() ; return a ; } else { System.out.println ("try again:") ; return getInt () ; } } This checks and sees if the input it receives is an int. If it is then it returns the int, if not it tells you to try again and re-runs. This is what i tried to do to change it: public static String getIns () { Scanner in = new Scanner (System.in) ; if (in.hasNextString()) { String a = in.nextString() ; return a ; } else { System.out.println ("try again:") ; return getIns () ; } } This doesn't work though. I looked through the documentation for the scanner class and i think the problem is that there is no such method as in.hasNextString or in.nextString What methods from the scanner class can i use to do what i intend these to do?

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  • Drupal 6: How to quickly theme a view ?

    - by Pierre-Jean Coudert
    I've defined a view with the cck and view2 modules. I would like to quickly define a template specific to this view. Any tutorial or information on this ? What are the files I need to modify ? Here are my findings: (Edited) In fact there are two ways to theme a view : the "field" way and the "node" way. In "edit View", you can choose "Row style: Node", or "Row style: Fields". with the "Node" way, you can create a node-contentname.tpl.php wich will be called for each node in the view. You'll have access to your cck field values with $field_name[0]['value']. (edit2) You can use node-view-viewname.tpl.php wich will be only called for each node displayed from this view. with the "Field" way, you add a views-view-field--viewname--field-name-value.tpl.php for each field you want to theme individually. Thanks to previous responses, I've used the following tools : In the 'Basic Settings' block, the 'Theme: Information' to see all the different templates you can modify. The Devel module's "Theme developer" to quickly find the field variable names. View 2 documentation, especially the "Using Theme" page.

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  • How do I run a universal app on the iPhone 3.1.3 simulator?

    - by bpapa
    I'm working on a new app that I want to be universal for the iPhone and iPad. I started out with the "Create a Window-based app" wizard, and it created separate app delegates in "iPhone" and "iPad" groups. Since I already was quite familiar with iPhone dev, I did that part of my project, and now I'm ready to do some iPad stuff. So... I started out by adding a UISplitViewController to my iPad delegate, switch the Active SDK to 3.2, and it works! But when I switch back to 3.1.3, and try to run it in the simulator, Build and Go fails. For starters, I see: ...path.../iPad/AppDelegate_Pad.h:13: error: expected specifier-qualifier-list before 'UISplitViewController' I've got my Base SDK set to 3.2 and my Deployment Target set to 3.1.3. I thought that was enough. But I also have found in the documentation this method to conditionally compile: #if __IPHONE_OS_VERSION_MAX_ALLOWED >= 30200 MyIPadViewController* vc; // Create the iPad view controller #else MyIPhoneViewController* vc; // Create the iPhone view controller #endif So do I need to do this everywhere? It seems like an awful lot of code to add (that I'll be getting rid of in a short time for 4.0 anyway) so I feel like I must be doing something wrong. And, I don't even have any idea how this works for things like @property or @synthesize declarations. tl;dr version of the question - did I miss a setting somewhere?

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  • NSIS patching (multiple patches in one file)

    - by Owen
    I'm able to generate patch files from one version to another using NSIS' Vpatch. Let's say I have mydll.dll version 1, and I have a patch to update it to version 2. Then I have a new version again, thus I generate another patch to update it to version 3. What bothers me though is, what if user cancels updating to version 2 and so forth. Then my latest version let's say is version 20. User decides to update to version 20. Is there a way to generate a patch that's like accumulative in nature? whereas user can jump from version any old version to the newest version (i.e ver 3 to ver 20) without passing through the versions in between? I've read this line in vpatch's documentation --- "if you want to be able to upgrade version 1 and 2 to version 3, you can put a 1 3 and 2 3 patch in one file." But how do I that? What if I alread have like 30 versions. Does that mean I have to create a patch whose arguments are old files(versions 1-29) and new file(version20)? Any help would be appreciated. Thanks...

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  • Vehicle License Plate Detection

    - by Ash
    Hey all Basically for my final project at university, I'm developing a vehicle license plate detection application. Now I consider myself an intermediate programmer, however my mathematics knowledge lacks anything above secondary school, therefore producing detection formulae is basically impossible. I've spend a good amount of time looking up academic papers such as: http://www.scribd.com/doc/266575/Detecting-Vehicle-License-Plates-in-Images http://www.cic.unb.br/~mylene/PI_2010_2/ICIP10/pdfs/0003945.pdf http://www.eurasip.org/Proceedings/Eusipco/Eusipco2007/Papers/d3l-b05.pdf When it comes to the maths, I'm lost. Due to this testing various graphic images proved productive, for example: to However this approach is only catered to that particular image, and if the techniques were applied to different images, I'm sure a different, most likely poorer conversion would occur. I've read about a formula called the bottom hat morphology transform, which according to the first does the following: "Basically, the trans- formation keeps all the dark details of the picture, and eliminates everything else (including bigger dark regions and light regions)." Sadly I can't find much information on this, however the image within the documentation near the end of the report shows it's effectiveness. I'm aware this is complicated and vast, I'd just appreciate a little advice, even in terms of what transformation techniques I should focus on developing, or algorithm regarding edge detection or pixel detection. Few things I need to add Developing in C Sharp Confining the project to UK registration plates only I can basically choose the images to convert as a demonstration Thanks

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  • rendering front-end of survey into an MVC app

    - by HotKey
    Lately I have been watching Pluralsight intro videos on MVC 3. I have never worked with the Model View Control approach before, but I'm starting to understand how these 3 crucial parts of an app are separated. I created a front-end prototype of a survey I would like to implement into a View of my MVC web app. The survey is in HTML, CSS, using jQuery to deliver content changes depending on the type of evaluation (6-11 questions), and jQuery UI for a couple slider ratings. I noticed through tutorials that you can use an HTML form and helpers that allow the user to edit content, but my prototype already allows the users to rate via radio buttons, comment text boxes, and sliders. Would I need to change any of my existing code if I just want to store this employee data to the Model, and depending on what survey's the employee has completed through the Controller, disable drop down fields? Also, would I store the current employee data on submit of survey through an HttpPost in the Controller to the Model? My apologies if my questions seem rather vague. Could someone point me in the right direction to a resource or documentation similar to my needs above? The Pluralsight videos are taking me in the wrong direction.

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  • How do I get save (no exclamation point) semantics in an ActiveRecord transaction?

    - by James A. Rosen
    I have two models: Person and Address which I'd like to create in a transaction. That is, I want to try to create the Person and, if that succeeds, create the related Address. I would like to use save semantics (return true or false) rather than save! semantics (raise an ActiveRecord::StatementInvalid or not). This doesn't work because the user.save doesn't trigger a rollback on the transaction: class Person def save_with_address(address_options = {}) transaction do self.save address = Address.build(address_options) address.person = self address.save end end end (Changing the self.save call to an if self.save block around the rest doesn't help, because the Person save still succeeds even when the Address one fails.) And this doesn't work because it raises the ActiveRecord::StatementInvalid exception out of the transaction block without triggering an ActiveRecord::Rollback: class Person def save_with_address(address_options = {}) transaction do save! address = Address.build(address_options) address.person = self address.save! end end end The Rails documentation specifically warns against catching the ActiveRecord::StatementInvalid inside the transaction block. I guess my first question is: why isn't this transaction block... transacting on both saves?

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  • openssl crypto library - base64 conversion

    - by Hassan Syed
    I'm using openssl BIO objects to convert a binary string into a base64 string. The code is as follows: void ToBase64(std::string & s_in) { BIO * b_s = BIO_new( BIO_s_mem() ); BIO * b64_f = BIO_new( BIO_f_base64() ); b_s = BIO_push( b64_f , b_s); std::cout << "IN::" << s_in.length(); BIO_write(b_s, s_in.c_str(), s_in.length()); char * pp; int sz = BIO_get_mem_data(b_s, &pp); std::cout << "OUT::" << sz << endl; s_in.assign(pp,sz); //std::cout << sz << " " << std::string(pp,sz) << std::endl; BIO_free (b64_f); // TODO ret error potential BIO_free (b_s); // } The in length is either 64 or 72. However the output is always 65, which is incorrect it should be much larger than that. The documentation isn't the best in the world, AFAIK the bio_s_mem object is supposed to grow dynamically. What am I doing wrong ?

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  • embed dll in html <object>

    - by Raynos
    I've come across some old code <object id="foo" classid="/location/bar.dll#ProjectName.ClassName" viewastext></object> It doesn't currently work and used to work in older versions of IE. I've never come across embedding a dll in a web page like this. It appears to be a windows .NET application written in C#. This is used on our intranet. And ClassName is of type System.Windows.Forms.UserControl It also seems I can call the C# methods of the UserControl directly through javascript. Does anyone have any documentation on how this works and whether its possible to hack it into firefox. Rewriting the windows control as a web application would be a nightmare. [Edit] It appears to be some kind of activeX / COM thing where in IE you could just port a windows application directly into a html file. It's supposed to be able to run locally if you set up various correctly. If anyone has an idea of what needs to be set up for this to work, that would be nice.

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