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  • Message Handlers and the WeakReference issue

    - by user1058647
    The following message Handler works fine receiving messages from my service... private Handler handler = new Handler() { public void handleMessage(Message message) { Object path = message.obj; if (message.arg1 == 5 && path != null) //5 means its a single mapleg to plot on the map { String myString = (String) message.obj; Gson gson = new Gson(); MapPlot mapleg = gson.fromJson(myString, MapPlot.class); myMapView.getOverlays().add(new DirectionPathOverlay(mapleg.fromPoint, mapleg.toPoint)); mc.animateTo(mapleg.toPoint); } else { if (message.arg1 == RESULT_OK && path != null) { Toast.makeText(PSActivity.this, "Service Started" + path.toString(), Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } else { Toast.makeText(PSActivity.this,"Service error" + String.valueOf(message.arg1), Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } } }; }; However, even though it tests out alright in the AVD (I'm feeding it a large KML file via DDMS) the "object path = message.obj;" line has a WARNING saying "this Handler class should be static else leaks might occur". But if I say "static Handler handler = new Handler()" it won't compile complaining that I "cannot make a static reference to a non-static field myMapView. If I can't make such references, I can't do anything useful. This led me into several hours of googling around on this issue and learning more about weakReferences than I ever wanted to know. The often found reccomendation I find is that I should replace... private Handler handler = new Handler() with static class handler extends Handler { private final WeakReference<PSActivity> mTarget; handler(PSActivity target) { mTarget = new WeakReference<PSActivity>(target); } But this won't compile still complaining that I can't make a static reference to a non-dtatic field. So, my question a week or to ago was "how can I write a message handler for android so my service can send data to my activity. Even though I have working code, the question still stands with the suffix "without leaking memory". Thanks, Gary

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  • How to call a method from another class that's been instantiated within the current class

    - by Pavan
    my screen has a few views like such __________________ | _____ | | | | | //viewX is a video screen | | | | | viewX | vY | | //viewY is a custom uiview i created. | |____| | //it contains a method which i would like to call that toggles |_________________| //the hidden property of this view. and when it hides, a little | | //button is replaced no the top right corner on top of viewX | viewZ | //the video layer | | |_________________| //viewZ is a view containing many square views - thumbnails. my question is, i dont know how to register for touch events so that it recognises any touch event on no matter which view the user touches the screen.. atm im handling the touch events for each view inside it. so all works well... however what im trying to do is that when the user taps anywhere else on the screen but on viewY, viewY should dissapear by calling that method in the viewY class. this viewY class is instantiated and has no xib file attached to it. the uiview is created progammatically in the viewY class. this whole class for viewY behviour is instantiated in viewX - the video view. my boss says add delegates.. although i have now clue how to do that... any help? is there anyway i can just make it really simple and be able to say REMOVE VIEW no matter which class im calling from? Also ive seen other people achieve this by using these funky arrows - ... <- etc.. although im not sure if thats what i need or how to implement such a thing. ah i think ive made my question quite complicated but i really mean it to be a simple one, and know it can be done in an easy way!

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  • What are major differences between C# and Java?

    - by enba
    I just want to clarify one thing. This is not a question on which one is better, that part I leave to someone else to discuss. I don't care about it. I've been asked this question on my job interview and I thought it might be useful to learn a bit more. These are the ones I could come up with: Java is "platform independent". Well nowadays you could say there is the Mono project so C# could be considered too but I believe it is a bit exaggerating. Why? Well, when a new release of Java is done it is simultaneously available on all platforms it supports, on the other hand how many features of C# 3.0 are still missing in the Mono implementation? Or is it really CLR vs. JRE that we should compare here? Java doesn't support events and delegates. As far as I know. In Java all methods are virtual Development tools: I believe there isn't such a tool yet as Visual Studio. Especially if you've worked with team editions you'll know what I mean. Please add others you think are relevant. Update: Just popped up my mind, Java doesn't have something like custom attributes on classes, methods etc. Or does it?

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  • I don't like Python functions that take two or more iterables. Is it a good idea?

    - by Xavier Ho
    This question came from looking at this question on Stackoverflow. def fringe8((px, py), (x1, y1, x2, y2)): Personally, it's been one of my pet peeves to see a function that takes two arguments with fixed-number iterables (like a tuple) or two or more dictionaries (Like in the Shotgun API). It's just hard to use, because of all the verbosity and double-bracketed enclosures. Wouldn't this be better: >>> class Point(object): ... def __init__(self, x, y): ... self.x = x ... self.y = y ... >>> class Rect(object): ... def __init__(self, x1, y1, x2, y2): ... self.x1 = x1 ... self.y1 = y1 ... self.x2 = x2 ... self.y2 = y2 ... >>> def fringe8(point, rect): ... # ... ... >>> >>> point = Point(2, 2) >>> rect = Rect(1, 1, 3, 3) >>> >>> fringe8(point, rect) Is there a situation where taking two or more iterable arguments is justified? Obviously the standard itertools Python library needs that, but I can't see it being pretty in maintainable, flexible code design.

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  • Chrome renders button links completely screwed up when placed inside a paragraph

    - by Ferdy
    I am fairly proficient in CSS but now I am running into a very strange rendering issue in Google Chrome 9. I am trying to create some fancy looking link buttons (basically heavily styled anchors). Here is some example markup: <a href="" class="button"> <figure class="sprite icon icon_back"></figure> Link button with icon</a> This markup may look a litte strange to you, there's a few things you should know: I am using HTML5's figure class to include an icon as part of the button. I have the proper reset CSS applied and Chrome can render this tag for sure. Instead of actually pointing to an image I am applying CSS classes to the figure element. Within the CSS I am using the spriting technique to show the correct portion of a single large sprite image. All of this is working fine in Firefox, and actually also in Chrome. The correct rendering can be seen in the following image: It renders like that in both Firefox and Chrome. Here comes the problem, if I place such a button within paragraph tags <p></p> this is what happens in Chrome only: Notice how the button is ripped apart? Only in Chrome and only when placed inside a paragraph. It gets even stranger: this only happens for the first button inside the paragraph, if I would place three buttons inside a paragraph, only the 1st one is screwed up. Your first question would probably be about the CSS. It is rather verbose so hereby a temporary link to the page in question: Edit: link to live page removed, was only temporary for problem inspection.

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  • using replace to produce javascript code, django

    - by durdenk
    I want to use highcharts with my django site but it requires a comlex javascript code such as below. So I wanted to get this script in my python code and replace apropriate portions then write it in my template, first question is, is this a dump way to do that for a person not knowing javascript. I can read it tough. Second question is, Why I cant replace this string. Lets say this string is a variable like this. lineChartsTemplate = """ ... ... """ if I try and do lineChartsTemplate .replace('dataCategory', dataCategory) it basically suppossed to change dataCategory text with my dataCategory variable, but no such luck. I need guidance here. thx. $(function () { var chart = new Highcharts.Chart({ chart: { renderTo: 'container', type: 'bar' }, xAxis: { categories: dataCategory }, yAxis: { }, legend: { layout: 'vertical', floating: true, backgroundColor: '#FFFFFF', align: 'right', verticalAlign: 'top', y: 60, x: -60 }, tooltip: { formatter: function() { return '<b>'+ this.series.name +'</b><br/>'+ this.x +': '+ this.y; } }, plotOptions: { }, series: [{ data: dataList , name : 'Satislar'}] }); });

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  • Treating differential operator as algebraic entity

    - by chappar
    I know that this question is offtopic and don't belong here. But i didn't know somewhere else to ask. So here is the question. I was reading e:the story of a number by Eli Maor, where he treats differential operator as just like any algebraic entity. For example if we have a differential equation like y’’ + 5y’ - 6y = 0. This can be treaed as (D^2 + 5D – 6)y = 0. So, either y = 0 (trivial solution) or (D^2 + 5D – 6) = 0. Factoring out above equation we get (D-1)(D+6)= 0 with solutions as D = 1 and D = -6. Since D does not have any meaning on its own, multiplying by y on both the sides we get Dy = y and Dy = -6y for which the solutions are Ae^x and Be^-6x. Combining these 2 solutions we get Ae^x + Be^-6x. Now my doubt is this approach break when we have an equation like D^2y = 0. Which means y = 0 (again trivial) or D^2 = 0 which means D = 0. Now Dy = y*0 = 0. That means y = C ( a constant). The actual answer should be Cx. I know that it is stupidity to treat D^2 = 0 as D = 0, it led me to doubt the entire process of treating differential equation as algebraic equation. Can someone throw light on this? Or any other site where i might get answer?

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  • Bind an Incode DataTemplate in WPF

    - by Mike Bynum
    I have a WPF Application which is using MVVM. I know that there ways of doing this in XAML but I am working on a plugin architecture and came up with a solution where a plugin exposes it's viewmodel to my plugin host's viewmodel and it's datatemplate. I want to leave the lifetime management of the plugin view up to WPF. I have tried having the plugins expose a UserControl but ran into issues when WPF decided to dispose of my UserControl so I would not reattach it without weird hacky work arounds. I am having issues getting some sort of binding working to where i can bind a control to the data and it's template to my data template. I have a ViewModel which looks something like: public class MyViewModel { public DataTemplate SelectedTemplate{ get; set;} public object SelectedViewModel {get; set;} } The selected template and viewmodel are determined somewhere else in the code but are irrelevant to my question. My question is how i can bind to a DataTemplate so that I know how to display the data shown in the SelectedViewModel. The DataTemplate is a DataTemplate created incode which respresents: <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type vm:MyViewModel}"> <v:MyUserControl /> </DataTemplate> I have tried: <UserControl Template="{Binding Path=SelectedTemplate}" Content="{Binding Path=SelectedViewModel"} /> But UserControl expects a control template and not a data template.

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  • How to change the meaning of pointer access operator

    - by kumar_m_kiran
    Hi All, This may be very obvious question, pardon me if so. I have below code snippet out of my project, #include <stdio.h> class X { public: int i; X() : i(0) {}; }; int main(int argc,char *arv[]) { X *ptr = new X[10]; unsigned index = 5; cout<<ptr[index].i<<endl; return 0; } Question Can I change the meaning of the ptr[index] ? Because I need to return the value of ptr[a[index]] where a is an array for subindexing. I do not want to modify existing source code. Any new function added which can change the behavior is needed. Since the access to index operator is in too many places (536 to be precise) in my code, and has complex formulas inside the index subscript operator, I am not inclined to change the code in many locations. PS : 1. I tried operator overload and came to conclusion that it is not possible. 2. Also p[i] will be transformed into *(p+i). I cannot redefine the basic operator '+'. So just want to reconfirm my understanding and if there are any possible short-cuts to achieve. Else I need fix it by royal method of changing every line of code :) .

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  • fix needed for bug in TextField/Text

    - by Mark
    Sort of a complicated scenario - just curious if anyone else could come up with something: I have a Text control and when I scroll it and stop the scroll with the cursor over some text that has a url, the cursor doesn't revert to a hand, and also flash player starts acting as if a selection is being made from the last cursor position. So IOW a bonafide bug in flash as far as I can determine. The above probably wasn't completely clear so let me elaborate. If you grab a scrollbar thumb and start moving it up and down, you don't actually have to keep the mouse pointer on the thumb while doing so. When you stop the scroll, the mouse pointer could be outside the browser window, inside your flash application, but not currently on the scroll bar thumb, or wherever. The previously mentioned bug occurs when you stop the scroll with the mouse pointer positioned over text with an html anchor (a hyperlink). At that point the cursor enters into some state of limbo, and doesn't show the url hand pointer, and furthermore acts as if some text selection is taking place from the last cursor position prior to the scroll. So the question would be, what sort of event could I simulate in code to jolt flash out of this erroneous state it is in. And furthermore in what event could I perform this simulated event (given that for example there is no AS3 event to signal the end of a scroll.) To be clear, the Text control in question is on a canvas, and that canvas (call it A) is on another canvas which actually owns the scrollbar, and scrolling takes place by changing the scrollRect of canvas A.

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  • Some sonatype nexus questions.

    - by smallufo
    I deployed a sonatype nexus server inside my LAN , mapping some remote repositories to my public repositories : First question is , why these repositories not sync with the "real" repositories ? For example , I mapped maven central (http://repo1.maven.org/maven2) to "central" , but when I browse http://smallufo:8081/nexus/content/repositories/central/org/springframework/ , the packages are not complete , in http://repo2.maven.org/maven2/org/springframework/ , there are tons of artifacts , but I only have some of them : And versions are old ... ex : spring-core is only 2.5.6.SEC01 , but the latest version is 3.0.2.RELEASE. And my maven client seems can only find the old artifacts ... "central" is a proxy directory , it should be the same with the remote server. I tried to "Expire Cache" , "ReIndex" , "Incremental ReIndex" the whole "central" : After a long time with almost 100% java process load , the situation seems not better , just add some artifacts ... not reflecting the real "Maven Central" data... Second question , what's difference with "Expire Cache" , "ReIndex" , "Incremental ReIndex" ? Even I can "search" spring-core.3.0.2.RELEASE , my m2eclipse still cannot find it : I can also see the spring-core-3.0.2.RELEASE in the "index" , (but not available in "storage") : But why m2eclipse cannot make use of it ? it seems m2eclipse can only install artifacts in the storage , if this is how nexus works , how do I "force" download spring-core-3.0.2.RELEASE to nexus's storage ? How do I solve these strange incompatibilities ? Thanks a lot !

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  • DDD: Enum like entities

    - by Chris
    Hi all, I have the following DB model: **Person table** ID | Name | StateId ------------------------------ 1 Joe 1 2 Peter 1 3 John 2 **State table** ID | Desc ------------------------------ 1 Working 2 Vacation and domain model would be (simplified): public class Person { public int Id { get; } public string Name { get; set; } public State State { get; set; } } public class State { private int id; public string Name { get; set; } } The state might be used in the domain logic e.g.: if(person.State == State.Working) // some logic So from my understanding, the State acts like a value object which is used for domain logic checks. But it also needs to be present in the DB model to represent a clean ERM. So state might be extended to: public class State { private int id; public string Name { get; set; } public static State New {get {return new State([hardCodedIdHere?], [hardCodeNameHere?]);}} } But using this approach the name of the state would be hardcoded into the domain. Do you know what I mean? Is there a standard approach for such a thing? From my point of view what I am trying to do is using an object (which is persisted from the ERM design perspective) as a sort of value object within my domain. What do you think? Question update: Probably my question wasn't clear enough. What I need to know is, how I would use an entity (like the State example) that is stored in a database within my domain logic. To avoid things like: if(person.State.Id == State.Working.Id) // some logic or if(person.State.Id == WORKING_ID) // some logic

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  • java: libraries for immutable functional-style data structures

    - by Jason S
    This is very similar to another question (Functional Data Structures in Java) but the answers there are not particularly useful. I need to use immutable versions of the standard Java collections (e.g. HashMap / TreeMap / ArrayList / LinkedList / HashSet / TreeSet). By "immutable" I mean immutable in the functional sense (e.g. purely functional data structures), where updating operations on the data structure do not change the original data, but instead return a new instance of the same kind of data structure. Also typically new and old instances of the data structure will share immutable data to be efficient in time and space. From what I can tell my options include: Functional Java Scala Clojure but I'm not sure whether any of these are particularly appealing to me. I have a few requirements/desirements: the collections in question should be usable directly in Java (with the appropriate libraries in the classpath). FJ would work for me; I'm not sure if I can use Scala's or Clojure's data structures in Java w/o having to use the compilers/interpreters from those languages and w/o having to write Scala or Clojure code. Core operations on lists/maps/sets should be possible w/o having to create function objects with confusing syntaxes (FJ looks slightly iffy) They should be efficient in time and space. I'm looking for a library which ideally has done some performance testing. FJ's TreeMap is based on a red-black tree, not sure how that rates. Documentation / tutorials should be good enough so someone can get started quickly using the data structures. FJ fails on that front. Any suggestions?

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  • Difference between MVC FilterAttribute and Filter

    - by zaaaaphod
    I'm trying to write my own custom AuthorizationAttribute that uses DI. I'm using the MUNQ IoC provider for it's speed and have decided to use constructor injection on all my classes as opposed to post instatiation property binding (because I prefer it). I'm trying to write a custom IFilterProvider that will use my IoC container to return requests for filters (so that I can map concrete classes using the container). I've come up with the following. public class FilterProvider : IFilterProvider { private readonly IocContainer _container; public FilterProvider(IocContainer container) { _container = container; } public IEnumerable<Filter> GetFilters(ControllerContext controllerContext, ActionDescriptor actionDescriptor) { var x = Enumerable.Union<Object>(_container.ResolveAll<IActionFilter>(), _container.ResolveAll<IAuthorizationFilter>()); foreach (Filter actionFilter in x) yield return new Filter(actionFilter, FilterScope.First, null); } } The above code will fail during the foreach because my objects that implement IAuthorizationFilter are based on FilterAttribute and not Filter My question is, what is the difference between Filter and FilterAttribute? I would have thought that there would have been a common link between them, unless I'm missing something. Another deeper question is, how come there is no IFilterAttributeProvider that would support IEnumerable GetFilters(...) Is there some other way that I should be using to resolve IAuthorizationFilter via my IoC container? Thank you very much for your help. Z

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  • Heroku: Postgres type operator error after migrating DB from MySQL

    - by sevennineteen
    This is a follow-up to a question I'd asked earlier which phrased this as more of a programming problem than a database problem. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2935985/postgres-error-with-sinatra-haml-datamapper-on-heroku I believe the problem has been isolated to the storage of the ID column in Heroku's Postgres database after running db:push. In short, my app runs properly on my original MySQL database, but throws Postgres errors on Heroku when executing any query on the ID column, which seems to have been stored in Postgres as TEXT even though it is stored as INT in MySQL. My question is why the ID column is being created as INT in Postgres on the data transfer to Heroku, and whether there's any way for me to prevent this. Here's the output from a heroku console session which demonstrates the issue: Ruby console for myapp.heroku.com >> Post.first.title => "Welcome to First!" >> Post.first.title.class => String >> Post.first.id => 1 >> Post.first.id.class => Fixnum >> Post[1] PostgresError: ERROR: operator does not exist: text = integer LINE 1: ...", "title", "created_at" FROM "posts" WHERE ("id" = 1) ORDER... ^ HINT: No operator matches the given name and argument type(s). You might need to add explicit type casts. Query: SELECT "id", "name", "email", "url", "title", "created_at" FROM "posts" WHERE ("id" = 1) ORDER BY "id" LIMIT 1 Thanks!

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  • How do I use an index in an array reference as a method reference in Perl?

    - by Robert P
    Similar to this question about iterating over subroutine references, and as a result of answering this question about a OO dispatch table, I was wondering how to call a method reference inside a reference, without removing it first, or if it was even possible. For example: package Class::Foo; use 5.012; #Yay autostrict! use warnings; # a basic constructor for illustration purposes.... sub new { my $class = shift; return bless {}, $class; } # some subroutines for flavor... sub sub1 { say 'in sub 1' } sub sub2 { say 'in sub 2' } sub sub3 { say 'in sub 3' } # and a way to dynamically load the tests we're running... sub sublist { my $self = shift; return [ $self->can('sub1'); $self->can('sub3'}; $self->can('sub2'); ]; } package main; my $instance = Class::Foo->new(a => 1, b => 2, c => 3); my $tests = $instance->sublist(); my $index = int(rand($#{$tests})); # <-- HERE So, at HERE, we could do: my $ref = $tests->{$index}; $instance->$ref(); but how would we do this, without removing the reference first?

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  • I want a insert query for a temp table

    - by John Stephen
    Hi..I am using C#.Net and Sql Server ( Windows Application ). I had created a temporary table. When a button is clicked, temporary table (#tmp_emp_answer) is created. I am having another button called "insert Values" and also 5 textboxes. The values that are entered in the textbox are used and whenever com.ExecuteNonQuery(); line comes, it throws an error message Invalid object name '#tbl_emp_answer'.. Below is the set of code.. Please give me a solution. Code for insert (in insert value button): private void btninsertvalues_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { username = txtusername.Text; examloginid = txtexamloginid.Text; question = txtquestion.Text; answer = txtanswer.Text; useranswer = txtanswer.Text; SqlConnection con = new SqlConnection("Data Source=.;Initial Catalog=tempdb;Integrated Security=True;"); SqlCommand com = new SqlCommand("Insert into #tbl_emp_answer values('"+username+"','"+examloginid+"','"+question+"','"+answer+"','"+useranswer+"')", con); con.Open(); com.ExecuteNonQuery(); con.Close(); }

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  • Which is the best way to encode batch videos on server side?

    - by albanx
    Hello I am making a general question since I am a developer and I have no advance experience on video elaboration. I have to preparare a web application with the purpose to allow video files upload on our company server and then video elaboration by server, on user command. The purpose of the web application is to allow to the user to make some elaboration on video depending on user action launch from the web app: (server has to ) convert video in different format(mp4, flv...) extact keyframes from video and saves them in jpeg format possibility to extract audio from video automatic control of quality audio & video (black frames,silences detection) change scene detection and keyframe extraction ..... This what's my bosses wanted from the web based application (with the server support obviously), and I understand only the first 3 points of this list, the rest for me was arabic.... My question is: Which is the best and fastest server side application for this works, that can support multiple batch video conversions, from command line (comand line for php-soap-socket interaction or something else..)? Is suitable Adobe Media Server for batch video conversion? Which are adobe products that can be used for this purpose? Note: I have experience with Indesign Server scripting programing (sending xml with php and soap call...), and I am looking to something similiar for video elaboration. I will appreciate any answers. THANKS ALL

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  • Can we run two simultaneous non-nested loops in Perl?

    - by Mike
    Part of my code goes like this: while(1){ my $winmm = new Win32::MediaPlayer; $winmm->load('1.mp3'); $winmm->play; $winmm->volume(100); Do Some Stuff; last if some condition is met; } Problem is: I want the music to be always on when I'm in the Do Some Stuff stage in the while loop. But the length of the music is so short that it will come to a full stop before I go to the next stage, so I want the music to repeat itself, but the Win32::Mediaplayer module does not seem to have a repeat mode, so I'm thinking of doing an infinite loop for the music playing part. Like this: while(1){ my $winmm = new Win32::MediaPlayer; $winmm->load('1.mp3'); $winmm->play; $winmm->volume(100); } while(2){ Do some stuff; last if some condition is met } But based on my current Perl knowledge if I'm in the while(1) part, I can never go to the while(2) part. Even if it comes to a nested loop, I have to do something to break out of the inside loop before going to the other part of the outside loop. The answer to my question "Can we run two simultaneous non-nested loops in Perl?" may be a NO, but I assume there is some way of handling such situation. Correct me if I'm wrong. Thanks as always for any comments/suggestions :) UPDATE I really appreciate the help from everyone. Thanks :) So the answer to my question is a YES, not a NO. I'm happy that I've learned how to use fork() and threads to solve a real problem :)

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  • iPhone -trouble with a loading data from webservice into a tableview

    - by medampudi
    I am using a Window based application and then loading up my initial navigationview based controller. After loading it if the user is not registered/ does not have a credentials present then it takes the user to a login view controller . loginViewController *sampleView = [[loginViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"loginViewController" bundle:nil]; [self.navigationController presentModalViewController:sampleView animated:YES]; [sampleView release]; then right after that i try to load the table with data that i get from a webservice using asiHTTP .. for this question lets say it takes 3 seconds time to get the data and then deserialize it . now... my question is it works out okey in the later runs as I store the username and password in a seure location... but in the first instance.... i am not able to get the data to laod to the tableview... I have tried a lot of things... 1. Initially the data fetch methods was in a diffrent methods.. so i thought that might be the problem as then moved it the same place as the tbleviewController(navigationController) 2. I event put in the Reload data at the end of the functionality for the data parsing and deserialization... nothing happens. 3. i did not understand the concept of @property and alll.... 4. The screen is black screen with nothing displayed on it for a good 5 seconds in the consecutive launches of the app.... so could we have something like a MBPorgressHUD implemented for the same. could any one please help for these scenarios and guidance as to what paths to take from here...

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  • Request for advice about class design, inheritance/aggregation

    - by Lasse V. Karlsen
    I have started writing my own WebDAV server class in .NET, and the first class I'm starting with is a WebDAVListener class, modelled after how the HttpListener class works. Since I don't want to reimplement the core http protocol handling, I will use HttpListener for all its worth, and thus I have a question. What would the suggested way be to handle this: Implement all the methods and properties found inside HttpListener, just changing the class types where it matters (ie. the GetContext + EndGetContext methods would return a different class for WebDAV contexts), and storing and using a HttpListener object internally Construct WebDAVListener by passing it a HttpListener class to use? Create a wrapper for HttpListener with an interface, and constrct WebDAVListener by passing it an object implementing this interface? If going the route of passing a HttpListener (disguised or otherwise) to the WebDAVListener, would you expose the underlying listener object through a property, or would you expect the program that used the class to keep a reference to the underlying HttpListener? Also, in this case, would you expose some of the methods of HttpListener through the WebDAVListener, like Start and Stop, or would you again expect the program that used it to keep the HttpListener reference around for all those things? My initial reaction tells me that I want a combination. For one thing, I would like my WebDAVListener class to look like a complete implementation, hiding the fact that there is a HttpListener object beneath it. On the other hand, I would like to build unit-tests without actually spinning up a networked server, so some kind of mocking ability would be nice to have as well, which suggests I would like the interface-wrapper way. One way I could solve this would be this: public WebDAVListener() : WebDAVListener(new HttpListenerWrapper()) { } public WebDAVListener(IHttpListenerWrapper listener) { } And then I would implement all the methods of HttpListener (at least all those that makes sense) in my own class, by mostly just chaining the call to the underlying HttpListener object. What do you think? Final question: If I go the way of the interface, assuming the interface maps 1-to-1 onto the HttpListener class, and written just to add support for mocking, is such an interface called a wrapper or an adapter?

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  • Updating an image's ImageUrl within a Repeater

    - by Django Reinhardt
    I hope someone can help me. It's a pretty newbie question, I'm afraid. I have an image inside a repeater, and I would like to change its IMAGEURL based on parameter that's being passed to it. <asp:Repeater ID="Repeater" runat="server"> <HeaderTemplate> <asp:Image ID="imgType" runat="server" /> </HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <%# Eval("DisplayName")%> </ItemTemplate> <SeparatorTemplate> <hr /> </SeparatorTemplate> </asp:Repeater> There is a SWITCH statement in the code behind that is altering the IMAGEURL depending on what's being passed to it. Inevitably, however, the images ID ("imgType") is not visible to the SWITCH statement (presumably because it's inside a REPEATER). Any suggestions on the best way to implement this would be greatly appreciated. Sorry for such a newbie question.

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  • Call .NET Webservice with Android

    - by Lasse P
    Hi, I know this question has been asked here before, but I don't think those answers were adequate for my needs. We have a SOAP webservice that is used for an iPhone application, but it is possible that we need an Android specific version or a proxy of the service, so we have the option to go with either SOAP or JSON. I have a few concerns about both methods: SOAP solution: Is it possible to generate java source code from a WSDL file, if so, will it include some kind of proxy class to invoke the webservice and will it work in the Android environment at all? Google has not provided any SOAP library in Android, so i need to use 3rd party, any suggestion? What about the performance/overhead with parsing and transmitting SOAP xml over the wire versus the JSON solution? JSON solution: There is a few classes in the Android sdk that will let me parse JSON, but does it support generic parsing, like if I want the result to be parsed as a complex type? Or would I need to implement that myself? I have read about 2 libraries before here on Stackoverflow, GSON an Jackson. What is the difference performance and usability (from a developers perspective) wise? Do you guys have any experince with either of those libraries? So i guess the big question is, what method to go with? I hope you can help me out. Thanks in advance :-)

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  • GUID or int entity key with SQL Compact/EF4?

    - by David Veeneman
    This is a follow-up to an earlier question I posted on EF4 entity keys with SQL Compact. SQL Compact doesn't allow server-generated identity keys, so I am left with creating my own keys as objects are added to the ObjectContext. My first choice would be an integer key, and the previous answer linked to a blog post that shows an extension method that uses the Max operator with a selector expression to find the next available key: public static TResult NextId<TSource, TResult>(this ObjectSet<TSource> table, Expression<Func<TSource, TResult>> selector) where TSource : class { TResult lastId = table.Any() ? table.Max(selector) : default(TResult); if (lastId is int) { lastId = (TResult)(object)(((int)(object)lastId) + 1); } return lastId; } Here's my take on the extension method: It will work fine if the ObjectContext that I am working with has an unfiltered entity set. In that case, the ObjectContext will contain all rows from the data table, and I will get an accurate result. But if the entity set is the result of a query filter, the method will return the last entity key in the filtered entity set, which will not necessarily be the last key in the data table. So I think the extension method won't really work. At this point, the obvious solution seems to be to simply use a GUID as the entity key. That way, I only need to call Guid.NewGuid() method to set the ID property before I add a new entity to my ObjectContext. Here is my question: Is there a simple way of getting the last primary key in the data store from EF4 (without having to create a second ObjectContext for that purpose)? Any other reason not to take the easy way out and simply use a GUID? Thanks for your help.

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  • how to get selected chracter position in JTextArea?

    - by Reddy
    Hi! Here is a challenging question! Let me first tell you my scenario how am i implementing a solution to a problem. I am reading a log file and displaying it on the JTextArea. Log file is cp037 character coded. I was reading each file as a byte stream or byte array from the log file & displaying it. Anyways, i managed to display the text properly in JTextArea by cp037 character coding. Now, User may select a set of characters in the JTextArea. All i want is the position of first character of the user's selected text, from a nearest special character '+'(its character code in cp037 is 4E), which is prior to the selected text. This character may occur at several places in the JTextArea. In simple sentence, i want the first character location(of user selected text) from nearset '+' which should be occuring prior to the user's selected text. PS: cp037 is a type of character encoding scheme which is created by IBM & used for IBM Mainframes. Please fell free to ask me if the question is not clear...:-

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